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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old G1P0 woman, who missed all previous antenatal appointments, presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old G1P0 woman, who missed all previous antenatal appointments, presents to the obstetrics clinic at 34 weeks' gestation for her first antenatal visit. The mother has no significant medical history and is in good health. She is up to date with all her immunisations.

      During the examination, the symphyseal-fundal height measures 30cm. An ultrasound scan is conducted, which reveals that the fetus has an abdominal circumference below the 3rd percentile for age, femur length below the 3rd percentile, and head circumference along the 90th percentile. The estimated weight of the baby is below the 10th percentile.

      What is the most probable cause of the abnormality observed in this fetus?

      Your Answer: Maternal age

      Correct Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking while pregnant has been linked to the birth of a Small for Gestational Age baby. This is indicated by the baby’s birth weight being below the 10th percentile and fetal measurements suggesting asymmetrical intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), with the head circumference being significantly higher than the abdominal circumference and femur length. Maternal smoking is a possible cause of the baby’s small size, as it has been associated with reduced birth weight and asymmetrical IUGR. Multiple gestation is a known risk factor for fetal growth restriction, but singleton gestation is not. Maternal rubella infection and advanced maternal age may also cause small for gestational age babies, but these are less likely causes in this case as the mother’s immunisations are up to date and she is only 23 years old.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old primip arrives at the maternity care unit with severe headache, visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primip arrives at the maternity care unit with severe headache, visual disturbance, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg, and there is 3+ protein in her urine. What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and indications described indicate that the patient is suffering from severe pre-eclampsia. It should be noted that not all antihypertensive drugs are safe for use during pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Therefore, hydrocortisone is the only drug mentioned that is not an antihypertensive. Among the antihypertensive drugs mentioned, labetalol is the most suitable option as it is recommended as a first-line drug for managing severe hypertension in pregnant patients according to NICE guidelines.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.

      After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 3 - A woman in her early pregnancy has her kidney function assessed during a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early pregnancy has her kidney function assessed during a regular check-up. It is observed that her plasma urea and creatinine levels have decreased compared to her pre-pregnancy levels. What is the reason for this change?

      Your Answer: Increased renal filtration efficiency

      Correct Answer: Increased renal perfusion

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, plasma urea and creatinine levels decrease due to increased renal perfusion, which allows for more efficient clearing of these substances from the circulation. Additionally, the increased plasma volume dilutes these substances. This is a result of physiological changes in pregnancy, such as increased uterine size, cervical ectropion, and increased vaginal discharge. Cardiovascular and haemodynamic changes also occur, including increased plasma volume and decreased levels of albumin, urea, and creatinine. Progesterone-related effects, such as muscle relaxation, can lead to decreased blood pressure, constipation, and bladder relaxation. It is important to note that the foetus does not have functioning kidneys, and the mother filters the blood for it.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for a routine antenatal check-up at 28 weeks gestation. She complains of feeling breathless, and her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 92bpm, blood pressure of 118/78 mmHg, temperature of 36.7ºC, respiratory rate of 18/min, and oxygen saturation of 98%. To rule out any respiratory issues, an arterial blood gas is performed, which indicates respiratory alkalosis. What physiological change during pregnancy could have caused this?

      Your Answer: Decrease in tidal volume and increase in pulmonary ventilation

      Correct Answer: Increase in tidal volume and increase in pulmonary ventilation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is an increase in tidal volume and pulmonary ventilation. Pregnancy leads to an increase in tidal volume without any change in respiratory rate, resulting in an overall increase in pulmonary ventilation. This can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the loss of carbon dioxide.

      Incorrect options include a decrease in tidal volume and an increase in pulmonary ventilation, which is not observed during pregnancy. Similarly, an increase in tidal volume and a decrease in pulmonary ventilation, or no change in either tidal volume or pulmonary ventilation, are also not accurate descriptions of respiratory changes during pregnancy.

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with significant pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency department with significant pain in her right iliac region and slight vaginal bleeding. She reports having missed her period for the past seven weeks, despite previously having regular 28-day cycles. Upon examination, tenderness is noted in her lower abdomen near the site of pain. A quantitative urine pregnancy test is ordered to detect which hormone?

