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  • Question 1 - A middle aged male patient presents with jaundice and epigastric abdominal pain, he...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged male patient presents with jaundice and epigastric abdominal pain, he describes an intermittent history of similar pain over the past 3 months, however, this time it is much worse. He has markedly raised bilirubin and mildly deranged LFTs, with a predominantly obstructive picture. Other pertinent history includes mild alcohol use.
      What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cholecystitis

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Obstructive Jaundice: A Case Analysis

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that the most probable cause of obstructive jaundice is gallstones lodged in the common bile duct. Recurrent episodes of biliary colic and/or cholecystitis may have caused the intermittent abdominal pain, which has now worsened and led to hepatic obstruction. Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder due to gallstones, would not cause obstructive jaundice unless the gallstones leave the gallbladder and become lodged in the common bile duct. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis is a common cause of acute pancreatitis in the UK, but it will not cause obstructive jaundice. Hepatitis C may cause cirrhosis and subsequently jaundice, but there is no evidence that the patient is an intravenous drug user. Pancreatic carcinoma, particularly if located in the head of the pancreas, can cause obstructive jaundice, but it is usually painless in origin. Courvoisier’s law states that a non-tender palpable gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage

      The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:

      Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.

      Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.

      Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.

      Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.

      Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.

      Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman presents with abnormal liver function tests and symptoms of fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with abnormal liver function tests and symptoms of fatigue and itching for the past three months. She reports drinking 5 units of alcohol per week and denies any intravenous recreational drug use. She has no significant medical history and has a body mass index of 24 kg/m2. On examination, she has hepatomegaly but no jaundice. Ultrasound of the liver is normal. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum albumin of 38 g/L, serum alanine aminotransferase of 40 U/L, serum alkaline phosphatase of 286 U/L, and serum total bilirubin of 27 μmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: A Breakdown of Immune Tolerance

      Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is an autoimmune condition that affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the breakdown of immune tolerance to mitochondrial antigens, leading to T cell-mediated destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts. This process results in ductopenia, bile duct injury, and cholestasis, which eventually lead to liver injury and fibrosis, culminating in the development of cirrhosis.

      Most patients with PBC are asymptomatic at diagnosis, but eventually develop symptoms such as itching and fatigue. Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs) are found in 95% of patients with PBC, making it a useful diagnostic marker.

      While primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a possibility, it is more common in men and is usually accompanied by evidence of strictures or dilation on abdominal ultrasound scan. PSC also has a strong association with inflammatory bowel disease colitis. Alcoholic liver disease and autoimmune hepatitis are unlikely diagnoses in this case, as there is no history of excess alcohol consumption and the transaminitis (raised ALT and/or AST) commonly seen in autoimmune hepatitis is not present.

      On the other hand, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is more likely to be seen in overweight or obese individuals with other metabolic risk factors such as diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidaemia. It is often incidentally detected through abnormal liver function tests in asymptomatic individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP to extract a common bile duct stone discovered during an episode of biliary colic.
      What is the primary medical condition for which ERCP would be the most beneficial diagnostic procedure?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic duct strictures

      Explanation:

      ERCP and its Indications for Diagnosis and Management of Pancreatic Duct Strictures

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used for imaging the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts. It involves the injection of contrast to outline the ducts, allowing for visual inspection of the ampullary region of the pancreas and outlining of the pancreatic duct. ERCP is helpful in identifying stones, strictures, and tumors that cause obstruction, as well as for therapeutic interventions such as stone extraction or stent insertion.

      ERCP is indicated for patients with evidence or suspicion of obstructive jaundice, biliary/pancreatic duct disease, pancreatic cancer, pancreatitis of unknown origin, pancreatic pseudocysts, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and for therapeutic drainage. However, ERCP is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of alcoholic cirrhosis or hereditary hemochromatosis. Diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis can generally be based on clinical and laboratory findings, while liver biopsy can be used to confirm diagnosis if the cause is unclear. Gilbert syndrome, a mild self-limiting condition that causes pre-hepatic jaundice, does not require ERCP for diagnosis. Although ERCP may be used in the therapeutic management of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma with obstructive jaundice, it is not useful in the diagnosis of the condition itself.

