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  • Question 1 - A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is discharged home after undergoing a loop ileostomy following an anterior resection of a rectal carcinoma. She has recovered well over the last week. She is not taking anticoagulants and is being careful to drink at least one litre of extra water a day.
      What is the most likely early complication she may experience following this procedure?

      Your Answer: Severe stomal haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Irritant dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Ileostomy: Understanding the Risks

      Ileostomy is a surgical procedure that involves creating an opening in the abdomen to allow waste to pass out of the body. While the procedure can be life-changing for patients with certain medical conditions, it is not without its risks. Here are some of the potential complications of ileostomy:

      Irritant Dermatitis: The skin around the stoma can become irritated and inflamed, either due to contact with stoma equipment or leakage of feces. Hypoallergenic products and corticosteroid lotions can help manage this condition.

      Parastomal Hernia: This occurs when a bulge or protrusion develops around the stoma site. While conservative management is often possible, surgery may be necessary in some cases.

      Dehydration: High output from the ileostomy can lead to dehydration, making it important for patients to maintain a good fluid intake.

      Pernicious Anemia: As vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum, patients may develop pernicious anemia over time. Supplements can help manage this condition.

      Severe Stomal Hemorrhage: While some bleeding is common after bag changes, severe bleeding is more likely in patients taking antiplatelet drugs.

      Understanding these potential complications can help patients and healthcare providers monitor for early signs and manage them effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 29-year-old woman has given birth to her first child.

    The child was breech...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman has given birth to her first child.

      The child was breech and she underwent external cephalic version. She is adamant that she and her partner want one child only and that he will be seeking a vasectomy. The child's blood group is A rhesus positive, the mother's blood group is 0 rhesus negative.

      What is the most suitable recommendation regarding anti-D injection?

      Your Answer: Anti-D should be given after this and every future pregnancy

      Correct Answer: She should be strongly advised to consider anti-D, but it is not essential as she is not planning any more children

      Explanation:

      Anti-D Injection for Rhesus Antibody Sensitisation

      Rhesus antibody sensitisation is a condition that requires careful consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anti-D injection. According to NICE guidelines, women should be given the option to discuss the need for this injection. If a woman has decided not to have any further children, immunisation with anti-D may not be necessary as long as she is sure her family is complete. However, it is important to note that patients often change their minds, and this needs to be discussed.

      It is also important to consider the benefits and risks of anti-D injection. All preparations of anti-D carry a small risk of allergic reaction, as with the use of all medicines. The risk of D sensitisation is greatest during the first pregnancy and increased in ante-partum haemorrhage, third trimester miscarriage, termination, and with chorionic villus sampling. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the potential benefits and risks of anti-D injection before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      76.4
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever following a dental extraction 5 days ago. He is usually in good health. On examination, he has a tender swelling in the left submandibular region and mild trismus. His tongue is slightly displaced upwards and he is unable to protrude it. There is no respiratory distress or stridor. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Advise an urgent same day assessment by his dentist

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 999 ambulance for immediate transfer to hospital

      Explanation:

      Ludwig’s Angina is a medical emergency that falls under the domain of ENT. The patient in question is displaying symptoms and indications that suggest the presence of this rare infection, which affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. While it is typically caused by dental issues, it can also arise from other types of soft tissue infections in the neck. Due to the effectiveness of modern antibiotics and dental hygiene, Ludwig’s Angina is now quite uncommon, and many physicians may not be familiar with its presentation. However, it can lead to rapid deterioration and airway obstruction within a matter of minutes, necessitating immediate airway management and aggressive surgical intervention. If there is any suspicion of Ludwig’s Angina, it is crucial to transfer the patient to the emergency department without delay.

      Understanding Ludwig’s Angina

      Ludwig’s angina is a serious form of cellulitis that affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. It is usually caused by an infection that originates from the teeth and spreads to the submandibular space. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as neck swelling, fever, and difficulty swallowing.