      Your Answer: β- human chorionic gonadotrophin

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy can be detected through urine tests that identify the beta subunit of the human chorionic gonadotrophin. This hormone increases during the first trimester of pregnancy to support progesterone production by the corpus luteum. Although the alpha subunit of this hormone is identical to that of other hormones, such as luteinising hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, and thyroid stimulating hormone, it is the beta subunit that is recognized and used as a marker for pregnancy. The pituitary gland secretes luteinising hormone and follicle stimulating hormone in all humans, but these hormones are not indicative of pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube. In fact, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the tubal region, with the majority in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.

      During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of cells that forms the placenta, invades the tubal wall. This invasion can cause bleeding, which may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy includes absorption and tubal abortion, with the latter being the most common. In tubal abortion, the embryo is expelled from the tube, resulting in bleeding and pain. In tubal absorption, the tube may not rupture, and the blood and embryo may be shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications.

      In summary, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 6 - A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that...

    Correct

    • A concerned parent brings their 14-year-old daughter to the general practice, worried that she has not yet started her periods.

      The 14-year-old has breast bud development, but no signs of menstruation. A pregnancy test comes back negative.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea occurs when a girl has not started menstruating by the age of 15, despite having normal secondary sexual characteristics like breast development. In girls with no secondary sexual characteristics, primary amenorrhoea is defined as the absence of menstruation by the age of 13. Possible causes of primary amenorrhoea include hypothyroidism and imperforate hymen, but not endometriosis, which typically causes heavy and/or painful periods. While delayed menarche can occur spontaneously before the age of 18, this girl’s symptoms are not within the normal range of variation. Malnutrition or extreme exercise are more likely to cause primary amenorrhoea than obesity-induced amenorrhoea, which typically results in secondary amenorrhoea where periods stop for 6 months or more after menarche has occurred.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pelvic pain on the left side and absence of menstruation. During the physical examination, the doctor discovers tenderness in the pelvic area. A pregnancy test confirms a positive result, and a transvaginal ultrasound is conducted, revealing a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a fetal heartbeat. As a result, a laparoscopic salpingectomy is carried out.

      In which anatomical structure is this condition most likely located?

      Your Answer: Round ligament

      Correct Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      The Broad ligament is where the Fallopian tubes are located. If a tubal ectopic pregnancy is detected with a fetal heartbeat, the recommended treatment is a laparoscopic salpingectomy. This surgical procedure involves removing the affected Fallopian tube by accessing it within the Broad ligament. However, if there are other risk factors for infertility, a laparoscopic salpingotomy may be performed instead.

      On the other hand, the Cardinal ligament contains the uterine vessels and is not involved in ectopic pregnancy. It may be operated on in cases of uterine fibroids through a laparoscopic myomectomy.

      The Ovarian ligament attaches the ovaries to the uterus but does not contain any structures. Meanwhile, the Round ligament attaches the uterine fundus to the labia majora but also does not contain any structures.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 8 - A 33-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman is 28 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes following an oral glucose tolerance test. What are the possible complications associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly of the heart

      Correct Answer: Macrosomia, shoulder dystocia, polyhydramnios

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the development of carbohydrate intolerance is referred to as gestational diabetes mellitus. To diagnose this condition, an OGTT is typically performed at 28 weeks, although it may be done earlier for those at higher risk (such as those of Asian or Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, with a BMI over 30, a history of stillbirth, or family members with diabetes). Diabetes during pregnancy can increase the likelihood of various complications, including macrosomia, polyhydramnios, shoulder dystocia, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, and neonatal hypoglycemia. Ebstein’s anomaly of the heart can occur as a result of lithium use during pregnancy, while prolonged rupture of membranes during pregnancy can lead to neonatal infection.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - You are working in the emergency department. A 27-year-old woman comes in with...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the emergency department. A 27-year-old woman comes in with vomiting and abdominal pain. On examination, she is tender on palpation at all lower quadrants of the abdomen. Her temperature is 38ºC. On ultrasound, there is fluid in the rectouterine pouch.

