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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. He has a history of lung cancer for which he is currently undergoing radiation therapy. His observations are as follows: HR 92 bpm, BP 130/80, SaO2 98% on air, temperature 38.9°C. A diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis is suspected.
      Which of the following antibiotics are recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the initial empiric treatment of neutropenic sepsis?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav alone

      Correct Answer: Tazocin alone

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can occur when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is often caused by factors such as chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have a temperature higher than 38°C or show other signs and symptoms of significant sepsis.

      According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the recommended initial antibiotic treatment for suspected neutropenic sepsis is monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin 4.5 g IV). It is important to note that aminoglycosides should not be used as monotherapy or in combination therapy unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological reasons to do so.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the threshold MASCC Risk Index Score for identifying patients as low...

    Incorrect

    • What is the threshold MASCC Risk Index Score for identifying patients as low risk for outpatient treatment with early antibiotics in cases of neutropenic sepsis?

      Your Answer: 19

      Correct Answer: 21

      Explanation:

      The MASCC Risk Index Score, developed by the Multinational Association of Supportive Care in Cancer, is a globally recognized scoring system that helps identify patients with neutropenic sepsis who have a low risk of complications and can potentially be treated as outpatients with early administration of antibiotics. This scoring system takes into account various characteristics to determine the risk level of the patient. These characteristics include the burden of febrile neutropenia with no or mild symptoms, absence of hypotension, no history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, presence of a solid tumor or hematological malignancy without previous fungal infection, absence of dehydration requiring parenteral fluids, burden of febrile neutropenia with moderate symptoms, being in an outpatient setting at the onset of fever, and age below 60 years. Each characteristic is assigned a certain number of points, and a total score of 21 or higher indicates a low risk, while a score below 21 indicates a high risk. The MASCC Risk Index Score has been validated internationally and has shown a positive predictive value of 91%, specificity of 68%, and sensitivity of 71%. For more detailed information, you can refer to the article titled Identifying Patients at Low Risk for FN Complications: Development and Validation of the MASCC Risk Index Score.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recent onset back...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recent onset back pain. After conducting a thorough examination, your findings raise significant alarm. You begin to suspect the presence of metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC).
      What specific feature is the strongest indicator of MSCC?

      Your Answer: Pain improves within 48 hours of NSAID usage

      Correct Answer: Localised spinal tenderness

      Explanation:

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs when a tumor mass compresses the thecal sac and its components, leading to a spinal emergency. If the pressure on the spinal cord is not relieved promptly, it can result in irreversible loss of neurological function. The most crucial factor for predicting functional outcomes is the patient’s neurological function before treatment. Therefore, delayed treatment can lead to permanent disability and a decrease in quality of life.

      The most common cancers that cause MSCC include prostate, lung, breast, and myeloma. In approximately 10 to 20% of cancer patients, MSCC is the first noticeable symptom. It is important to consider MSCC in any patient with a history of cancer if they experience any of the following symptoms: severe or worsening lower back pain, nocturnal pain that disrupts sleep, localized spinal tenderness, radicular pain, or neurological symptoms.

      Thoracic pain can also be an indicator of MSCC or an aortic aneurysm. In patients aged 60 or older with persistent back pain, myeloma should be considered. For patients aged 60 or older with accompanying weight loss, pancreatic cancer should be taken into consideration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You assess a patient who has recently undergone a localized lung segmentectomy. A...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who has recently undergone a localized lung segmentectomy. A few days after the procedure, he presents with feelings of illness, and today's blood results reveal the development of hyponatremia.
      What is the most probable cause of this biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer: postoperative blood transfusion

      Correct Answer: Removal of hormonally active tumour

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) that originates from neuroendocrine tissue has the potential to cause paraneoplastic endocrine syndromes, such as Cushing syndrome. This occurs due to the inappropriate secretion of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient underwent surgery to remove an ACTH-secreting neuroendocrine tumor within the lung.