      In conclusion, ERCP is a valuable tool for the diagnosis and management of pancreatic duct strictures, but its indications should be carefully considered in each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastric ulcer

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Causes and Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions, including oesophageal varices, Mallory-Weiss tear, peptic ulcer, gastric ulcer, and oesophagitis. In cases of suspected oesophageal varices, examination findings of splenomegaly and spider naevi suggest chronic liver failure with portal hypertension. Immediate management includes resuscitation, PPI levels, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding. Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, but sudden-onset haematemesis of large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. OGD can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers. Oesophagitis may cause pain but is unlikely to lead to significant haematemesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old man with a lengthy history of alcoholic cirrhosis reported experiencing intense...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a lengthy history of alcoholic cirrhosis reported experiencing intense dysphagia and a burning sensation in his retrosternal area. While performing an oesophagoscopy, the endoscopist inserted the endoscope until it reached the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
      At which vertebral level is it most probable that the endoscope tip reached?

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Vertebral Levels and Their Corresponding Anatomical Structures

      T10 vertebral level is where the oesophageal hiatus is located, allowing the oesophagus and branches of the vagus to pass through. T7 vertebral level corresponds to the inferior angle of the scapula and where the hemiazygos veins cross the midline to reach the azygos vein. The caval opening, which is traversed by the inferior vena cava, is found at T8 vertebral level. T9 is the level of the xiphoid process. Finally, the aortic hiatus, which is traversed by the descending aorta, azygos and hemiazygos veins, and the thoracic duct, is located at T12 vertebral level. Understanding these anatomical structures and their corresponding vertebral levels is important in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year old child has been admitted to the hospital after experiencing fever, feeling unwell, and developing bloody diarrhea for the past two days. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Diarrhoea and Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome

      Enterohaemorrhagic verocytotoxin-producing E coli 0157:H7 is the most probable cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This type of E coli is known to produce toxins that can damage the lining of the intestine and cause bloody diarrhoea. In severe cases, it can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome, a condition that affects the kidneys and can cause kidney failure.

      Crohn’s disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that can cause chronic diarrhoea, but it would be unusual for it to present acutely as in this case. Polio and giardiasis are other possible causes of diarrhoea, but they typically present as non-bloody diarrhoea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of acute diarrhoea and haemolytic uraemic syndrome to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a...

    Incorrect

    • An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a blood test of one of the admitted elderly patients. It appears that the elderly patient has had an acute rise in his plasma urea levels.
      In which of the following conditions would you expect a raised plasma urea level in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Intracranial haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperuricaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Urea Production

      Hyperuricaemia, or elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of the factors that contribute to this condition is gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in the upper part of the digestive system. When there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as in cases of gastric ulcer, the blood that is excreted undergoes digestion as it passes through the small intestine. This results in an increased production of urea, a by-product of blood digestion, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream. However, reduced renal perfusion in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding can further exacerbate the levels of urea in the blood, as excretion becomes less effective.

      It is important to note that not all types of gastrointestinal bleeding are associated with hyperuricaemia. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, such as in cases of diverticular disease, does not cause a rise in urea levels. This is because blood released in the lumen of the large bowel does not undergo the same amount of digestion as it does in the small intestine. Instead, the large bowel primarily functions to reabsorb water and sodium.

      Other medical conditions, such as intracranial haemorrhage and ulcerative colitis, are not directly linked to hyperuricaemia. However, significant bleeding in any part of the body can indirectly cause this condition by leading to kidney hypoperfusion and pre-renal acute kidney failure.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between gastrointestinal bleeding and urea production can help in identifying the causes of hyperuricaemia. While upper gastrointestinal bleeding can lead to elevated levels of urea in the blood, lower gastrointestinal bleeding and other medical conditions may not have the same effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still in his abdomen after being stabbed in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan revealed that the tip of the knife had punctured the superior border of the greater omentum at the junction of the body and pyloric antrum of the stomach.
      What is the most likely direct branch artery that has been severed by the knife?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The knife likely cut the right gastro-omental artery, which is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery. This artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach within the superior border of the greater omentum and anastomoses with the left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery. The coeliac trunk, which supplies blood to the foregut, is not related to the greater omentum but to the lesser omentum. The hepatic artery proper, one of the terminal branches of the common hepatic artery, courses towards the liver in the free edge of the lesser omentum. The splenic artery, a tortuous branch of the coeliac trunk, supplies blood to the spleen and gives off the left gastro-omental artery. The short gastric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the fundus of the stomach and branches off the splenic artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history of fatigue, irritability and bronzing of the skin. She would like to know more about the prognosis of the condition and is concerned about the risks of passing on the condition to any children that she may have in the future.