      Ludwig’s angina is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. The management of this condition involves airway management and the administration of intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his primary care physician complaining of loose non-bloody stools and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 days. He has not been taking any regular medication and his disease has been quiescent for many years. A colonoscopy performed 5 years ago showed proctitis. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdomen is diffusely soft with no peritonism. A stool culture is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Budesonide foam enema

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine suppository

      Explanation:

      For a patient experiencing mild-to-moderate symptoms of distal ulcerative colitis, the recommended first-line treatment is topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine suppositories. This is particularly effective for patients with left-sided disease, such as proctitis or proctosigmoiditis. While budesonide foam enema is sometimes used as an additional treatment for mild-to-moderate disease, it is generally less effective at inducing remission. Oral azathioprine is not recommended for inducing remission, but may be used to maintain remission in patients who have had multiple inflammatory exacerbations or if remission is not maintained by aminosalicylates alone. Oral mesalazine is less effective than topical mesalazine for mild or moderate proctitis, but may be offered as an additional treatment if symptoms persist after 4 weeks of topical mesalazine. For patients with pancolitis or extensive disease, oral mesalazine may be offered as a first-line treatment.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      24.4
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  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily. She has stopped using contact lenses since the onset of symptoms and is currently wearing glasses.

      During the examination, the left eye appears inflamed and red with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. No abnormalities are observed in the periorbital tissues, and the patient's visual acuity is normal with glasses.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe chloramphenicol eye drops

      Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer complains of a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can be managed with antibiotics in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as visual loss. It can be difficult to distinguish between the two conditions, and a slit-lamp examination is necessary. Therefore, immediate referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care. While artificial tears can be helpful for uncomplicated dry eyes, they are not recommended in cases of infection.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).

      Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.

      Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      30.4
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  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father. She has been experiencing nighttime itching around her bottom and has reported seeing small white strands in her stool. She is not experiencing constipation and is in good health otherwise. No one else in the household is experiencing similar symptoms. The girl lives with her father and her four-month-old brother.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, as his sister is too young

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat asymptomatic household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they show no symptoms. In this case, the appropriate treatment would be Mebendazole and hygiene measures for the patient and his parents, but not for his three-month-old sister who is too young for the medication. While a sample can be sent to confirm the diagnosis, empirical treatment is appropriate in most cases. Advising on hygiene and fluid intake alone would not be sufficient to treat the threadworm infection. Permethrin is not a suitable treatment for threadworms, as it is used for scabies.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      31.3
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      10.9
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  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old man presents with a four week history of cough and green...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with a four week history of cough and green sputum. He has also noticed some streaks of blood in the sputum on several occasions. He visited the clinic two weeks ago and was prescribed a seven day course of amoxicillin 500 mg tds, as well as a chest x-ray which came back normal. However, his symptoms have not improved and he reports a weight loss of around 7 pounds over the past three months. He used to smoke 15 cigarettes per day for 40 years but quit two years ago. On examination of his respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient urgently to a respiratory physician

      Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral and Assessment of Lung Cancer

      According to the NICE guidelines, urgent referral for suspected lung cancer should be made for individuals aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis or chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer. However, even with a normal chest X-ray, urgent referral is still warranted if there is ongoing haemoptysis in an ex-smoker.

      In addition, NICE guidelines recommend offering an urgent chest X-ray to assess for lung cancer in individuals aged 40 and over who have two or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss. For those who have ever smoked, one or more of these symptoms should prompt an urgent chest X-ray.

      Furthermore, consideration should be given to an urgent chest X-ray for individuals aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis.

      Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure timely and appropriate referral and assessment for individuals who may be at risk for lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      114.9
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor. His movements seem slower and he has cog-wheel rigidity when his arms are flexed and extended.
      Which of the following is most likely to cause these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Conventional antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications and their Side Effects

      When it comes to medication, it is important to understand the potential side effects that may occur. In this case, the patient is experiencing a tremor and excessive urination and thirst. Let’s compare the potential causes of these symptoms based on different types of medication.

      Conventional Antipsychotics:
      Common extrapyramidal side-effects include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. It is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent.

      Atypical Antipsychotics:
      Atypical antipsychotics have low rates of causing extrapyramidal side effects and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Lithium:
      Excessive urination and thirst are common side effects associated with lithium, with rates up to 70% in long-term patients who are treated with it. However, it is not known to cause extrapyramidal side effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor:
      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors typically cause headache, dry mouth, insomnia, and restlessness. However, it is more likely that this patient’s symptoms are caused by a drug such as an atypical antipsychotic, which more commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects such as a tremor.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants:
      Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause antimuscarinic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. They do not usually cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      In conclusion, based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      142.1
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Indian woman comes to the clinic with a nodular rash all over her body, eyebrow loss, and burns on her hands. She experiences tenderness in her thickened ulnar nerves. A skin biopsy reveals the existence of multiple acid-fast bacilli (AFBs).
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Leprosy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Leprosy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Challenges in the UK

