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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old male presents to the general practitioner with progressive dyspnoea, chronic cough...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presents to the general practitioner with progressive dyspnoea, chronic cough and wheeze. He has a 50-pack-year smoking history and a past medical history of atopy and is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler. Spirometry shows a forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) of 55% predicted and an FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of 0.49. The patient also keeps a peak flow diary, which shows a diurnal variation in readings.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Salmeterol and beclomethasone bronchodilator therapy

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      3574.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and dry cough. She denies fever or weight loss and there is no past medical history of note. She reports smoking 5 cigarettes a day for 3 years whilst at college but has since stopped. There are no known allergies.
      On examination, her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 94% on air. There are audible crackles at the lung bases with expiratory wheeze.
      She is referred for spirometry testing:
      Forced expiratory volume (FEV1): 60% predicted
      Forced vital capacity (FVC): 80% predicted
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Obstructive Lung Disease: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes emphysematous changes in the lungs due to the loss of elasticity. This disease presents similarly to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze. However, AAT deficiency typically affects young men between 30-40 years old and is exacerbated by smoking. Spirometry testing reveals an obstructive pattern of disease (FEV1/FVC < 0.7). Other potential diagnoses for obstructive lung disease include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, these are less likely in this patient’s case. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is caused by allergen exposure and presents with acute symptoms such as fever and weight loss. Kartagener’s syndrome is a genetic disease that leads to recurrent respiratory infections and bronchiectasis. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and typically affects individuals between 50-70 years old. In contrast to AAT deficiency, spirometry testing in fibrotic disease would show a result greater than 0.7 (FEV1/FVC > 0.7).

      In conclusion, AAT deficiency should be considered in the differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with obstructive lung disease, particularly in young men with a smoking history. Spirometry testing can help confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      36.6
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The British Thoracic Society recommends using macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin or erythromycin as empirical treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in both children and adults if first-line β-lactam antibiotics are ineffective or in cases of severe disease. Atypical infections are often diagnosed late in the illness, making early targeted therapy difficult. M. pneumoniae pneumonia tends to occur in outbreaks in the UK, so being aware of these outbreaks can help guide treatment. Benzylpenicillin is used to treat various infections, including throat infections, otitis media, and cellulitis. Cefuroxime is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat susceptible infections caused by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including respiratory tract infections, Lyme disease, and urinary tract infections. Rifampicin is used in combination with other drugs to treat brucellosis, Legionnaires’ disease, serious staphylococcal infections, endocarditis, and tuberculosis. Co-trimoxazole is used to treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and can be administered orally for mild-to-moderate pneumonia or intravenously in dual therapy with steroids for severe pneumonia. It can also be used for PCP prophylaxis in HIV-positive patients, with primary prophylaxis recommended for those with a CD4 count of <£200 and secondary prophylaxis essential after the first infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      34644.9
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  • Question 4 - Assuming that all of the patients have COPD, which one of the following...

    Correct

    • Assuming that all of the patients have COPD, which one of the following is eligible for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)?

      Your Answer: Non-smoker with PaO2 of 7.8kPa with secondary polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for Oxygen Therapy in Patients with Respiratory Conditions

      When assessing the need for oxygen therapy in patients with respiratory conditions, it is important to consider various factors. For instance, NICE recommends LTOT for patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8.0 kPa when stable, if they have comorbidities such as secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension. Additionally, patients with very severe or severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, raised jugular venous pressure, and oxygen saturations ≤92% when breathing air should also be assessed for oxygen therapy.

      However, it is important to note that a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa with pulmonary hypertension does not meet the criteria for oxygen therapy, while a non-smoker with FEV1 56% or a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 7.6 kPa and diabetes mellitus also do not meet the criteria for LTOT. On the other hand, a smoker with a PaO2 of 7.3 kPa may be considered for oxygen therapy, but it is important to ensure that the result has been checked twice and to warn the patient about the risks of smoking while on oxygen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      6646.7
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has been taking medication for psoriasis with arthropathy for a prolonged period. He has recently experienced a dry cough and worsening shortness of breath with minimal activity.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
      Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Probable Cause of Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Methotrexate is the correct answer as it is a well-known drug-related cause of pulmonary fibrosis, which is the probable cause of the patient’s symptoms. Hydroxychloroquine, azathioprine, ciclosporin, and penicillamine are not known to cause pulmonary fibrosis, although some of them have the potential to cause pneumonitis. Ciclosporin has been studied as a treatment for the disease, but it is not recommended by NICE. Therefore, it is important to identify the probable cause of pulmonary fibrosis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      17.3
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) has been experiencing a significant increase...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) has been experiencing a significant increase in productive cough with large amounts of sputum, occasional haemoptysis and difficulty breathing for the past few months.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Identifying Bronchiectasis in a Patient with Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that can lead to the development of bronchiectasis. Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by dilated, thick-walled bronchi, which can result from continual or recurrent infection and inflammation caused by thick, difficult to expectorate mucus in patients with CF. In contrast, bronchiolitis is an acute lower respiratory infection that occurs in children aged <2 years, while asthma typically presents with variable wheeze, cough, breathlessness, and chest tightness. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) typically develops in smokers aged >40, and interstitial lung disease generally affects patients aged >45 and is associated with persistent breathlessness on exertion and cough. Therefore, in a patient with CF presenting with symptoms such as cough, breathlessness, and chest infections, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      192.6
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years ago and is currently utilizing a salbutamol inhaler 100mcg as needed in combination with beclometasone dipropionate inhaler 200 mcg twice daily. However, her asthma remains poorly controlled. Upon examination, her chest is clear and she demonstrates proper inhaler technique. In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Increase beclometasone dipropionate to 400mcg bd