      Which of the following statements best describes haemochromatosis?

      Your Answer: There is an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron, leading to iron overload and deposition in vital organs such as the liver and pancreas. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with a frequency of homozygotes in the population of 1:500. The disorder is most commonly found in Celtic nations. Symptoms typically present in the third to fourth decade of life in men and post-menopause in women and include weakness, fatigue, skin bronzing, diabetes, cirrhosis, and cardiac disease. Treatment involves venesection, and in severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary. Haemochromatosis increases the risk of developing liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma by up to 200-fold. Iron deposition in the pancreas can also lead to diabetes, and patients with haemochromatosis who develop diabetes usually require insulin treatment. Arthropathy associated with haemochromatosis is the result of pseudogout, as iron deposits impair cartilage nutrition and enhance the formation and deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Heterozygotes for the HFE gene typically do not develop cirrhosis and remain asymptomatic due to the disorder’s low penetrance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over the last 2 months. On questioning, he describes postprandial fullness and loss of appetite. He denies any dysphagia, melaena or haematemesis. He has a long-standing history of heartburn. He has no other relevant past medical history. Investigations reveal iron deficiency anaemia. Endoscopy confirms gastric cancer.
      What is a risk factor for gastric cancer in this 67-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Helicobacter pylori

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Cancer

      Gastric cancer is a prevalent form of cancer worldwide, but its incidence is decreasing. Several factors are associated with an increased risk of developing gastric cancer, including pernicious anaemia, blood group A, smoking, and a diet high in nitrate and salt. However, a diet rich in citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables can decrease the risk. Helicobacter pylori infection is a significant risk factor, with a relative risk of 5.9. However, this bacterium is not a risk factor for cancer of the gastric cardia, which is increasing and associated with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, smoking, and obesity. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may have a protective effect in preventing gastric cancer. Blood group B and a higher education/social class are protective factors. A diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables is also likely to be protective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain and black stools since last night. She reports no unintentional weight loss or fresh blood in her stool. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis treated with ibuprofen and well-controlled essential hypertension with candesartan. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals an actively bleeding gastric ulcer. What major vessel supplies blood to the affected area of her gastrointestinal tract?

      Your Answer: Coeliac trunk

      Explanation:

      Blood Supply to the Digestive System: Arteries and their Branches

      The digestive system receives its blood supply from several arteries and their branches. The coeliac trunk, which originates from the abdominal aorta, carries the major blood supply to the stomach through its three main divisions: the left gastric artery, the common hepatic artery, and the splenic artery. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the colon and small bowel, while the superior mesenteric artery mainly supplies the duodenum, small intestines, colon, and pancreas. The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen and gives rise to the left gastroepiploic artery. The artery of Drummond connects the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries and is also known as the marginal artery of the colon. It is important to note that the absence of this artery is a variant and not pathological.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, fever and...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, fever and two episodes of vomiting. She states that she has had previous episodes of right upper-quadrant pain with radiation to the right shoulder blade but has never sought medical attention for this.
      Her past medical history is significant for obesity and hypertension.
      Examination reveals an obese abdomen with tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastric region. No jaundice is evident.
      Observations are as follows:
      Temperature 38.5°C
      Heart rate 87 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 19 breaths per minute
      SpO2 98% (room air)
      Blood pressure 145/86 mmHg
      Laboratory results reveal an elevated white cell count and C-reactive protein. An abdominal ultrasound reveals multiple gallstones in the body of the gallbladder. The gallbladder is thickened, with the largest stone measuring 17 mm.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between surgical interventions for gallbladder disease

      Gallbladder disease can present in various ways, and the appropriate surgical intervention depends on the specific clinical scenario. In the case of acute cholecystitis, which is characterized by right upper quadrant pain, fever, and an elevated white cell count, immediate surgical input is necessary. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended course of action, but it is important to wait for the settling of acute symptoms before proceeding with surgery.

