-
Question 1
Correct
-
A middle-aged patient experiences a stroke that leads to impairment in Broca's area. What will be the consequences of the damage to Broca's area?
Your Answer: Expressive aphasia
Explanation:Broca’s area is situated in the frontal lobe of the dominant cerebral hemisphere. Specifically, it can be located in the posterior section of the inferior frontal gyrus, and it comprises of the pars opercularis and the pars triangularis.
Broca’s area is responsible for regulating the motor functions involved in speech production. It facilitates the creation of words through its connections with neighboring motor areas, which stimulate the muscles of the larynx, mouth, tongue, and soft palate.
If there is damage to Broca’s area, it will lead to speech paralysis and expressive aphasia, commonly referred to as Broca’s aphasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of confusion. An MRI scan is performed, which reveals a temporal lobe infarct.
Which SINGLE clinical feature would you NOT anticipate to observe during the examination of this patient?Your Answer: Receptive dysphasia
Correct Answer: Expressive dysphasia
Explanation:The temporal lobes play a crucial role in various functions such as processing visual and auditory information, storing memories, and helping us categorize objects. However, if this area of the brain is affected by a stroke, a space-occupying lesion, or trauma, it can lead to several issues. These include problems with understanding and producing language (known as receptive dysphasia), difficulty recognizing faces (prosopagnosia), an inability to categorize objects, difficulty understanding auditory information (auditory agnosia), and impaired perception of music.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A child arrives at the Emergency Department with a petechial rash, headache, neck stiffness, and sensitivity to light. You suspect a diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.
What is the most suitable initial approach to management?Your Answer: Perform an LP and await results of Gram-staining
Correct Answer: Give ceftriaxone 2 g IV
Explanation:Due to the potentially life-threatening nature of the disease, it is crucial to initiate treatment without waiting for laboratory confirmation. Immediate administration of antibiotics is necessary.
In a hospital setting, the preferred agents for treatment are IV ceftriaxone (2 g for adults; 80 mg/kg for children) or IV cefotaxime (2 g for adults; 80 mg/kg for children). In the prehospital setting, IM benzylpenicillin can be given as an alternative. If there is a history of anaphylaxis to cephalosporins, chloramphenicol is a suitable alternative.
It is important to prioritize prompt treatment due to the severity of the disease. The recommended antibiotics should be administered as soon as possible to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old female patient is known to have Parkinson’s disease. She complains of recent excessive sleepiness, increased anxiety, and uncontrolled jerky movements in her lower limbs.
Which SINGLE medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?Your Answer: Co-simalcite
Correct Answer: Co-beneldopa
Explanation:Co-beneldopa, such as Madopar®, is a medication that combines levodopa and benserazide, a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor. Levodopa is a precursor of dopamine and has been the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease since the 1970s. To minimize the side effects of levodopa, it is administered with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor (DDI) to reduce its availability in the peripheral system. However, patients may still experience adverse effects like nausea, dizziness, sleepiness, dyskinesia, mood changes, confusion, hallucinations, and delusions.
None of the other combination medications mentioned in this question cause the listed side effects.
Co-dydramol is a pain reliever that contains dihydrocodeine tartrate and paracetamol.
Co-flumactone is a medication that combines spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, and hydroflumethiazide, a type of thiazide diuretic used for managing congestive cardiac failure.
Co-tenidone is a combination of atenolol and chlorthalidone, primarily used for treating hypertension.
Co-simalcite, also known as Altacite plus, is an antacid that contains two main ingredients: hydrotalcite and activated dimeticone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
You are tasked with organizing a teaching session for the senior residents on head injuries & increased intracranial pressure. What is the intracranial volume of a typical adult?
Your Answer: 450ml
Correct Answer: 1400ml
Explanation:On average, the intracranial volume in adults is around 1400ml.