      The tumors associated with the production of ectopic ACTH are as follows:
      – SCLC – 50%
      – Bronchial carcinoid tumors – 10%
      – Thymic carcinoma – 10%
      – Pancreatic islet cell tumors – 5%
      – Phaeochromocytoma – 5%
      – Medullary carcinoma – 5%

      When ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors are present, the typical signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome may be minimal. The onset of symptoms can be sudden, especially in rapidly growing SCLCs. The typical biochemical profile observed in these cases includes elevated sodium levels, low potassium levels, and metabolic alkalosis.

      The body’s homeostatic mechanism will attempt to compensate for the elevated sodium levels by lowering them. However, after the tumor is removed, a paradoxical period of hyponatremia may occur during the postoperative period. This hyponatremia gradually normalizes until the sodium levels reach a normal range once again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old woman, who has been smoking for her entire life, is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman, who has been smoking for her entire life, is diagnosed with a small cell carcinoma of the lung. After further examination, it is revealed that she has developed the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) as a result of this.
      What kind of electrolyte disturbance would you anticipate in this case?

      Your Answer: Low serum Na, high serum osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

      Correct Answer: Low serum Na, low serum osmolarity, high urine osmolarity

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive and uncontrollable release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This can occur either from the posterior pituitary gland or from an abnormal non-pituitary source. There are various conditions that can disrupt the regulation of ADH secretion in the central nervous system and lead to SIADH. These include CNS damage such as meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage, paraneoplastic syndromes like small cell carcinoma of the lung, infections such as atypical pneumonia or cerebral abscess, and certain drugs like carbamazepine, TCAs, and SSRIs.

      The typical biochemical profile observed in SIADH is characterized by low levels of serum sodium (usually less than 135 mmol/l), low serum osmolality, and high urine osmolality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recently developed back...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recently developed back pain. After conducting a thorough examination, your findings raise significant alarm. You begin to consider the likelihood of a metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) diagnosis.
      Among the following types of cancer, which one is most frequently associated with MSCC?

      Your Answer: Bowel cancer

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs when a tumor mass compresses the thecal sac and its components, leading to a spinal emergency. If the pressure on the spinal cord is not relieved promptly, it can result in irreversible loss of neurological function. The most crucial factor for predicting functional outcome is the patient’s neurological function before treatment. Therefore, delayed treatment can lead to permanent disability and a decrease in quality of life.

      The most common cancers that cause MSCC are prostate, lung, breast, and myeloma. In approximately 10 to 20% of cancer patients, MSCC is the first noticeable symptom. It is important to consider MSCC in any patient with a history of cancer if they experience any of the following symptoms: severe or progressive lumbar back pain, nocturnal pain that disrupts sleep, localized spinal tenderness, radicular pain, or neurological symptoms.

      Thoracic pain can also be an indicator of MSCC, but it can also be caused by an aortic aneurysm. In patients aged 60 or older with persistent back pain, myeloma should be considered. Similarly, in patients aged 60 or older with accompanying weight loss, pancreatic cancer should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents with a high fever, and you have concerns about the potential occurrence of neutropenic sepsis.

      Which of the following statements about neutropenic sepsis is NOT true?

      Your Answer: It can be diagnosed in the absence of a temperature greater than 38°C

      Correct Answer: Dual therapy with Tazocin and an aminoglycoside is the recommended first-line treatment for confirmed neutropenic sepsis

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can occur when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is often caused by factors such as chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, infections, and bone marrow disorders. Mortality rates can be as high as 20% in adults.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, if a patient has a temperature higher than 38°C or other signs of significant sepsis, they may be diagnosed with neutropenic sepsis.

      Cancer treatments, particularly chemotherapy, can weaken the bone marrow ability to fight off infections, making patients more susceptible to neutropenic sepsis. This risk can also be present with radiotherapy.

      According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), adult patients with acute leukemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumors should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone antibiotic during periods of expected neutropenia.

      When managing neutropenic sepsis, it is important to follow the UK Sepsis Trust Sepsis Six bundle, which includes specific actions to be taken within the first hour of recognizing sepsis.