      Exploratory laparotomy, on the other hand, is indicated in patients who are haemodynamically unstable and have a rigid, peritonitic abdomen on examination. If the patient has a soft abdomen without haemodynamic instability, exploratory laparotomy is not necessary.

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is indicated in patients who have common bile duct stones. However, if the patient has gallstones in the body of the gallbladder, ERCP is not the appropriate intervention.

      Intravenous (IV) proton pump inhibitors, such as pantoprazole, are indicated in patients suffering from severe peptic ulcer disease, which typically presents with deep epigastric pain in a patient with risk factors for peptic ulcers, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use or Helicobacter pylori infection.

      Finally, percutaneous cholecystostomy is mainly reserved for patients who are critically unwell or are poor surgical candidates. This procedure involves the image-guided placement of a drainage catheter into the gallbladder lumen with the aim of stabilizing the patient so that a more measured surgical approach can be taken in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than a 15-pack year history of smoking, he has no other medical history and reports no prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Endoscopy reveals features of gastritis and a solitary gastric ulcer in the pyloric antrum. A rapid urease test turned red, revealing a positive result.
      What would be a suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Helicobacter pylori Infection

      Helicobacter pylori is a Gram-negative bacillus that causes chronic gastritis and can lead to ulceration if left untreated. Diagnosis of H. pylori infection can be done through a rapid urease test, which detects the presence of the enzyme urease produced by the bacterium. Treatment for H. pylori infection involves a 7-day course of two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). Fluconazole, prednisolone and azathioprine, and quinine and clindamycin are not appropriate treatments for H. pylori infection. Combination drug therapy is common to reduce the risk of resistance in chronic infections. Repeat testing should be done after treatment to ensure clearance of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of heartburn and epigastric pain that are...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of heartburn and epigastric pain that are affecting his daily routine. Upon endoscopy, a shallow ulcer is observed on the posterior aspect of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be eroded by the ulcer?

      Your Answer: Left gastric artery

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Gastrointestinal Tract

      The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by several arteries, each with its own unique function and potential for complications. Here are some of the main arteries and their roles:

      1. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is often the culprit of gastrointestinal bleeding from peptic ulcer disease. It is the first branch of the common hepatic artery and runs behind the first part of the duodenum.

      2. Short gastric artery: A branch of the splenic artery, this artery supplies the cardia and superior part of the greater curvature of the stomach.

      3. Splenic artery: One of the three main branches of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the pancreas body and tail. It is at high risk of bleeding in severe pancreatitis due to its close proximity to the supero-posterior border of the pancreas.

      4. Left gastric artery: Another branch of the coeliac trunk, this artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery.

      5. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, also a branch of the splenic artery, supplies much of the greater curvature of the stomach.

      Understanding the roles and potential complications of these arteries is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of gastrointestinal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 23-year-old plumber is admitted to the Surgical Ward after undergoing an appendicectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old plumber is admitted to the Surgical Ward after undergoing an appendicectomy. A medical student conducts a thorough examination and takes a detailed medical history of the patient. The student observes that the patient is exhibiting jaundice but does not display any other symptoms of liver dysfunction. The liver function tests reveal the following results: total bilirubin of 52 mmol/l, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 37 iu/l, alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 32 iu/l, and alkaline phosphatase 70 u/l. What is the likely condition affecting this patient?

      Your Answer: Caroli’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gilbert’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Jaundice: A Brief Overview

      Jaundice is a common clinical finding that can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One possible cause is Gilbert’s syndrome, a congenital defect in the liver’s ability to conjugate bilirubin. This results in mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which may occasionally lead to jaundice during fasting or concurrent illness. However, Gilbert’s syndrome is typically benign and requires no treatment.

      In contrast, Crigler-Najjar type I and type II are also defects in glucuronyl transferase activity, but they present with severe jaundice or death in the neonatal period. Wilson’s disease, a rare disorder of copper metabolism, can also cause jaundice, but it is unlikely to be the cause in this scenario.

      Another possible cause of jaundice is Caroli’s syndrome, a congenital dilation of the intrahepatic bile duct that presents with recurrent episodes of cholangitis. It is important to differentiate between these various causes of jaundice in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer: Usually have blood in their stools

      Correct Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that is usually caused by a viral infection. Antibiotics are not necessary in most cases as they are only effective against bacterial infections. Changing formula feeds is also not recommended as it may cause further digestive problems. However, if the child is unable to tolerate oral fluids, intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary to prevent dehydration.