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with severe head injuries after jumping from a bridge in a suicide attempt. The following neurological deficits are observed:
- Contralateral lower limb motor deficit
- Bladder incontinence
- Ipsilateral motor and sensory deficits
- Dysarthria
Which brain herniation syndrome is most consistent with these findings?Your Answer: Central herniation
Correct Answer: Subfalcine herniation
Explanation:Subfalcine herniation occurs when a mass in one side of the brain causes the cingulate gyrus to be pushed under the falx cerebri. This condition often leads to specific neurological symptoms. These symptoms include a motor deficit in the lower limb on the opposite side of the body, bladder incontinence, motor and sensory deficits on the same side of the body as the herniation, and difficulty with speech (dysarthria).
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 78 year old female is brought from her nursing home to the emergency department with heightened confusion after a fall earlier today. A CT head scan is conducted and reveals a subdural hematoma. Which anatomical structure is most likely injured as a result?
Your Answer: Anterior choroidal artery
Correct Answer: Cortical bridging veins
Explanation:Subdural hematoma (SDH) occurs when the bridging veins in the cortex of the brain tear and cause bleeding in the space between the brain and the outermost protective layer. This is different from extradural hematoma (EDH), which is usually caused by a rupture in the middle meningeal artery.
Further Reading:
A subdural hematoma (SDH) is a condition where there is a collection of blood between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater of the brain. It occurs when the cortical bridging veins tear and bleed into the subdural space. Risk factors for SDH include head trauma, cerebral atrophy, advancing age, alcohol misuse, and certain medications or bleeding disorders. SDH can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on its age or speed of onset. Acute SDH is typically the result of head trauma and can progress to become chronic if left untreated.
The clinical presentation of SDH can vary depending on the nature of the condition. In acute SDH, patients may initially feel well after a head injury but develop more serious neurological symptoms later on. Chronic SDH may be detected after a CT scan is ordered to investigate confusion or cognitive decline. Symptoms of SDH can include increasing confusion, progressive decline in neurological function, seizures, headache, loss of consciousness, and even death.
Management of SDH involves an ABCDE approach, seizure management, confirming the diagnosis with CT or MRI, checking clotting and correcting coagulation abnormalities, managing raised intracranial pressure, and seeking neurosurgical opinion. Some SDHs may be managed conservatively if they are small, chronic, the patient is not a good surgical candidate, and there are no neurological symptoms. Neurosurgical intervention typically involves a burr hole craniotomy to decompress the hematoma. In severe cases with high intracranial pressure and significant brain swelling, a craniectomy may be performed, where a larger section of the skull is removed and replaced in a separate cranioplasty procedure.
CT imaging can help differentiate between subdural hematoma and other conditions like extradural hematoma. SDH appears as a crescent-shaped lesion on CT scans.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 35 minutes. He has received two doses of IV lorazepam. His bowel movement is normal, and he is not taking any medication.
According to the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next course of action in managing his condition?Your Answer: Give buccal midazolam
Correct Answer: Set up phenytoin infusion
Explanation:The current algorithm for the treatment of a convulsing child, known as APLS, is as follows:
Step 1 (5 minutes after the start of convulsion):
If a child has been convulsing for 5 minutes or more, the initial dose of benzodiazepine should be administered. This can be done by giving Lorazepam at a dose of 0.1 mg/kg intravenously (IV) or intraosseously (IO) if vascular access is available. Alternatively, buccal midazolam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg can be given if vascular access is not available.Step 2 (10 minutes after the start of Step 1):
If the convulsion continues for a further 10 minutes, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. It is also important to summon senior help at this point.Step 3 (10 minutes after the start of Step 2):
At this stage, it is necessary to involve senior help to reassess the child and provide guidance on further management. The recommended approach is as follows:
– If the child is not already on phenytoin, a phenytoin infusion should be initiated. This involves administering 20 mg/kg of phenytoin intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
– If the child is already taking phenytoin, phenobarbitone can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose is 20 mg/kg administered intravenously over 20 minutes.
– In the meantime, rectal paraldehyde can be considered at a dose of 0.8 ml/kg of the 50:50 mixture while preparing the infusion.Step 4 (20 minutes after the start of Step 3):
If the child is still experiencing convulsions at this stage, it is crucial to have an anaesthetist present. A rapid sequence induction with thiopental is recommended for further management.Please note that this algorithm is subject to change based on individual patient circumstances and the guidance of medical professionals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A toddler develops a palsy of his left leg following a fall. On examination, there is a 'foot drop' deformity and sensory loss of the lateral side of the foot and lower leg. There is also evidence of a left sided Horner's syndrome.
