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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-week history of stiffness, pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a four-week history of stiffness, pain and swelling of her wrists and knuckles. The symptoms improve by mid-day but persist daily. She reports feeling unwell.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Rheumatoid Arthritis from Other Joint Conditions

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that primarily affects the small joints of the fingers, thumbs, wrists, feet, and ankles. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, which can affect both hands and is often worse in bed and in the morning, rheumatoid arthritis is typically symmetrical and develops gradually. In addition, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience systemic symptoms such as pyrexia, feeling unwell, weight loss, and muscle aches. Gout, on the other hand, usually presents as an acute monoarthritis in the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the great toe, while osteoarthritis commonly affects the hands and is characterized by bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints. Rheumatic fever, which is caused by a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus, is more common in children and presents as a migratory arthritis affecting large joints like the knees, ankles, wrists, and elbows, along with pyrexia and constitutional symptoms. By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat joint disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 57-year-old male patient complains of intense pain deep in his right ear...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male patient complains of intense pain deep in his right ear accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of the room spinning. Upon clinical examination, he displays a partial facial nerve paralysis on the right side and vesicular lesions on the anterior two-thirds of his tongue. What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Although vesicular lesions are typically observed in the external auditory canal and pinna, they can also appear on the front two-thirds of the tongue and the soft palate.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to depression caused by multiple miscarriages. She is not ready to return to work and asks her doctor to extend her sick leave. What is the maximum duration that her doctor can sign her off for?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Fit notes are limited to a maximum of 3 months per form during the initial issuance.

      The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes

      The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.

      It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.

      Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has experienced gastrointestinal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic for evaluation. She has experienced gastrointestinal discomfort with two different bisphosphonates and is unwilling to go to the hospital for regular infusions. She smokes ten cigarettes per day and has a BMI of 20 kg/m2. She has a history of a left Colles fracture. Her T-score is −3.5.
      What is the most suitable next step for managing the patient's osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Teriparatide

      Correct Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Osteoporosis: A Comparison

      Osteoporosis is a common condition that affects bone density and increases the risk of fractures. There are several treatment options available, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. In this article, we will compare the most commonly used treatments for osteoporosis.

      Denosumab is a RANK-ligand inhibitor that reduces osteoclast activity and pre-osteoclast to osteoclast maturation, leading to downregulation of bone resorption. It is administered once every six months via subcutaneous injection, making it a convenient option for patients who struggle with compliance. Denosumab is particularly suitable for patients who have not tolerated bisphosphonates and have a low BMI.

      Calcitonin is available as an intravenous preparation for the treatment of acute hypercalcaemia. However, oral calcitonin is not used as chronic therapy due to the risk of osteosarcoma.

      Raloxifene is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator that is less effective than bisphosphonates as a treatment for osteoporosis. However, it does reduce the risk of breast cancer in women who take it.

      Strontium ranelate is reserved as a treatment for osteoporosis for patients who are unable to tolerate other therapies. However, it may be associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular events.

      Teriparatide is a synthetic parathyroid hormone analogue given once a day as a subcutaneous injection for osteoporosis. However, it may not be a preferred option for a 75-year-old woman.

      In conclusion, the choice of treatment for osteoporosis depends on several factors, including the patient’s age, medical history, and tolerance to different therapies. Denosumab is a convenient option for patients who struggle with compliance, while raloxifene may be suitable for women who want to reduce their risk of breast cancer. However, it is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each treatment option with a healthcare professional before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has previously been diagnosed with distal colitis and proctitis. He is not currently taking any medication. He has been symptom-free but now reports a recurrence of his diarrhea.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Mesalazine foam enema

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the colon and rectum. In mild-to-moderate cases, the recommended initial treatment is local application of an aminosalicylate, such as mesalazine foam enema. Corticosteroid enema or suppositories are alternatives but are less effective.

      If there is no response to local treatment, oral mesalazine can be added. However, oral therapy alone with mesalazine is less effective than topical treatment for milder acute exacerbations of inflammatory bowel disease (proctitis). More severe exacerbations require oral steroids.

      For adults with a mild to moderate first presentation or inflammatory exacerbation of left-sided or extensive ulcerative colitis, oral mesalazine is the first line choice to induce remission. Topical mesalazine or oral beclomethasone dipropionate may also be considered.

      Managing Mild-to-Moderate Ulcerative Colitis: Treatment Options and Recommendations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools...

    Correct

    • What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?