      Lactose intolerance is a common occurrence in children with gastroenteritis, but it is not inevitable. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and adjust their diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis as they are more commonly used to diagnose structural abnormalities in the digestive system.

      In summary, the management of gastroenteritis in children involves providing supportive care such as oral rehydration therapy and monitoring for signs of dehydration. Antibiotics are not necessary unless there is a bacterial infection present. It is important to be aware of the possibility of lactose intolerance and adjust the child’s diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man comes back from a visit to India with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes back from a visit to India with symptoms of nausea, anorexia, and fatigue. During a physical examination, his doctor observes clinical jaundice and moderate palpable liver and spleen. After conducting blood tests and viral markers, the diagnosis is hepatitis A. What is the mode of transmission for hepatitis A?

      Your Answer: Vertical

      Correct Answer: Faeco-oral

      Explanation:

      Modes of Transmission for Hepatitis A, B, and C

      Hepatitis is a common cause of jaundice and should be considered in patients with abnormal liver function tests. The clinical features of acute hepatitis include a non-specific prodromal illness followed by jaundice. Hepatitis A and E are highly infectious and spread through the faeco-oral route. Infected individuals excrete the virus in their faeces for up to 5 weeks. Infection is more common in areas of poor sanitation. Hepatitis B and C can be spread through vertical transmission, sexual contact, blood products, and saliva. It is important to ask patients with jaundice if they had any blood products prior to 1991, as blood products in the UK have been screened for hepatitis C since then.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 40-year-old woman presented to the gastroenterology clinic with intermittent biliary type pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presented to the gastroenterology clinic with intermittent biliary type pain, fever, and jaundice requiring recurrent hospital admissions. During her last admission, she underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She has a history of ulcerative colitis for the past 15 years.

      Investigations revealed elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (100 U/L), serum alkaline phosphatase (383 U/L), and serum total bilirubin (45 μmol/L). However, her serum IgG, IgA, and IgM levels were normal, and serology for hepatitis B and C was negative. Ultrasound of the abdomen showed dilated intrahepatic ducts and a common bile duct of 6 mm.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Choledocholithiasis

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Cholangitis, PSC, and Other Related Conditions

      Cholangitis is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of biliary pain, fever, and jaundice. On the other hand, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a progressive disease that affects the bile ducts, either intrahepatic or extrahepatic, or both. The cause of PSC is unknown, but it is characterized by a disproportionate elevation of serum alkaline phosphatase. Patients with PSC are prone to repeated episodes of acute cholangitis, which require hospitalization. Up to 90% of patients with PSC have underlying inflammatory bowel disease, usually ulcerative colitis. Imaging studies, such as MRCP, typically show multifocal strictures in the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts. The later course of PSC is characterized by secondary biliary cirrhosis, portal hypertension, and liver failure. Patients with PSC are also at higher risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a marked elevation in transaminitis, the presence of autoantibodies, and elevated serum IgG. Choledocholithiasis, another related condition, is usually diagnosed by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen, which shows a dilated common bile duct (larger than 6 mm) and stones in the bile duct. Meanwhile, primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is unlikely to cause recurrent episodes of cholangitis. Unlike PSC, PBC does not affect extrahepatic bile ducts. Finally, viral hepatitis is unlikely in the absence of positive serology. these conditions and their characteristics is crucial in providing proper diagnosis and treatment to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
    HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
      HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve, HBeAb −ve, HBc IgM +ve
      Which one of the following interpretations is correct for a patient who is slightly older?

      Your Answer: Susceptible to hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with high infectivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves several blood tests that can provide information about the patient’s current infection status, susceptibility to the virus, and immunity. Here are some key points to understand about hepatitis B test results:

      Chronic Hepatitis B with High Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates a current infection with high infectivity. This means that the virus is highly active and can easily spread to others.

      Susceptible to Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests negative for HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HBs, it indicates that they are susceptible to hepatitis B and have not been infected or vaccinated against it.

      Chronic Hepatitis B with Low Infectivity
      If a patient tests positive for HBeAg but negative for HBeAb, it indicates a chronic carrier state with low infectivity. This means that the virus is less active and less likely to spread to others.