      What anatomical structure would a needle be passed via to extract this fluid?

      Your Answer: Round ligament

      Correct Answer: Posterior fornix of the vagina

      Explanation:

      To obtain fluid from the rectouterine pouch, a needle is inserted through the posterior fornix of the vagina.

      The anterior fornix of the vagina is situated nearer to the bladder than the rectouterine pouch in terms of anatomical position.

      Similarly, the bladder is closer to the anterior fornix than the rectouterine pouch.

      The round ligament is positioned above the rectouterine pouch.

      The urethra connects to the bladder and is not in proximity to the rectouterine pouch.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

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      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old female presents to you with a complaint of urinary incontinence whenever...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to you with a complaint of urinary incontinence whenever she coughs or sneezes. She has a history of obesity and has given birth to five children, four of which were vaginal deliveries and one by caesarean section. A negative urinary dipstick is noted, but a vaginal examination reveals some muscle weakness without prolapse. The most probable diagnosis is stress incontinence. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise her to slowly decrease her fluid intake

      Correct Answer: Pelvic muscle floor training

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for urinary incontinence is bladder retraining for urge incontinence and pelvic floor muscle training for stress incontinence. Surgery is a later option. Toileting aids and decreasing fluid intake should not be advised. Patients should drink 6-8 glasses of water per day.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 11 - A young lady comes with complaints of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Upon undergoing an...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady comes with complaints of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. Upon undergoing an ultrasound scan, indications of endometrial infiltration into the myometrium are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium, leading to symptoms such as heavy menstrual bleeding and painful periods. This can occur due to the separation of the endometrium from the myometrium, causing inflammation and discomfort. Ultrasound scans can detect an irregular myometrial border and a swollen uterus due to the accumulation of blood in the endometrial tissue. It is important to note that although adenomyosis and endometriosis share similar symptoms, they are distinct conditions that can coexist. Endometrial cancer is not a possible diagnosis as it does not involve the invasion of endometrial tissue into the myometrium.

      Adenomyosis is a condition where the endometrial tissue is found within the myometrium. It is more commonly seen in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia, and an enlarged, boggy uterus.

      To diagnose adenomyosis, an MRI is the preferred investigation method. Treatment options include symptomatic management, tranexamic acid to manage menorrhagia, GnRH agonists, uterine artery embolisation, and hysterectomy, which is considered the definitive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with milky discharge from her breasts. Her periods have also become very irregular and she has not menstruated in the past 4 months. On further questioning, she reports not being sexually active since having a miscarriage 9 months ago which required surgical management. On examination, there are no palpable masses in her breasts bilaterally, she demonstrates a small amount of milky white discharge from her left nipple which is collected for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity. She has no focal neurological deficits, cardiac, and respiratory examination is unremarkable, and her abdominal examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The likely cause of this patient’s amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea is a prolactinoma, which inhibits the secretion of GnRH and leads to low levels of oestrogen. Further tests, including a urinary pregnancy test and blood tests for various hormones, should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis. Asherman’s syndrome, intraductal papilloma, and pregnancy are less likely causes, as they do not present with the same symptoms or do not fit the patient’s reported history.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath 3 hours after giving birth. The delivery was uncomplicated. On examination, her pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and respirations are 24/min. Diffuse crackles are heard in all lung fields and pulse oximetry shows 85%. A chest x-ray reveals a peripheral wedge-shaped opacity. Despite appropriate interventions, she passes away. Autopsy findings reveal fetal squamous cells in the pulmonary blood vessels.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The presence of fetal squamous cells in the maternal blood vessels of a woman who died during or after labor suggests that she had amniotic fluid embolism instead of pulmonary thromboembolism.

      The patient displayed symptoms of pulmonary embolism shortly after giving birth, including acute shortness of breath, tachycardia, and tachypnea, as well as a wedge-shaped infarction on her chest x-ray. The resulting hypoventilation caused hypoxia. Given that pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state, there is an increased risk of thrombus formation and subsequent embolization, making pulmonary thromboembolism the primary differential diagnosis.