      Your Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents

      Explanation:

      Head Lice Treatment and Prevention

      Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.

      Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.

      If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.

      Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You have some pediatric patients on your list who come from low income...

    Correct

    • You have some pediatric patients on your list who come from low income groups and you want to encourage vitamin D supplementation.

      You have heard about the Healthy Start initiative.

      Which of the following are eligible for free vitamin supplements under the Healthy Start scheme?

      Your Answer: Pregnant women in households in receipt of Income Support

      Explanation:

      The Healthy Start Scheme: Providing Nutritional Support for Low-Income Families

      The Healthy Start scheme is a UK-wide program that aims to provide a nutritional safety net for pregnant women and families with children under 4 years old who are living in very low-income and disadvantaged households. The scheme offers vouchers for basic healthy foods and coupons for Healthy Start vitamin supplements to eligible families.

      To be eligible for the scheme, pregnant women must be in a household that receives Income Support, Income-based Jobseeker’s Allowance, Income-related Employment and Support Allowance, or Child Tax Credit. Families with a child under 4 years old are only eligible if they live in households that receive the same benefits or tax credits.

      It is important to note that the Healthy Start scheme doesn’t specifically cover breastfeeding, but it does provide free vitamin supplements, including vitamin D, to women and children from eligible families. However, uptake of the Healthy Start vitamins among qualifying families is currently low.

      Overall, the Healthy Start scheme plays a crucial role in providing nutritional support to low-income families in the UK, helping to ensure that pregnant women and young children have access to the basic healthy foods and vitamins they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend, reporting a 24-hour history of aggressive behaviour, irritability, and hallucinations. The friend suspects that the patient has experienced a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests reveal no evidence of drug use or infection. The patient is admitted to the hospital for observation and returns to his usual behaviour the following day.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Brief psychotic disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term condition characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Unlike other disorders, brief psychotic disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they have different symptoms and characteristics.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with chest wall pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with chest wall pain and pain in her left hip. She is under the oncologists and recent imaging revealed diffuse metastatic deposits throughout her pelvis, spine and ribs, some of which appear to account for her present pain.

      The patient has come to see you to discuss pain relief as she currently takes only regular paracetamol. You discuss the options and she agrees that the next step is to use a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Her past medical history includes angina which gives her relatively frequent symptoms and for which she continues to receive medication to treat.

      Which is the most appropriate NSAID to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naproxen 500 mgs BD

      Correct Answer: Ketorolac 10 mg QDS

      Explanation:

      Managing Symptoms in Patients with Metastatic Cancer: Considerations for Prescribing Anti-Inflammatory Medications

      When managing symptoms in patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider the potential side effects of medications. For example, if a patient has angina, prescribing an anti-inflammatory medication should take into account their cardiac risk to avoid thrombotic complications that could cause additional pain and suffering.

      Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) carry an increased risk of myocardial infarction and stroke and should only be used over non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) if specifically indicated. However, even among NSAIDs, there is variation in terms of thrombotic risk. Diclofenac at 150 mg daily and high dose ibuprofen at 2.4 g daily are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen 1 g daily and lower doses of ibuprofen (=<1.2 g daily) have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Therefore, when prescribing anti-inflammatory medications for patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider their individual cardiovascular risk and choose the medication with the best safety profile. The lowest effective dose of NSAID should be prescribed for the shortest period of time to control symptoms, and the need for long-term treatment should be reviewed periodically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      57.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs)....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). She reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. Her dentist prescribed amoxicillin for a dental infection 2 weeks ago. On physical examination, she is overweight with a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Her LFTs reveal:
      ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
      AST 130 U/L (10-40)
      Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
      What is the most likely cause of her abnormal LFTs?

      Your Answer: Drug induced

      Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) and its Causes

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common condition caused by the accumulation of fat in the liver, leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and insulin resistance. NAFLD is the most likely cause of liver enzyme abnormalities in patients with these conditions. However, other causes of hepatitis should be excluded before making this diagnosis.

      Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver. It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman's life has become increasingly difficult due to excessive washing in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman's life has become increasingly difficult due to excessive washing in an attempt to prevent contamination by faeces and urine. She is fortunate to have her own bathroom at home for her exclusive use and showers several times a day and repeatedly washes her hands. She is reluctant to venture far from home for fear of contamination and is especially afraid of using public toilets. She has become quite anxious and her sleep is disturbed.
      Select from the list below the single most suitable initial management option.