      Previous Immunisation Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. However, if they also test positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates an active infection rather than immunisation.

      Natural Immunity Against Hepatitis B
      If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. This means that they have been exposed to the virus in the past and have developed immunity to it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - You are the Foundation Year doctor on the Gastroenterology ward round. The consultant...

    Incorrect

    • You are the Foundation Year doctor on the Gastroenterology ward round. The consultant is reviewing a new patient to the ward. This is a 32-year-old man with active Crohn’s disease. From the medical notes, you are aware that the patient has had a number of previous admissions to the Unit and poor response to conventional therapy. The consultant mentions the possibility of using a drug called infliximab, and the patient asks whether this is an antibiotic.
      What is the mode of action of infliximab?

      Your Answer: α-4 integrin antagonist

      Correct Answer: Antibody against tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)

      Explanation:

      Common Disease-Modifying Agents and Their Targets

      Disease-modifying agents (DMARDs) are a group of drugs used to treat various diseases, including rheumatic disease, gastrointestinal disease, and neurological conditions. These agents have different targets in the immune system, and some of the most common ones are discussed below.

      Antibody against Tumour Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)
      TNF-α inhibitors, such as infliximab and adalimumab, are used to treat rheumatic disease and inflammatory bowel disease. These agents increase susceptibility to infection and should not be administered with live vaccines.

      Antibody against CD20
      Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody against CD20 and is used to treat aggressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      Interleukin (IL)-1 Blocker
      Anakinra is an IL-1 receptor antagonist used to treat rheumatoid arthritis.

      α-4 Integrin Antagonist
      Natalizumab is a humanised monoclonal antibody against α-4-integrin and is used to treat multiple sclerosis.

      IL-2 Blocker
      Daclizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to the IL-2 receptor and is used to prevent acute rejection following renal transplantation.

      Targets of Disease-Modifying Agents

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with an abdominal mass that is primarily located around the caecum and also involves the terminal ileum. There are no signs of weight loss or lymphadenopathy. The patient has a history of multiple oral ulcers and severe perianal disease, including fissures, fistulae, and previous abscesses that have required draining.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a condition that affects different parts of the digestive tract. The location of the disease can be classified as ileal, colonic, ileo-colonic, or upper gastrointestinal tract. In some cases, the disease can cause a solid, thickened mass around the caecum, which also involves the terminal ileum. This is known as ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

      While weight loss is a common symptom of Crohn’s disease, it is not always present. It is important to note that the range of areas affected by the disease makes it unlikely for it to be classified as anything other than ileo-colonic Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 24-year-old waitress who works at a restaurant in Spain has returned home...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old waitress who works at a restaurant in Spain has returned home to see her doctor because she is feeling unwell. She has been experiencing increasing nausea and fatigue and noticed that her urine had darkened a few days ago, and now her stools are pale. Additionally, she has been suffering from severe itching. During the examination, she was found to be jaundiced with scratch marks on her skin and a temperature of 38.1°C.

      The following investigations were conducted:

      - Haemoglobin: 120 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 11.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4–11 × 109/l)
      - Platelets: 170 × 109/l (normal range: 150–400 × 109/l)
      - Prothrombin Test (PT): 17.1 s (normal range: 10.6–14.9 s)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 48 mm/hr (normal range: 0–10mm in the 1st hour)
      - Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 795 IU/l (normal range: 5–30 IU/l)
      - Bilirubin: 100 μmol/l (normal range: 2–17 µmol/l)
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 90 IU/l (normal range: 30–130 IU/l)
      - Anti hepatitis A IgM markedly elevated

      What is the most accurate prognosis for this 24-year-old waitress?

      Your Answer: She has a chance of progression to cirrhosis of approximately 10%

      Correct Answer: She has a chance of progression to cirrhosis of approximately 0%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis A Infection

      Hepatitis A infection is a common viral infection that spreads through the faeco-oral route, particularly in areas like North Africa. It is usually acquired through exposure to contaminated food or water. The infection typically presents with a prodrome of flu-like symptoms, followed by acute hepatitis with right upper quadrant tenderness, jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine.

      Fortunately, hepatitis A is a self-limiting condition, and most people recover within 2-6 months without any significant complications. Death from hepatitis A is rare, occurring in only 0.2% of cases. However, relapsing hepatitis A can occur in up to 20% of cases, with each relapse being milder than the previous one.