      Leprosy, caused by Mycobacterium leprae, is a contagious disease that primarily affects the skin and nerves. While it is rare in the UK, it remains a significant cause of peripheral neuropathy worldwide. The disease progresses slowly, with an average incubation period of 7 years, and can range from mild to severe forms. Diagnosis requires the presence of skin patches or hypopigmented areas with reduced sensation, thickened peripheral nerves, and the detection of acid-fast bacilli in skin smears or biopsies. However, in countries where leprosy is rare, diagnosis can be delayed due to lack of familiarity with the disease. Understanding the symptoms and challenges of diagnosing leprosy is crucial for effective management and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      19.6
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment. During the consultation, she is advised to visit her GP for vaccination but cannot recall which vaccines were recommended. She has received all her childhood and school immunizations but has not had any vaccinations since becoming pregnant.

      What vaccines should be offered to this patient?

      Your Answer: Pertussis and influenza vaccine

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should receive both influenza and pertussis vaccines. The pertussis vaccine is typically part of the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccination and is important for preventing severe illness and death in newborns. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      19
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  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer: Low serum bicarbonate concentration

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      27.7
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  • Question 14 - You see a 26-year-old male patient with erectile dysfunction. He is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 26-year-old male patient with erectile dysfunction. He is typically healthy and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol in moderation.

      You proceed to gather a more comprehensive history of his issue and conduct a thorough psychosexual evaluation.

      Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic origin rather than an organic cause for his condition?

      Your Answer: Normal libido

      Correct Answer: A history of premature ejaculation

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, or mixed, and can also be caused by certain medications.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset and normal ejaculation.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      1273.7
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  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She has always been one of the shorter children in her class, but recently has been the subject of bullying and has become very unhappy. Her parents are convinced there is something wrong and would like something to be done. She was born at term without any antenatal complications and her length at birth was on the 50th centile. She has only been seen for vaccinations and minor childhood ailments and takes no regular medications. Her height today is on the 9th centile and her weight on the 75th. Cardiovascular and abdominal examination is normal, with no signs of precocious puberty.
      Select from the list the most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer: Check thyroid function

      Explanation:

      Investigating a Drop in Centiles for Height: Possible Causes and Referral to an Endocrinologist

      When a child’s height drops in centiles without an obvious cause, it is important to investigate the underlying reason. One possible cause that should be excluded is hypothyroidism, which can be determined through testing. X-rays can also be helpful in determining bone age. If there is a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, a renal ultrasound may be recommended.

      If a child’s growth persists along one of the lower centiles, constitutional short stature may be suggested, but if there has been a drop in centiles, this is unlikely. In such cases, referral to an endocrinologist is likely necessary.

      Congenital hypothyroidism is screened for at birth, but acquired hypothyroidism in childhood and adolescence is often caused by lymphocytic (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis. The first signs are often a slowing of growth, which may go unnoticed, followed by other typical signs of hypothyroidism such as skin changes, cold intolerance, sleepiness, and low energy. Delayed puberty is common in adolescence, but younger children may experience galactorrhea or precocious puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      69.3
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  • Question 16 - When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the...

    Correct

    • When prescribing the following drugs, which one requires the prescription to state the total quantity in both words and figures?

      Your Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      In January 2008, midazolam was reclassified as a controlled drug under Schedule 3.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      29.7
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  • Question 17 - An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures...

    Correct

    • An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis is worried about her own risk. What is the best method to evaluate her risk?

      Your Answer: Assess her using the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Although radiographs can reveal osteopenia, they are insufficient for accurately assessing the extent of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Normal calcium and phosphate levels are observed in osteoporosis.

      The tool for Birmingham Hip Score doesn’t exist.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and...

    Incorrect

    • What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and 16?

      Your Answer: Tetanus

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenza B

      Explanation:

      Recommended Vaccinations for Adolescents

      A booster vaccination for tetanus and diphtheria is required for adolescents between the ages of 14 and 16. It is recommended that these boosters be administered every 10 years thereafter. In some countries, a second dose of the MMR vaccine is given at age 12. The BCG vaccine is not routinely given, but is offered to individuals who are at risk. It is important for adolescents to stay up-to-date on their vaccinations to protect themselves and those around them from preventable diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman’s mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease. She wants to know how likely it is that she will inherit the condition.

      What is the correct mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal-dominant

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of this disease in order to assess the risk of developing it.

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal-dominant trait, which means that a person only needs one copy of the affected gene to develop the disorder. This also means that if a parent has the disease, their child has a 50% chance of inheriting it.