      Your Answer: Cognitive behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition that requires proper management based on its severity. Cognitive behavioural therapy, including exposure and response prevention (ERP), is beneficial for all patients with OCD. This therapy involves exposure to triggers and preventing compulsive behaviours. The intensity and delivery of the intervention depend on the severity of the condition and can be individual or group-based. Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are recommended as an adjunct for patients who cannot engage in low-intensity psychological treatment or if such treatment has failed. Clomipramine is an alternative drug for patients with more severe symptoms. Although hypnotherapy and social skills therapy have been used in OCD patients, they are not included in the NICE guidelines.

      Managing Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) with Cognitive Behavioural Therapy and Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 19-year-old female with a history of gender dysphoria visits the clinic seeking...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female with a history of gender dysphoria visits the clinic seeking a referral for testosterone therapy. He has researched that this treatment can modify the physical characteristics of his gender, such as deepening his voice and increasing muscle mass, to align with his gender identity. He also wants to use this therapy as a form of contraception.

      The patient's medical history includes a diagnosis of depression, for which he takes fluoxetine. There is no prior history of cancer or blood clots, but his mother and maternal grandmother have a family history of ovarian cancer.

      What is the most appropriate advice to provide to the patient regarding testosterone therapy?

      Your Answer: This treatment doesn't provide protection against pregnancy and is contraindicated in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Testosterone therapy is not a form of contraception for transgender males and should not be used during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. However, a family history of ovarian cancer and a history of depression are not contraindications for this treatment. Patients with gender dysphoria should be referred to specialists at the Gender Identity Clinic or equivalent for assessment and can access testosterone therapy through the NHS regardless of whether they have obtained a Gender Recognition Certificate or not. The Gender Recognition Certificate, which is part of the Gender Recognition Act 2004, grants legal rights to trans men and women, including the ability to obtain a new birth certificate, driving licence, and passport, as well as the right to marry in their new gender.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a pigmented lesion on her left cheek. She reports that the lesion has been present for a while but has recently increased in size. Upon examination, it is evident that she has significant sun damage on her face, legs, and arms due to living in South Africa. The lesion appears flat, pigmented, and has an irregular border.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Lentigo maligna

      Explanation:

      Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

      Lentigo Maligna: This pre-invasive lesion has the potential to develop into malignant melanoma. It appears as a pigmented, flat lesion against sun-damaged skin. Surgical excision is the ideal intervention, but cryotherapy and topical immunotherapy are possible alternatives.

      Squamous Cell Carcinoma: This common type of skin cancer presents as enlarging scaly or crusted nodules, often associated with ulceration. It may arise in areas of actinic keratoses or Bowen’s disease.

      Basal Cell Carcinoma: This skin cancer usually occurs in photo-exposed areas of fair-skinned individuals. It looks like pearly nodules with surface telangiectasia.

      Pityriasis Versicolor: This is a common yeast infection of the skin that results in an annular, erythematous scaling rash on the trunk.

      Actinic Keratosis: These scaly lesions occur in sun-damaged skin in fair-skinned individuals and are considered to be a pre-cancerous form of SCC.

      Understanding Skin Lesions and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old child presents with a sore throat and cough. He vomited twice...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents with a sore throat and cough. He vomited twice in the past 24 hours. He is drinking and passed urine four hours ago. He has no rash. He has had tonsillitis twice in the past and his mother now requests antibiotics. There is nil of note in past medical history, and he is not on any medications.

      On examination, the child is alert. His temperature is 38.9°C, HR 130, RR 30, and CRT<2 sec. There are no recessions or rash, chest clear, eardrums pink, tonsils large and red with fine white exudate, normal cervical lymph nodes.

      Based on the NICE 'traffic light' system, what is the most appropriate management for this 4-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Give oral penicillin V and send home with worsening advice

      Correct Answer: Advise on fluids and antipyretics and send home with worsening advice

      Explanation:

      Management of a Child with Sore Throat

      This child doesn’t exhibit any life-threatening symptoms or signs of bacterial tonsillitis. The presence of fever and tonsillar exudate suggests a viral sore throat, which doesn’t require antibiotics. It is important to explain to the parents that antibiotics are unlikely to help and may contribute to bacterial resistance. Instead, regular analgesia and fluids should be given, and safety-netting advice provided. Antibiotics may be prescribed immediately for certain groups, such as those with three or more Centor criteria, systemic illness, or pre-existing comorbidities. It is also important to inform parents about the average length of the illness. As a GP who helped develop the NICE guidelines, I recommend following these management strategies for children with sore throat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.