      However, the histological findings during autopsy confirmed that the woman had amniotic fluid embolism, as fetal squamous cells were found in her maternal blood vessels. The risk of fetal and maternal blood mixing is highest during the third trimester and delivery, and fetal cells can act as thrombogenic factors. Although rare, this condition has a high mortality rate, and even those who survive often experience severe deficits, including neurological damage.

      Fat embolism typically occurs after long bone fractures or orthopedic surgeries, while air embolism is very rare but can cause immediate death. Cholesterol embolization is a common scenario after cannulation, such as angiography, where the catheter mechanically displaces the cholesterol thrombus, leading to emboli.

      Amniotic Fluid Embolism: A Rare but Life-Threatening Complication of Pregnancy

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but potentially fatal complication of pregnancy that occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a severe reaction. Although many risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unknown. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases occur during labor, but they can also occur during cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of amniotic fluid embolism include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. However, there are no definitive diagnostic tests for this condition, and diagnosis is usually made by excluding other possible causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires immediate critical care by a multidisciplinary team, as the condition can be life-threatening. Treatment is primarily supportive, and the focus is on stabilizing the patient’s vital signs and providing respiratory and cardiovascular support as needed. Despite advances in medical care, the mortality rate associated with amniotic fluid embolism remains high, underscoring the need for continued research into the underlying causes and potential treatments for this rare but serious complication of pregnancy.

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  • Question 14 - A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria,...

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    • A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria, and foul-smelling green vaginal discharge. Additionally, she experiences pain in the upper right quadrant. What could be the probable reason for this upper right quadrant pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Upper right quadrant pain can be caused by various conditions, but in this case, the woman is suffering from pelvic inflammatory disease, which is often associated with Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (adhesions of liver to peritoneum).

      It is important to note that cholecystitis, pulmonary embolisms, pleurisy, and viral hepatitis do not typically present with symptoms such as dyspareunia, dysuria, or vaginal discharge.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic...

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    • A 27-year-old sexually active female comes to the emergency department complaining of suprapubic pain, deep dyspareunia, and heavy and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. The Gynaecology team is consulted and performs a work-up for suspected pelvic inflammatory disease, including urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity, blood cultures, and a high vaginal swab. What organism is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      If Chlamydia trachomatis is not treated, PID may develop in a significant number of patients. This can lead to serious consequences such as infertility, chronic pain, and ectopic pregnancy caused by scarring.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 16 - A 25 year old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in...

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    • A 25 year old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast. She mentions that she has noticed it for about 3 months and is worried because it hasn't disappeared. During the physical examination, a 1.5cm lump is found in the left breast. It is smooth, movable, and not attached to the skin. There are no changes in the nipple or skin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      The most frequent breast lumps in women aged 15-25 are fibroadenomas. These lumps are usually firm, mobile, and less than 3 cm in size. They are not a cause for concern and typically disappear within a few years.

      Fat necrosis is a condition that occurs after breast trauma, such as a sports injury or core needle biopsy. The affected area may be tender and show bruising. However, it usually resolves on its own and is unlikely to persist for an extended period.

      Overview of Benign Breast Lesions

      Benign breast lesions are non-cancerous growths that can occur in the breast tissue. There are several types of benign breast lesions, each with their own unique features and treatment options.

      Fibroadenomas are one of the most common types of benign breast lesions, accounting for 12% of all breast masses. They develop from a whole lobule and are typically mobile, firm breast lumps. While they do not increase the risk of malignancy, surgical excision is usually recommended if the lesion is larger than 3 cm. Phyllodes tumors, a rare type of fibroadenoma, should be widely excised or removed with a mastectomy if the lesion is large.

      Breast cysts are another common type of benign breast lesion, with 7% of all Western females presenting with one. They usually present as a smooth, discrete lump and may be aspirated. However, if the cyst is blood-stained or persistently refills, it should be biopsied or excised.

      Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions can cause mammographic changes that mimic carcinoma. However, they are considered a disorder of involution and do not increase the risk of malignancy. Biopsy is recommended, but excision is not mandatory.