      Treatment for hepatitis A is mainly supportive, and there is no significant risk of progression to cirrhosis. Unlike hepatitis B and C, which are transmitted through blood products and sexual intercourse, hepatitis A and E are transmitted through the faeco-oral route. Therefore, practicing good hygiene and sanitation is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites presented with clinical deterioration. Diagnostic aspiration of the ascites fluid shows a raised neutrophil count in the ascites fluid.
      Which of the following statements best fits this scenario?

      Your Answer: Ascitic tap can prevent it from happening again

      Correct Answer: There is a high mortality and high recurrence rate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis: Mortality, Prevention, and Treatment

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication of ascites, occurring in 8% of cirrhosis cases with ascites. This condition has a high mortality rate of 25% and recurs in 70% of patients within a year. While there is some evidence that secondary prevention with oral quinolones may decrease mortality in certain patient groups, it is not an indication for liver transplantation. The most common infecting organisms are enteric, such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Streptococcus, and Enterococcus. While an ascitic tap can decrease discomfort, it cannot prevent recurrence. Understanding the mortality, prevention, and treatment options for SBP is crucial for managing this serious complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old man with end-stage liver disease is admitted with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with end-stage liver disease is admitted with a painful, distended abdomen. Examination findings: generalised abdominal tenderness and ascites. Temperature 37.5 °C.
      Which intervention should be undertaken first?

      Your Answer: Commence benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Diagnostic ascitic tap

      Explanation:

      Management of Ascites: Importance of Prompt Investigation and Treatment of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Ascites is a common complication in patients with end-stage liver disease and poor synthetic function. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication that can occur in these patients, leading to a high mortality rate. Prompt investigation and treatment are crucial in managing ascites and preventing SBP.

      Diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly in any patient presenting with ascites, regardless of the time of day. A broad-spectrum antibiotic should be given immediately if there is a raised cell count consistent with SBP. Once SBP has been excluded or treated, therapeutic paracentesis may be considered for patients with large, tense, or resistant ascites.

      During a diagnostic tap, various investigations should be performed, including cell count, microscopy, culture and sensitivity, cytology, protein and albumin, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose, and amylase. Additional investigations may be indicated based on the patient’s condition.

      The most common cause of SBP is Escherichia coli, and oral ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav are recommended as first-line agents. Intravenous cephalosporins may be used if the patient is unwell. However, a diagnosis of SBP should be confirmed before starting treatment.

      First-line medical management of ascites is spironolactone, which achieves better clinical results than furosemide. Furosemide may be used in conjunction with spironolactone in resistant ascites or where potassium rises due to spironolactone.

      In summary, prompt investigation and treatment of ascites are crucial in managing SBP and preventing complications. A diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly, and appropriate investigations and treatment should be initiated based on the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor, complaining of difficulty swallowing...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor, complaining of difficulty swallowing solid foods and liquids for the last two months. He states that food often ‘gets stuck’ in his oesophagus and is associated with retrosternal chest pain. There is no pain on swallowing. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. He denies recent weight loss or night sweats.
      Physical examination is normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes. His blood tests are also normal. A diagnosis of diffuse oesophageal spasm is being considered.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Troponin levels

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of intermittent dysphagia without odynophagia, abnormal blood tests, or constitutional symptoms suggest a diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm. This condition is characterized by increased simultaneous and intermittent contractions of the distal esophagus, often accompanied by retrosternal chest pain, heartburn, and globus sensation. Oesophageal manometry is the first-line investigation for diffuse esophageal spasm, revealing increased simultaneous contractions of the esophageal body with normal lower esophageal sphincter tone. Barium radiography may show a corkscrew esophagus, but it has low sensitivity for diagnosing this condition. Troponin levels would only be indicated if the patient had cardiac-related chest pain, which is unlikely given their age and normal ECG. A chest X-ray would be useful if a cardiac or respiratory condition were suspected, while a lateral cervical spine radiograph is only necessary if cervical osteophytes are thought to be the cause of difficult swallowing, which is unlikely in this young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a teetotaler and having no risk factors for liver disease. However, his grandfather passed away from liver cancer. Upon investigation, his serum albumin is 38 g/L (37-49), serum total bilirubin is 41 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 105 U/L (5-35), serum alkaline phosphatase is 115 U/L (45-105), serum ferritin is 1360 μg/L (15-300), and serum iron saturation is 84%. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hereditary Haemochromatosis from Other Liver Diseases

      Raised serum ferritin levels and increased transferrin saturation, with or without abnormal liver function tests, are indicative of hereditary haemochromatosis. On the other hand, abnormal serum ferritin and iron saturation are not observed in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Diagnosis of the latter involves measuring serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and pi-typing for mutant alleles.