      What should be the next course of action in his management?

      Your Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.

      Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.

      Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.

      Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      1942.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      Albumin 38 g/l

      What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - As a registrar in General Practice for the past 8 months, you encounter...

    Correct

    • As a registrar in General Practice for the past 8 months, you encounter a 55-year-old female patient who visits your clinic at least once a week, sometimes more frequently. The patient has a history of depression and fibromyalgia but no other significant chronic illness. Her usual complaints include persistent arthralgia, myalgia, low mood, and pruritus. Despite extensive investigations, no underlying organic cause has been identified for her symptoms. The patient is always courteous and prompt. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Have a conversation with the patient about her frequent attendance and suggest booking a regular appointment every two weeks initially

      Explanation:

      The patient in question seems to have become overly reliant on their doctor, which could be seen as doctor dependence. To address this issue, it is important to have an open and honest conversation with the patient and suggest a solution. One effective approach is to schedule regular appointments, gradually increasing the time between them.

      It is important to remember that some patients hold doctors in high regard and may feel hurt if advised to see another doctor. Limiting consultations to once every two weeks could also be risky if the patient experiences an urgent medical issue.

      Removing the patient from the practice list is not a suitable solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been extensively investigated and no cause found. He still finds the symptoms very distressing. They are the focus of his attention and he says they are restricting normal activities; he also fears he may have bowel cancer.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Somatic Symptom Disorder and its Distinctions from Other Conditions

      Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is a condition characterized by distressing somatic symptoms and excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to those symptoms. These symptoms must persist for at least six months to be diagnosed with SSD. In contrast, illness anxiety disorder is a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms. Colon cancer is unlikely in this patient as extensive investigations have found no cause. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about a variety of things, while this patient’s focus is on his abdominal pain and fears of bowel cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation, but the patient’s symptoms and concerns are more consistent with somatic symptom disorder. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients...

    Correct

    • You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.

      You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?

      Your Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care

      There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of sticky, painless,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old lady comes to the clinic with a complaint of sticky, painless, red right eye, accompanied by yellowish-green ocular discharge that has been present for three weeks. Despite using topical antibiotics, there has been no improvement. Upon examination, follicular tarsal conjunctivitis is observed, along with right pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. Her visual acuity is 6/6 on Snellen chart in both eyes. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer her urgently to an ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Chlamydial Conjunctivitis: A Case for Prompt Referral

      The presented case of a young patient with non-responsive conjunctivitis, ocular discharge, and pre-auricular lymphadenopathy should raise suspicion for chlamydial conjunctivitis. Therefore, a prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for further examination, investigation, and treatment is necessary. Once confirmed, management can be done jointly with a genito-urinary medicine specialist (GUM).

      It is crucial to identify and treat chlamydial conjunctivitis promptly to prevent complications such as corneal scarring and vision loss. Therefore, clinicians should have a high index of suspicion for this condition, especially in sexually active individuals. Referral to an ophthalmologist and GUM specialist can ensure comprehensive management and prevent further spread of the infection. Proper education and counseling on safe sex practices should also be provided to prevent future occurrences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      67.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing enalapril for a patient with recently diagnosed heart failure. What are the most typical side-effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?

      Your Answer: Cough + erythema multiforme + hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Cough + anaphylactoid reactions + hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A study conducted by the local public health team in the commissioning group...

    Incorrect

    • A study conducted by the local public health team in the commissioning group locality reveals that single men who claim disability benefit are 70% more likely to die due to alcohol misuse compared to single men of the same age who do not claim disability benefit. What is the correct interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer: Claiming disability benefit is a risk factor for alcohol abuse

      Correct Answer: Confounding variables may have contributed to the higher risk of death due to alcohol abuse in the disability benefit group

      Explanation:

      The Complex Relationship Between Disability Benefit and Alcohol Abuse

      Patients who claim disability benefit are more likely to have social and medical comorbidity, making it difficult to compare them with age-matched controls without controlling for these variables. Factors such as poverty, poor housing, poor nutrition, smoking, and physical and mental illness are all likely to be more common in this group, which can increase the risk of death if the person also abuses alcohol.

      While all-cause mortality is likely to be higher in the benefit group, it is not possible to draw this conclusion from the available data. It is possible that increasing benefit could improve nutrition and other factors, potentially reducing the harmful effects of alcohol. However, this cannot be concluded from the data.