      For initial empiric antibiotic therapy in suspected cases of neutropenic sepsis, the NICE guidelines recommend using piperacillin with tazobactam as monotherapy. Aminoglycosides should not be used unless there are specific patient or local microbiological indications.

      Reference:
      NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient currently undergoing treatment for a malignant condition comes in with a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient currently undergoing treatment for a malignant condition comes in with a recent weight increase, puffiness in the face, high blood pressure, and acne. Blood tests show high sodium levels, low potassium levels, and metabolic alkalosis.

      Which of the following is the most probable location of this tumor?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Correct Answer: Lung

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) that originates from neuroendocrine tissue can lead to the development of paraneoplastic endocrine syndromes, such as Cushing syndrome. This occurs due to the inappropriate secretion of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). In this case, it is highly likely that the patient has a neuroendocrine tumor within the lung that is secreting ACTH.

      The signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome may be minimal in cases of ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and the onset of symptoms may be sudden, especially in rapidly growing SCLCs. The typical biochemical profile observed in these cases includes elevated sodium levels, low potassium levels, and a metabolic alkalosis.

      The tumors associated with the production of ectopic ACTH are as follows:
      – Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) – 50%
      – Bronchial carcinoid tumors – 10%
      – Thymic carcinoma – 10%
      – Pancreatic islet cell tumors – 5%
      – Phaeochromocytoma – 5%
      – Medullary thyroid carcinoma – 5%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of feeling generally unwell and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. She has a history of breast cancer for which she is currently undergoing radiation therapy. Her vital signs are as follows: HR 100 bpm, BP 120/80, SaO2 95% on room air, temperature 38.5°C.
      The results of her complete blood count are as follows:
      Hemoglobin (Hb) 9.2 g/dl
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) 80 fl
      Platelets 60 x 109/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 1.2 x 109/l
      Lymphocytes 0.4 x 109/l
      Neutrophils 0.6 x 109/l
      Monocytes 0.1 x 109/l
      Which of the following antibiotics would be most appropriate for the initial empiric treatment of this patient?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone and gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Tazocin alone

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of pancytopenia along with a fever, indicating a likely case of neutropenic sepsis. Their blood test results reveal microcytic anemia, leucopenia (with significant neutropenia), and thrombocytopenia. Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can be life-threatening, characterized by a low neutrophil count. There are several potential causes of neutropenia, including cytotoxic chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, stem cell transplantation, infections, bone marrow disorders like aplastic anemia and myelodysplastic syndromes, and nutritional deficiencies.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis in patients undergoing anticancer treatment, their neutrophil count should be 0.5 x 109 per liter or lower, and they should have either a temperature above 38°C or other signs and symptoms indicative of clinically significant sepsis. According to the current NICE guidelines, initial empiric antibiotic therapy for suspected neutropenic sepsis should involve monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin 4.5 g IV). It is not recommended to use an aminoglycoside, either alone or in combination therapy, unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological reasons to do so.

      Reference:
      NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling in her arms and hands. Upon examination, you observe that her face is also swollen and she has multiple enlarged veins and telangiectasia on her chest. She has a known history of lung cancer.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has come in with worsening breathlessness and coughing, along with coughing up blood, all of which are occurring on top of their existing lung cancer. The diagnosis in this case is superior vena cava obstruction, which is being caused by the primary bronchial neoplasm.

      The typical clinical presentation of superior vena cava obstruction includes breathlessness and coughing, chest pain, swelling in the neck, face, and arms, dilated veins and telangiectasia on the arms, neck, and chest wall, facial flushing, stridor due to laryngeal edema, and cyanosis.

      Given the urgency of the situation, this man will require immediate treatment. Upon initial presentation, it is important to elevate his head and provide supplemental oxygen to alleviate symptoms. Additionally, corticosteroids and diuretics may be administered. Further investigation will be necessary through CT scanning, and radiotherapy may be recommended as a potential course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      2.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Oncological Emergencies (1/10) 10%
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