Which nerve roots have most likely been affected in this case?Your Answer: C8 and T1
Explanation:Klumpke’s palsy, also known as Dejerine-Klumpke palsy, is a condition where the arm becomes paralyzed due to an injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus. The most commonly affected root is C8, but T1 can also be involved. The main cause of Klumpke’s palsy is when the arm is pulled forcefully in an outward position during a difficult childbirth. It can also occur in adults with apical lung carcinoma (Pancoast’s syndrome).
Clinically, Klumpke’s palsy is characterized by a deformity known as ‘claw hand’, which is caused by the paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles. There is also a loss of sensation along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand. In some cases where T1 is affected, a condition called Horner’s syndrome may also be present.
Klumpke’s palsy can be distinguished from Erb’s palsy, which affects the upper roots of the brachial plexus (C5 and sometimes C6). In Erb’s palsy, the arm hangs by the side with the elbow extended and the forearm turned inward (known as the ‘waiter’s tip sign’). Additionally, there is a loss of shoulder abduction, external rotation, and elbow flexion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old hairdresser is brought into the emergency department after collapsing at work. The patient's coworker presents you with security camera footage of the incident, where the patient is observed falling to the floor just before experiencing involuntary jerking movements in all four limbs. The patient remained unconscious for approximately one minute and also lost control of their bladder during the episode. A diagnosis of tonic-clonic seizure is made, and there is no prior history of seizures or epilepsy. Despite no identifiable cause, what advice should be given to this patient regarding their ability to drive a car?
Your Answer: Must not drive for 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Must not drive for 6 months
Explanation:Patients who experience a seizure(s) should be informed about their ability to drive. There are two important instructions to follow in this regard. Firstly, they must refrain from driving for a period of 6 months. Secondly, they must notify the appropriate authority, such as the DVLA or DVA in Northern Ireland. In the case of a single seizure, driving should be suspended for 6 months from the date of the seizure. However, if an underlying cause that increases the risk of seizures is identified, driving should be halted for 12 months. In the case of multiple seizures or epilepsy, driving should be ceased for 12 months from the most recent seizure.
Further Reading:
Blackouts are a common occurrence in the emergency department and can have serious consequences if they happen while a person is driving. It is crucial for doctors in the ED to be familiar with the guidelines set by the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency) regarding driving restrictions for patients who have experienced a blackout.
The DVLA has specific rules for different types of conditions that may cause syncope (loss of consciousness). For group 1 license holders (car/motorcycle use), if a person has had a first unprovoked isolated seizure, they must refrain from driving for 6 months or 12 months if there is an underlying causative factor that may increase the risk. They must also notify the DVLA. For group 2 license holders (bus and heavy goods vehicles), the restrictions are more stringent, with a requirement of 12 months off driving for a first unprovoked isolated seizure and 5 years off driving if there is an underlying causative factor.
For epilepsy or multiple seizures, both group 1 and group 2 license holders must remain seizure-free for 12 months before their license can be considered. They must also notify the DVLA. In the case of a stroke or isolated transient ischemic attack (TIA), group 1 license holders need to refrain from driving for 1 month, while group 2 license holders must wait for 12 months before being re-licensed subject to medical evaluation. Multiple TIAs require 3 months off driving for both groups.
Isolated vasovagal syncope requires no driving restriction for group 1 license holders, but group 2 license holders must refrain from driving for 3 months. Both groups must notify the DVLA. If syncope is caused by a reversible and treated condition, group 1 license holders need 4 weeks off driving, while group 2 license holders require 3 months. In the case of an isolated syncopal episode with an unknown cause, group 1 license holders must refrain from driving for 6 months, while group 2 license holders will have their license refused or revoked for 12 months.
For patients who continue to drive against medical advice, the GMC (General Medical Council) has provided guidance on how doctors should manage the situation. Doctors should explain to the patient why they are not allowed to drive and inform them of their legal duty to notify the DVLA or DVA (Driver and Vehicle Agency in Northern Ireland). Doctors should also record the advice given to the patient in their medical record
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)