      Epithelial hyperplasia is a disorder that consists of increased cellularity of the terminal lobular unit, and atypical features may be present. Those with atypical features and a family history of breast cancer have a greatly increased risk of malignancy and may require surgical resection.

      Fat necrosis can occur in up to 40% of cases and usually has a traumatic cause. Physical features may mimic carcinoma, but imaging and core biopsy can help diagnose the lesion.

      Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy if they are large. However, they do not increase the risk of malignancy.

      Overall, benign breast lesions can have varying presentations and treatment options. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

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  • Question 17 - What is an accurate depiction of the proliferative phase during the menstrual cycle?...

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    • What is an accurate depiction of the proliferative phase during the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen produced by the follicle results in the thickening of the endometrium and the formation of spiral arteries and glands

      Explanation:

      The proliferative phase is characterized by the thickening of the endometrium due to the presence of oestrogen secreted by the mature follicle.

      As oestrogen levels rise during this phase, the endometrium undergoes proliferation and thickening. Tubular glands extend and spiral arteries form, leading to increased vascularity. Additionally, oestrogen stimulates progesterone receptors on endometrial cells.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium undergoes proliferation. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol. When the egg has matured, it secretes enough oestradiol to trigger the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which leads to ovulation.

      During the luteal phase, the corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which causes the endometrium to change to a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall. Oestradiol levels also rise again during the luteal phase. Cervical mucus thickens and forms a plug across the external os following menstruation. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, low viscosity, and stretchy. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky. Basal body temperature falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the phases of the menstrual cycle is important for women’s health and fertility.

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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and abdominal...

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    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of headaches and abdominal pain for the past few weeks. She reports experiencing blurry vision over the last week. During the examination, the physician observes a slight yellow tint to the patient's sclera and an elevated blood pressure of 170/106 mmHg. The urine dip reveals proteinuria. Based on these symptoms, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of pre-eclampsia, such as headache, abdominal pain, and blurred vision. However, the presence of jaundice suggests that the patient is actually suffering from HELLP syndrome, which is a complication during pregnancy that involves haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. This condition often occurs in conjunction with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a pregnancy-related disorder that is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, typically the kidneys, which is evidenced by proteinuria. This condition typically develops after the 20th week of pregnancy in women who previously had normal blood pressure.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

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  • Question 19 - Emma, a 28-year-old female, arrives at the Emergency Department on Sunday evening complaining...

    Incorrect

    • Emma, a 28-year-old female, arrives at the Emergency Department on Sunday evening complaining of a sudden, intense pain in her lower abdomen that extends to her right shoulder tip.

      After conducting a pregnancy test, it is revealed that Emma is pregnant.

      The consultant's primary concern is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

      To determine if Emma has a hemoperitoneum, the medical team decides to perform a culdocentesis and extract fluid from the rectouterine pouch.

      Through which route will a needle be inserted to aspirate fluid from the rectouterine pouch during the culdocentesis procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior fornix of the vagina

      Explanation:

      To obtain fluid from the rectouterine pouch, a needle is inserted through the posterior fornix of the vagina.

      The vagina has four fornices, including the anterior, posterior, and two lateral fornices. The anterior fornix of the vagina is closely associated with the vesicouterine pouch.

      Culdocentesis is a procedure that involves using a needle to extract fluid from the rectouterine pouch (also known as the pouch of Douglas) through the posterior fornix of the vagina.

      Culdocentesis is now mostly replaced by ultrasound examination and minimally invasive surgery, such as in cases of ectopic pregnancy.

      Anatomy of the Uterus

      The uterus is a female reproductive organ that is located within the pelvis and is covered by the peritoneum. It is supplied with blood by the uterine artery, which runs alongside the uterus and anastomoses with the ovarian artery. The uterus is supported by various ligaments, including the central perineal tendon, lateral cervical, round, and uterosacral ligaments. The ureter is located close to the uterus, and injuries to the ureter can occur when there is pathology in the area.