      It is important to note that Huntington’s disease does run in families and is caused by a defect in a single gene (huntingtin) on chromosome 4. However, it doesn’t follow an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance, as both men and women are equally affected.

      In summary, understanding the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and potential risk for developing the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness in both feet, which has worsened over a period of six months. She has hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and diabetes. She is currently taking amlodipine, aspirin, atorvastatin, gliclazide, metformin, ramipril and sitagliptin. She doesn't drink alcohol.
      On examination, she has altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Femoral pulses are present, but those in the feet are absent.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Symmetrical Polyneuropathy: Causes and Risk Factors

      Chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy is a condition characterized by weakness and sensory symptoms such as burning and tingling. The most common cause of this condition is diabetic neuropathy, which is directly related to the duration of diabetes and poor blood sugar control. However, certain drugs such as isoniazid, vincristine, phenytoin, nitrofurantoin, gold, and excess vitamin B6 can also cause polyneuropathy.

      Hyperlipidemia and hypertension are also associated with peripheral neuropathy, but they are not as common as diabetic neuropathy. Peripheral vascular disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, can also increase the risk of polyneuropathy, especially in patients with diabetes and ischemic disease.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Patients with this condition may experience reduced sensation and balance issues, making it crucial to manage their symptoms and prevent falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis is planning a 4-week holiday to a remote jungle region of Asia. She has completed her childhood vaccination programme and received a polio booster six years ago. However, she has heard that she requires further travel vaccinations. Her travel agent has suggested the items below, but she is a bit concerned about the safety of these given her medical history.
      Which vaccine would be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Considerations for Immunocompromised Individuals

      Live vaccines, such as rubella, measles, mumps, BCG, yellow fever, and oral polio vaccine, should not be administered to individuals who are immunocompromised. However, the hepatitis, typhoid Vi, and tetanus vaccines, which are formaldehyde-inactivated virus, polysaccharide antigen, and adsorbed toxoid, respectively, pose no risk to these individuals. Although their efficacy may be reduced in immunocompromised individuals, inactivated polio vaccine is available if needed. It is important to note that polio has been eradicated in the Americas since 1991. The main concern for immunocompromised individuals is the yellow fever vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old man presents with a football-related injury. He complains of acute pain...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a football-related injury. He complains of acute pain in his right calf that began with a popping sound during running. You suspect an Achilles tendon rupture and proceed to perform Simmonds' Triad examination.

      What is involved in Simmonds' Triad examination?

      Your Answer: Calf squeeze test, observation of the angle of declination, palpation of the tendon

      Explanation:

      To assess for an Achilles tendon rupture, Simmonds’ triad can be used. This involves three components: palpating the Achilles tendon to check for a gap, examining the angle of declination at rest to see if the affected foot is more dorsiflexed than the other, and performing the calf squeeze test. A positive result for the calf squeeze test is when squeezing the calf doesn’t cause the foot to plantarflex as expected. It’s important to note that struggling to stand on tiptoes or having an abnormal gait are not part of Simmonds’ triad.

      Understanding Achilles Tendon Disorders

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of posterior heel pain, which can present as tendinopathy, partial tear, or complete rupture of the Achilles tendon. Certain risk factors, such as quinolone use and hypercholesterolaemia, can predispose individuals to these disorders.

      Achilles tendinopathy typically presents with gradual onset of posterior heel pain that worsens following activity, along with morning pain and stiffness. Management usually involves supportive measures, such as simple analgesia, reduction in precipitating activities, and calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      On the other hand, Achilles tendon rupture should be suspected if the person experiences an audible ‘pop’ in the ankle, sudden onset significant pain in the calf or ankle, or the inability to walk or continue the sport. Simmond’s triad can be used to help exclude Achilles tendon rupture, and ultrasound is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected cases. An acute referral to an orthopaedic specialist is necessary following a suspected rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following is not a fundamental aspect of clinical governance?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not a fundamental aspect of clinical governance?

      Your Answer: Health promotion

      Explanation:

      Although health promotion is crucial, it falls outside the scope of clinical governance.

      Understanding Clinical Governance

      Clinical governance is a system that holds NHS organizations accountable for improving the quality of their services and ensuring high standards of care. It creates an environment that fosters clinical excellence and continuous improvement. This system is made up of several components, including education and training, clinical audit, clinical effectiveness, research and development, risk management, and openness. Each of these elements plays a crucial role in ensuring that healthcare providers deliver the best possible care to patients. By implementing clinical governance, NHS organizations can identify areas for improvement, measure their progress, and make changes that benefit patients and staff alike. With a focus on quality and safety, clinical governance is an essential part of modern healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A childminder brings a boy for his routine 18 month vaccinations. The boy's...