      The disability group does have a higher rate of alcohol-related deaths, but it is unclear whether this is due to a higher prevalence of alcohol abuse in this group. Therefore, it is not possible to claim an association between claiming benefit and alcohol abuse, let alone identify claiming benefit as a risk factor for alcohol abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A red swelling is observed in the lower lateral wall of the nostrils...

    Correct

    • A red swelling is observed in the lower lateral wall of the nostrils of a young patient during anterior rhinoscopy. The swelling is tender to the touch and appears to be blocking the airway. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inferior turbinate

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inferior Turbinate: Causes of Enlargement and Treatment Options

      The inferior turbinate is a structure in the nasal cavity that is prone to enlargement, leading to nasal obstruction. This can be caused by various factors, including allergic rhinitis, inflammation, and the prolonged use of nasal sprays. If the obstruction is severe, treatment with nasal corticosteroids may be necessary.

      It is important to note that the inferior turbinate is often mistaken for other pathologies during examination. Nasal polyps, for example, are insensitive and light grey in color, while foreign bodies are usually unilateral and accompanied by a nasal discharge, and are more common in children. The middle turbinate is located higher up and further back in the nasal cavity than the inferior turbinate, while the superior turbinate is rarely visible on anterior rhinoscopy.

      Understanding the causes and symptoms of inferior turbinate enlargement can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment options for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You see a 5-year-old girl who is being abused by her father. The...

    Correct

    • You see a 5-year-old girl who is being abused by her father. The foundation programme doctor who is working with you is shocked by how common abuse of children seems to be.

      Which is the most common form of child abuse?

      Your Answer: Neglect

      Explanation:

      The Most Common Form of Child Abuse

      Neglect is the most prevalent form of child abuse, as opposed to direct emotional, physical, or sexual abuse. Neglect occurs when a caregiver fails to provide the necessary care and attention that a child needs to thrive. This can include not providing adequate food, shelter, clothing, medical care, or supervision. Neglect can also manifest in emotional neglect, where a child is not given the love, support, and attention they need to develop emotionally. It is important to recognize neglect as a form of abuse and take action to protect children from its harmful effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man is concerned about his risk for early heart disease due...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is concerned about his risk for early heart disease due to a family history of the condition. He believes that some of his relatives are currently being treated for high cholesterol and would like to have his own cholesterol levels checked. Additionally, he is interested in learning about the type of high cholesterol that can be inherited. What is the cholesterol level threshold that would suggest a possible diagnosis of familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) in adults?

      Your Answer: Total cholesterol >7.5 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH)

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a type II a primary hyperlipidaemia, according to the World Health Organisation Fredrickson classification. This condition is characterised by raised total cholesterol (TC) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels, while triglycerides remain normal. FH is an autosomal dominantly inherited condition, with a gene frequency of 1:500.

      According to NICE guidance, FH should be suspected as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease (an event before 60 years in an index individual or first-degree relative). It is important to identify and manage FH early to reduce the risk of developing coronary heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping...

    Correct

    • You are taking a history from a 21-year-old man. He reports difficulty sleeping at night due to concerns about abusing his special powers. He claims to be able to read other people's thoughts and sometimes feels he can control their hand movements. He believes this to be true because a passage in the Bible can be translated with a special code that dictates his powers. Additionally, he reports hearing voices talking about him.
      What is the SINGLE CORRECT terminology for this type of delusion?

      Your Answer: Delusion of reference

      Explanation:

      Understanding Delusions: False Beliefs and Their Types

      Delusions are false beliefs that individuals hold onto despite evidence to the contrary. These beliefs are often maintained by altering other beliefs to keep their entire belief system consistent. There are several types of delusions, including delusions of reference, control, paranoia, replacement, and guilt.

      Delusions of reference involve the belief that something innocent in the public domain holds a special meaning for the individual. Delusions of control consist of the belief that an external force is controlling the patient, often citing electricity or radio waves as the mediator. Paranoid delusions involve the belief that people or organizations are plotting to harm or harass the patient, while delusions of replacement occur when someone in the patient’s life has been replaced by an impostor. Delusions of guilt involve feeling guilty or remorseful for no valid reason.

      Understanding the different types of delusions can help individuals recognize when someone they know may be experiencing them. It is important to seek professional help if someone is experiencing delusions, as they can be a symptom of a larger mental health issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following drugs is safe for lactating mothers to use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following drugs is safe for lactating mothers to use?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      The use of Warfarin during breastfeeding is deemed to be safe.

      Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider

      Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.

      Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged LFTs. She has an ALT of 2500 U/l and bilirubin of 75 μ mol/l. She was fully vaccinated before travel. She also took mefloquine malaria prophylaxis.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis E: A Likely Diagnosis for Abnormal Liver Function Tests

      Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by various factors, but in this case, hepatitis E is the most likely diagnosis. While hepatitis A vaccine is effective in preventing hepatitis A, it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Acute hepatitis B is less likely as it is transmitted through blood or sexual contact. Malaria and dengue fever may also cause abnormal liver function tests, but not to the extent seen in this patient.

      Hepatitis E is a viral infection that is acquired through the faeco-oral route. Unlike hepatitis A, it has no chronic form but has a higher mortality rate of 1-2%. Pregnant women in their last trimester are at a higher risk of death from hepatitis E. Outbreaks of hepatitis E are more common in developing countries.

      It is important to note that both hepatitis A and E can cause fulminant liver failure in patients with underlying liver disease. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 23-year-old bus driver is brought to see you by his girlfriend to...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old bus driver is brought to see you by his girlfriend to discuss his mood swings.

      In the course of the consultation it becomes clear that he has been using ketamine regularly for over a year, although he tells you that he only uses at weekends when he is not working.

      You have no evidence from him or his girlfriend that his driving is impaired. You tell him that he has a duty to inform DVLA. He wants to know if this will have any implications for him.

      What advice should you give him?

      Your Answer: He will not be allowed to drive a bus until he has attained a six month period free of ketamine usage

      Correct Answer: He will not be allowed to drive a bus until he has attained a twelve month period free of ketamine usage

      Explanation:

      DVLA Restrictions on Driving with Substance Misuse

      In this scenario, it is important to consider several pieces of information. Firstly, the patient is a regular user of a substance, and the DVLA restrictions apply to those who have a persistent use or dependency on such substances, confirmed by medical enquiry. Secondly, the substance in question is ketamine, which has been added to the DVLA list of drugs considered under Drug misuse and dependency. It is in the same category as cannabis, ecstasy, amphetamines, LSD, and hallucinogens. Thirdly, the DVLA guidance for Group one entitlement is different from Group two entitlement.

      In this case, the patient is driving a bus and must hold a Group two entitlement license. If a Group two holder is using ketamine regularly, the revised guidance from DVLA is that persistent use or dependency on these substances will lead to refusal or revocation of a vocational license for a minimum one-year period free of such has been attained. Independent medical assessment by DVLA will normally be required. If the patient only held a Group one entitlement, the minimum time their license would have been revoked would have been six months. If they had been regularly using opiates or misusing benzodiazepines, their Group two license would have been revoked for a minimum of three years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      144.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a consultation. He is worried...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic for a consultation. He is worried about his recent visit to the renal clinic, where he was informed that he has bilateral renal artery stenosis. He is seeking advice on available treatments. Additionally, his blood pressure was found to be elevated.
      What is the initial management strategy?

      Your Answer: Antihypertensive medication and lifestyle modification

      Explanation:

      Managing Renovascular Disease: Treatment Options and Lifestyle Modifications

      Renovascular disease, caused by atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia, can lead to resistant hypertension and ischaemic nephropathy, particularly in older individuals with diffuse atherosclerosis. Lifestyle modifications, such as smoking cessation, diabetes control, statins, aspirin, and adequate antihypertensive therapy, are crucial in reducing vascular risk. However, some patients may not tolerate ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor antagonists, which are commonly used to preserve GFR.

      Oral anticoagulants are not recommended as a first-line measure. Instead, medication for blood pressure control, with or without intervention, is necessary to prevent or limit the progression of chronic kidney disease and alleviate other symptoms, such as refractory pulmonary oedema and angina. Percutaneous renal artery balloon angioplasty may be considered in patients with difficult-to-control hypertension or rapidly declining kidney function. Renal artery stenting is generally the first-line intervention for flash pulmonary oedema and severe hypertension. Surgical reconstruction of the renal arteries is reserved for patients with concomitant vascular disease, such as abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      In summary, managing renovascular disease requires a combination of lifestyle modifications and appropriate medical interventions to reduce vascular risk and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      72.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (2/3) 67%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (5/5) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/1) 100%
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