      The uterus is typically anteverted and anteflexed in most women. Its topography can be visualized through imaging techniques such as ultrasound or MRI. Understanding the anatomy of the uterus is important for diagnosing and treating various gynecological conditions.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her first child complains of discomfort in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her first child complains of discomfort in her right breast. Upon examination, there is erythema and a fluctuant area. Which organism is most likely to be found upon aspiration and culture of the fluid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of infection is Staphylococcus aureus, which typically enters through damage to the nipple areolar complex caused by the infant’s mouth.

      Breast Abscess: Causes and Management

      Breast abscess is a condition that commonly affects lactating women, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast.

      To manage breast abscess, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, with the latter typically done using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help treat the infection.

      Breast abscess can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for lactating women. However, with prompt and appropriate management, the condition can be effectively treated, allowing women to continue breastfeeding their babies without any complications.

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  • Question 21 - A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes,...

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    • A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes, and painful sexual intercourse due to vaginal dryness. The doctor suspects that she may be going through menopause and orders a set of blood tests to check her hormonal levels.

      What hormonal changes are probable in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production

      Explanation:

      The cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production in the ovaries, which can be caused naturally or by medical intervention, leads to menopause. This decrease in hormone production often results in elevated levels of FSH and LH.

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It typically occurs when a woman reaches the age of 51 in the UK. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 22 - A female patient comes in with a history of struggling to conceive for...

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    • A female patient comes in with a history of struggling to conceive for two and a half years. Upon further examination with an ultrasound, it is discovered that fibroids are present and may be hindering embryo implantation. Where is the most probable location of these fibroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterus- submucosal

      Explanation:

      When it comes to fibroids and difficulty conceiving, submucosal fibroids are the most likely culprit. These fibroids are located in the uterine cavity and can interfere with the implantation of an embryo. Intramural and subserosal fibroids are less likely to cause fertility issues, but they can cause symptoms such as increased urinary frequency and constipation due to their size and location. It’s important to note that fibroids are typically found within the uterus and not outside of it.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are believed to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility, but this is rare.

      Diagnosis is usually done through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is necessary. For menorrhagia, treatment options include the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, oral progestogen, and injectable progestogen. Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids includes GnRH agonists and ulipristal acetate, while surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, and complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia have been mentioned previously. Another complication is red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour and commonly occurs during pregnancy. Understanding uterine fibroids is important for women’s health, and seeking medical attention is necessary if symptoms arise.

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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her primary care clinic with concerns about cervical...

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    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her primary care clinic with concerns about cervical cancer after reading an article about the disease. She is seeking information about the screening process for detecting cervical cancer and how it is performed.

      What guidance should be provided to the patient regarding screening for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All women are initially screened for high-risk HPV between the ages of 25-64

      Explanation:

      The first step in screening for cervical cancer in women aged 25-64 is to test their cervical smear samples for high-risk HPV. If the test is positive, the same sample is then analyzed for abnormal cytology. The recommended frequency of smear tests is every 3 years for women aged 25-49 and every 5 years for women aged 50-64 in the UK screening programme. Therefore, the statements All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 18-64, All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 25-64, and All women are initially screened for abnormal cytology between the ages of 30-64 are incorrect as they either refer to the wrong screening test or age range.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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  • Question 24 - As the medical resident on the delivery ward, you are conducting routine baby...

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    • As the medical resident on the delivery ward, you are conducting routine baby checks on a 10-day old boy who was delivered via emergency Caesarian section at term due to prolonged labour. During the examination, you notice that the baby appears slightly yellow, but is otherwise healthy with no signs of cardiorespiratory distress. The mother expresses concern that there may be something serious going on. What could be a potential cause of prolonged neonatal jaundice in this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding has been linked to prolonged neonatal jaundice, which is characterized by high levels of bilirubin in an otherwise healthy breastfed newborn after the first week of life. This type of jaundice lasts longer than normal and has no other identifiable cause. It is important to consider the age at which jaundice appears in order to determine potential underlying causes, such as haemolytic disease, infections, G6PD deficiency, sepsis, polycythaemia, extrahepatic biliary atresia, congenital hypothyroidism, or breastfeeding.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

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  • Question 25 - At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP...