    Incorrect

    • A childminder brings a boy for his routine 18 month vaccinations. The boy's father is at work and has provided a letter stating that he consents for his son to be vaccinated. The practice nurse is unsure whether it is appropriate to administer the vaccine without the father being present. What should be the nurse's course of action?

      Your Answer: The mother or father must be present

      Correct Answer: The child can have the vaccine

      Explanation:

      Other Aspects of Immunisation

      Consent is an important aspect of immunisation, and the Greenbook provides useful information on this topic. Written consent is not required, and a person with parental responsibility may give consent on behalf of a child who is not competent to give or withhold consent. Parental responsibility is defined by the Children Act 1989, and unmarried fathers can acquire it if they are named on the child’s birth certificate. If parents disagree, immunisation cannot go ahead without specific court approval. A person with parental responsibility doesn’t need to be present at the time of immunisation, but the healthcare provider must be satisfied that consent has been given in advance.

      Vaccine storage is also crucial to ensure the effectiveness of immunisation. Vaccines should be stored in a fridge at +2ºC to +8ºC and kept in their original packaging to protect them from UV light. The temperature of the refrigerator should be monitored using a maximum-minimum thermometer and recorded daily. Ordinary domestic refrigerators should not be used, and surgeries should keep no more than 2 to 4 weeks’ supply of vaccines at any time. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that vaccines are stored properly and administered safely to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:

    TSH 0.05 mu/l
    Free...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:

      TSH 0.05 mu/l
      Free T4 19 pmol/l (range 9-25 pmol/l)
      Free T3 7 pmol/l (range 3-9 pmol/l)

      What are the potential outcomes if no treatment is given?

      Your Answer: Supraventricular arrhythmias and osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Subclinical Hyperthyroidism

      Subclinical hyperthyroidism is a condition that is becoming more recognized in the medical field. It is characterized by normal levels of free thyroxine and triiodothyronine, but with a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) that falls below the normal range, usually less than 0.1 mu/l. The condition is often caused by a multinodular goitre, particularly in elderly females, or excessive thyroxine intake.

      It is important to recognize subclinical hyperthyroidism because it can have negative effects on the cardiovascular system, such as atrial fibrillation, and on bone metabolism, leading to osteoporosis. It can also impact quality of life and increase the likelihood of dementia.

      Management of subclinical hyperthyroidism involves monitoring TSH levels, as they may revert to normal on their own. If levels remain persistently low, a therapeutic trial of low-dose antithyroid agents for approximately six months may be recommended to induce remission. It is important to address subclinical hyperthyroidism to prevent potential complications and improve overall health.

      Overall, understanding subclinical hyperthyroidism and its potential effects is crucial for proper management and prevention of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a six-month history of excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a six-month history of excessive tiredness, feeling thirsty, weight loss and passing a lot of urine. He has a strong family history of Type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      During examination, his blood pressure was found to be 125/72 mmHg and urinalysis showed ++glucose but no ketones. The abdomen was soft and tender with no masses. His body mass index is 32 kg/m². He is retired and doesn't drive.

      Blood tests arranged showed HbA1c at 58 mmol/mol.

      As per NICE guidelines, what is an important part of managing this patient with new-onset Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

      Your Answer: No need to discuss medications but repeat bloods in two to three months to monitor

      Correct Answer: CT abdomen

      Explanation:

      If a patient over the age of 60 presents with new-onset diabetes and weight loss, it is recommended to refer them for an urgent CT abdomen to rule out pancreatic cancer. In this case, the patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus based on symptoms and blood tests. While metformin can be initiated in primary care, it is important to prioritize ruling out pancreatic cancer as a potential cause for the diabetes. Medication options should be considered based on the patient’s history and blood tests, with gliclazide not being the best choice for this patient’s body mass index. Blood sugar monitoring devices are not typically necessary for type 2 diabetes mellitus patients, unless they are started on a medication that can cause hypoglycemia. Hba1c monitoring is usually sufficient. This information is based on guidelines from NICE CKS.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      294.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with primary atrophic hypothyroidism 6 months ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with primary atrophic hypothyroidism 6 months ago has undergone recent thyroid function tests (TFTs):

      TSH 10.8 mU/l
      Free T4 15 pmol/l

      She is currently prescribed 50mcg of levothyroxine daily. What is the interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: Her thyroxine dose needs to be increased

      Correct Answer: Poor compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      The high TSH level indicates a recent deficiency of thyroxine in her body. However, her free T4 level is normal. It is probable that she began taking thyroxine correctly just before the blood test, which would have restored the thyroxine level. Nevertheless, it takes longer for the TSH level to return to normal.