      In primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), liver function abnormalities follow a cholestatic pattern, and it typically affects middle-aged females. However, serum ferritin and iron studies are normal in PBC. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by a disproportionate elevation (4-10 times normal) in serum alkaline phosphatase, and patients with PSC usually have a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Finally, Wilson’s disease is a condition that primarily affects young people, usually in their second or third decade of life. It is rare for Wilson’s disease to manifest after the age of 40. By the unique characteristics of each liver disease, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner due to experiencing epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner due to experiencing epigastric pain. The pain occurs approximately 3 hours after eating a meal. Despite using both histamine 2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), he has only experienced moderate relief and tests negative on a urease breath test. An endoscopy is performed, revealing multiple duodenal ulcers. The patient's gastrin level is tested and found to be above normal. A computed tomography (CT) scan is ordered, and the patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which hormone typically inhibits gastrin secretion?

      Your Answer: Glycogen synthase

      Correct Answer: Somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Hormones and Enzymes: Their Effects on Gastrin Secretion

      Gastrin secretion is regulated by various hormones and enzymes in the body. One such hormone is somatostatin, which inhibits the release of gastrin. In the treatment of gastrinomas, somatostatin analogues like octreotide can be used instead of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).

      Aldosterone, on the other hand, is a steroid hormone that is not related to gastrin and has no effect on its secretion. Similarly, glycogen synthase and hexokinase, which play regulatory roles in carbohydrate metabolism, do not affect gastrin secretion.

      Another steroid hormone, progesterone, also does not play a role in the regulation of gastrin secretion. Understanding the effects of hormones and enzymes on gastrin secretion can help in the development of targeted treatments for gastrointestinal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man presents with a history of intermittent constipation and diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with a history of intermittent constipation and diarrhoea and progressive weight loss over the past 3 months. During examination, he appears cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He does not exhibit jaundice and his liver function tests are normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Liver metastases

      Explanation:

      Liver Metastases: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Liver metastases are a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, with the most frequent primary sites being the bowel and breast. While palpable metastases may not affect liver function, obstruction to the biliary tract or involvement of over half of the liver can lead to impaired function and the presence of ascites. Autopsy studies have shown that 30-70% of cancer patients have liver metastases, with the frequency depending on the primary site. Most liver metastases are multiple and affect both lobes.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, cirrhosis can be ruled out as it is the end-stage of chronic liver disease and would typically present with elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Hepatoma is less common than metastases and lymphoma may present with evidence of involvement in other sites, such as lymphadenopathy. Myelofibrosis, which is associated with bone marrow fibrosis and abnormal stem cell appearance in the liver and spleen, may be asymptomatic in its early stages or present with leuko-erythroblastic anemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats. However, it is much less common than liver metastases.

      In summary, liver metastases should be considered as a potential cause of nodular hepatomegaly, particularly in patients with a history of cancer. A thorough differential diagnosis should be conducted to rule out other potential causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and bright red blood in his vomit. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption. On examination, he has guarding over the epigastric region and cool extremities. He also has a distended abdomen with ascites and spider naevi on his neck and cheek. The patient is unstable hemodynamically, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the most crucial medication to begin given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Oesophageal Variceal Bleeds

      Oesophageal variceal bleeds are a serious medical emergency that require prompt treatment. The most important medication to administer in this situation is terlipressin, which reduces bleeding by constricting the mesenteric arterial circulation and decreasing portal venous inflow. Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, should not be used as it may worsen bleeding. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can be used prophylactically to prevent variceal bleeding but is not the most important medication to start in an acute setting. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not recommended before endoscopy in the latest guidelines but is often used in hospital protocols. Tranexamic acid can aid in the treatment of acute bleeding but is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds. Following terlipressin administration, band ligation should be performed, and if bleeding persists, TIPS should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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