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    • At a routine appointment, a teenage girl is being educated by her GP about the ovarian cycle. The GP informs her that the follicle generates hormones that prime the uterus for embryo implantation. What specific component of the follicle is responsible for this function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulosa cells

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle

      The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.

      Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.

      The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.

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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor at 8 weeks of pregnancy complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor at 8 weeks of pregnancy complaining of constant nausea and vomiting. What signs should the doctor look for to rule out any underlying conditions other than hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition that causes severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss. Abdominal pain is not a common symptom and may indicate another gastrointestinal disorder.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old athlete visits her GP with complaints of amenorrhea. She hasn't had...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old athlete visits her GP with complaints of amenorrhea. She hasn't had her period for the past 6 months, and her pregnancy test came back negative. She had regular periods before and started menstruating at the age of 12. The patient has been undergoing rigorous training for marathons for the last 8 months. She doesn't have any fever or diarrhea, and there are no signs of hirsutism on examination.

      The blood test results show:

      - TSH: 2 mU/L (normal range: 0.4 – 4)
      - Free T4: 15 pmol/L (normal range: 9 – 25)
      - Free T3: 5.2 nmol/L (normal range: 3.5 – 7.8)
      - LH: <1 IU/L (normal range: 1-12)
      - FSH: <1 IU/L (normal range: 1-9)

      What is the most likely cause of her amenorrhea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing secondary amenorrhoea, which is indicative of hypothalamic amenorrhoea due to low-level gonadotrophins. This could be caused by the patient’s intensive training for marathons, as well as other risk factors such as stress and anorexia nervosa. Hyperthyroidism is unlikely as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms or abnormal thyroid function test results. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) can be ruled out as the patient does not have hirsutism, a high BMI, or elevated LH and FSH levels. Pregnancy is also not a possibility as the patient’s test was negative and she does not exhibit any signs of pregnancy.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners complains of chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of multiple sexual partners complains of chronic pelvic pain, dysuria, deep dyspareunia, and green vaginal discharge with a foul odor. The physician suspects pelvic inflammatory disease as she had a previous Chlamydia infection but is currently negative. Which sexually transmitted infection is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly caused by chlamydia and gonorrhoeae, with gonorrhoeae being the likely cause in this patient since they do not have chlamydia. While HIV does not directly cause pelvic inflammatory disease, it can increase the risk of contracting sexually transmitted infections. Syphilis follows its own distinct clinical course and does not cause pelvic inflammatory disease, while herpes typically presents with painful genital blisters but does not cause pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

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  • Question 29 - A 48-year-old woman visits her general practice for her regular cervical screening. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman visits her general practice for her regular cervical screening. During the screening, a sample of cells is collected from the endocervix and sent to the laboratory for analysis. The initial screening reveals the detection of high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV).

      What is the subsequent step in the screening process for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytological examination of the current smear

      Explanation:

      When a cervical smear sample tests positive for high-risk HPV (hrHPV), it undergoes cytological examination to check for abnormal cellular changes that may indicate early cervical cancer. In the UK, cervical screening is offered to women between the ages of 25 and 65, with those aged 25-50 offered a smear every 3 years and those aged 50-65 offered a smear every 5 years. The aim of the screening programme is to detect cervical changes early on. HPV, a sexually transmitted virus, is present in almost all sexually active individuals, and HPV 16 or 18 is present in almost all cases of cervical cancer. If hrHPV is not detected, no further testing is required, and the patient can return to routine screening. Repeating the smear is not necessary following the presence of hrHPV, but a repeat smear may be required if the laboratory report an inadequate sample. Prior to colposcopy investigation, the sample must be positive for hrHPV and dyskaryosis.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.

      If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.

      If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.

      For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.

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  • Question 30 - A 58-year-old woman is admitted under the gynaecology team with vaginal bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is admitted under the gynaecology team with vaginal bleeding. She has a history of breast cancer and is taking letrozole 2.5 mg.

      What is the mechanism of action of letrozole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

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