      Understanding Thyroid Function Tests

      Thyroid function tests are used to diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. The interpretation of these tests is usually straightforward. In cases of thyrotoxicosis, such as Graves’ disease, the TSH level will be low and the free T4 level will be high. In primary hypothyroidism, the TSH level will be high and the free T4 level will be low. In cases of secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and free T4 levels will be low, and replacement steroid therapy is required prior to thyroxine.

      Sick euthyroid syndrome, now referred to as non-thyroidal illness, is common in hospital inpatients and is characterized by low levels of both TSH and free T4. T3 levels are particularly low in these patients. Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Poor compliance with thyroxine can also result in high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Steroid therapy can result in low TSH levels and normal free T4 levels.

      It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      536.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 72-year-old man who had a left cataract surgery one week ago, presents...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man who had a left cataract surgery one week ago, presents with a one day history of intense dull, painful, red left eye with markedly reduced vision. He also has a left frontal headache and feels nauseated.

      Which one of the following would be the best next step in managing this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to an ophthalmologist for same day appointment

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Patients with Recent Eye Operations

      Patients who have undergone recent eye operations and present with symptoms such as dull, painful, red eye and significantly reduced vision should be treated as endophthalmitis until proven otherwise. It is crucial to refer these patients to an ophthalmologist immediately via phone to ensure prompt intra-vitreal antibiotics can be administered. Vitreous sampling should also be done for culture and sensitivity. Any delays in treatment may result in a worsened prognosis. Therefore, urgent referral is necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man attends for diabetic annual review. His current medication consists of metformin 500 mg TDS, pioglitazone 30 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His latest HbA1c blood test result is 66 mmol/mol. His renal function shows an eGFR of >90 ml/min.

      As part of his review his urine is dipstick tested and shows blood+. It is negative for glucose, protein, leucocytes, nitrites and ketones.

      The patient feels well and denies any urinary symptoms or frank haematuria. His blood pressure is 126/82 mmHg.

      You provide him with two urine containers and ask him to submit further samples in one and two weeks time for repeat testing. You also send a urine sample to the laboratory for microalbuminuria testing.

      The repeat tests show persisting blood+ only. His urine albumin:creatinine ratio is 1.9 and there is a leucocytosis on blood testing.

      What is the most appropriate approach in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Review his medications and refer urgently to a urologist

      Explanation:

      Managing Microscopic Haematuria

      Persistent microscopic haematuria should be considered clinically relevant if present on at least two out of three samples tested at weekly intervals. A dipstick showing ‘trace’ blood should be considered negative. Blood 1+ or more is significant. If a patient is aged 60 and over and has unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, referral to a Urologist as an urgent suspected cancer is advised according to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.

      It is important to note that certain medications, such as clopidogrel, aspirin, and warfarin, should not be attributed to microscopic haematuria. Additionally, if the sample is painless, it must have 1+ of blood or more on at least 2 out of 3 occasions to be considered abnormal.

      If a patient is on pioglitazone, which carries a small but significant increased risk of bladder cancer, it would be prudent to stop the medication at least until the microscopic haematuria has been investigated.

      In summary, managing microscopic haematuria involves careful consideration of the frequency and amount of blood present in the sample, as well as referral to a specialist for further investigation in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      90.1
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  • Question 30 - A 38-year-old woman who had a meningioma removed 3 months ago is experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman who had a meningioma removed 3 months ago is experiencing menorrhagia and severe bruising. She has also observed swelling of her gums and a gradual decline in energy and strength. Which medication is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Drugs and their Side Effects: A Comparison

      Craniotomies can increase the risk of seizures post-operatively, leading to prophylactic treatment with antiepileptics such as phenytoin. However, this drug is associated with gum hypertrophy and blood disorders. Carbamazepine may cause fatigue, bruising, and menorrhagia, but not gum hypertrophy. Sodium valproate can cause most symptoms but is not commonly associated with gum hypertrophy and should be avoided in women of reproductive age. Topiramate can cause all symptoms except gum hypertrophy, while oxcarbazepine rarely causes thrombocytopenia and doesn’t commonly lead to gum hypertrophy. Overall, phenytoin is the most likely drug causing the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (2/4) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/3) 67%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (2/4) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Genomic Medicine (2/2) 100%
Passmed