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      According to NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, the first step should be to add a LTRA rather than a LABA.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      161
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  • Question 8 - You assess a 27-year-old female patient with a medical history of asthma. She...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old female patient with a medical history of asthma. She is currently taking salbutamol 100 mcg 2 puffs as needed. However, she stopped taking her beclometasone dipropionate 400 mcg twice daily and salmeterol 50 mcg twice daily inhalers last week after discovering her pregnancy. She was worried about the potential harm to her unborn child. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Reduce beclometasone to 200mcg bd and continue salmeterol at the same dose

      Correct Answer: Reassure + restart beclometasone and salmeterol inhalers

      Explanation:

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      98.8
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  • Question 9 - An elderly man, aged 74, with metastatic small cell lung cancer has been...

    Correct

    • An elderly man, aged 74, with metastatic small cell lung cancer has been admitted to the hospice for symptom management. He is currently experiencing persistent hiccups that are difficult to control. What is the best course of action for managing this symptom?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Hiccups

      Hiccups can be a distressing symptom for patients receiving palliative care. To manage this symptom, healthcare professionals may prescribe medications such as chlorpromazine, which is licensed for the treatment of intractable hiccups. Other medications that may be used include haloperidol and gabapentin. In cases where there are hepatic lesions, dexamethasone may also be prescribed. It is important to note that the choice of medication will depend on the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management of hiccups can improve the patient’s quality of life and provide relief from discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      28.5
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  • Question 10 - Can you analyze the post-bronchodilator spirometry findings of a 54-year-old female who has...

    Correct

    • Can you analyze the post-bronchodilator spirometry findings of a 54-year-old female who has been experiencing gradual breathlessness?

      FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.60

      FEV1 percentage predicted: 60%

      What would be the suitable conclusion based on these outcomes?

      Your Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      COPD is a condition that should be considered in patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. To confirm a diagnosis of COPD, several investigations are recommended. These include post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, a full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and a calculation of body mass index (BMI).

      The severity of COPD is categorized based on the post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio. If the ratio is less than 70%, the patient is diagnosed with COPD. The severity of the condition is then determined based on the FEV1 value. Stage 1 is considered mild, and symptoms should be present to diagnose COPD in these patients. Stage 2 is moderate, Stage 3 is severe, and Stage 4 is very severe.

      It is important to note that measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. The grading system for COPD severity has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines. If the FEV1 is greater than 80% predicted but the post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7, the patient is classified as Stage 1 – mild.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      328.6
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  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. He has a medical history of COPD and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. Upon arrival, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37ºC, heart rate of 128/min, respiratory rate of 27/min, blood pressure of 80/43 mmHg, and GCS of 15. Physical examination reveals tenderness and bruising on the right side of his chest, but chest movements are equal. His neck veins are distended but do not change with breathing, and his trachea is central with distant and quiet heart sounds. Additionally, he has cuts and grazes on his hands and legs.

      What is the appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Needle decompression 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line

      Correct Answer: Pericardial needle aspiration

      Explanation:

      If a patient with chest wall trauma presents with elevated JVP, persistent hypotension, and tachycardia despite fluid resuscitation, cardiac tamponade should be considered. In such cases, pericardial needle aspiration is the correct course of action. Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, muffled (distant) heart sounds, and elevated JVP, is a characteristic feature of cardiac tamponade. Urgent aspiration of the pericardium is necessary to prevent further haemodynamic compromise and save the patient’s life. Although the patient may have associated rib fractures, managing the cardiac tamponade should take priority as it poses the greatest threat in this scenario. CT scan of the chest, chest drain insertion into the triangle of safety, and needle decompression 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line are not appropriate management options in this case.

      Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      32
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old lifelong smoker presents with worsening breathlessness, cough and sputum production over...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old lifelong smoker presents with worsening breathlessness, cough and sputum production over the past 3 months after being diagnosed with COPD after spirometry.

      He currently uses salbutamol and notes a relatively good response to this initially but not a long-lasting effect. His breathlessness is worse in the morning and night. He is not acutely unwell and does not report any cardiac symptoms.

      What would be the most appropriate next step for treatment in this patient with a history of smoking and worsening respiratory symptoms despite the use of salbutamol?

      Your Answer: LABA/ ICS inhaler

      Explanation:

      In cases where a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and exhibits asthma/steroid responsive features, the next step in treatment would be to add a LABA/ICS inhaler. This is the most appropriate option due to the presence of asthmatic features and indications of steroid responsiveness, such as a raised eosinophil count and diurnal variation. Azithromycin prophylaxis is not recommended at this point, as it is typically reserved for patients who have already optimized standard treatments and continue to experience exacerbations. While a LAMA inhaler may be introduced in the future as part of a triple therapy combination if control remains poor, it is not a stepwise increase in treatment and is less appropriate than a LABA/ICS inhaler in this case. Similarly, a LAMA/LABA inhaler would only be suitable if the patient did not exhibit asthmatic features or indications of steroid responsiveness. The use of theophylline is only recommended after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy, and should be done with the input of a respiratory specialist. Therefore, it is not an appropriate next step in treatment for this patient.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      122.7
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  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of breathlessness and a productive cough with green sputum.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option for him?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for COPD Exacerbations: Antibiotics and Corticosteroids

      COPD exacerbations are characterized by a sudden worsening of symptoms beyond the patient’s usual stable state. These symptoms include increased breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and changes in sputum color. To treat exacerbations, a combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids is often used.

      Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, should be prescribed for five days to patients experiencing a significant increase in breathlessness that interferes with daily activities. Antibiotics are recommended for exacerbations associated with purulent sputum, with first-line agents including amoxicillin, doxycycline, and clarithromycin.

      It is important to follow local microbiologist guidance when initiating empirical antibiotic treatment. Flucloxacillin and clindamycin are not useful in treating COPD exacerbations and are recommended for other conditions such as skin infections and bacterial vaginosis, respectively. Nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim are used for urinary tract infections and may be considered as first or second-line agents depending on antibiotic resistance and previous sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided pleuritic pain. On examination she has a temperature of 38.5 °C, a respiratory rate of 37/min, a blood pressure of 110/80 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Oxygen saturations are 95%. She has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the left lung base.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Cough and Fever: Bronchopneumonia vs. Other Conditions

      Bronchopneumonia is a common condition that presents with a cough and fever, along with other symptoms such as sputum production, dyspnea, and pleuritic pain. Examination findings may include decreased breath sounds and focal chest signs. A chest radiograph can confirm the diagnosis. In primary care, a CRB-65 score is used to assess mortality risk and determine where to treat the patient: one point each for acute confusion, respiratory rate (RR) ≥30/min, systolic blood pressure (BP) <90 mmHg or diastolic BP <60 mmHg, age >65 years).
      CRB-65 score Mortality risk (%) – Where to treat
      0 <1 At home
      1-2 1-10 Hospital advised, particularly score of 2
      3-4 >10 Hospital advised, may require stay in intensive therapy unit (ITU).

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, malignant mesothelioma, and tuberculosis. However, these conditions have distinct features that differentiate them from bronchopneumonia. For example, pneumothorax involves partial or full collapse of a lung, while pulmonary embolism results from obstruction of one or more of the pulmonary arteries. Malignant mesothelioma is a cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise.

      It is important to consider these differentials when evaluating a patient with cough and fever, and to use appropriate diagnostic tools to confirm the diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given...

    Incorrect

    • A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given birth to her first child. She experienced a sudden worsening of her asthma symptoms and was prescribed 30mg of oral prednisolone. She is now concerned about the safety of taking prednisolone while breastfeeding and wonders if she should switch to a different medication.

      Your Answer: Halve the dose to 15 mg prednisolone

      Correct Answer: It is safe to continue 30mg prednisolone and breastfeed

      Explanation:

      When a mother who is breastfeeding takes prednisolone, the amount of the drug that is transferred to the breast milk is minimal. Therefore, it is unlikely to have any negative impact on the baby.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain that started two hours ago. He has a history of lung cancer with bony metastases and has recently started treatment with erlotinib.

      His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC; oxygen saturation 92% on room air; respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute; heart rate 98 beats per minute; blood pressure 140/86 mmHg.

      A chest X-ray is performed, which shows no abnormalities. He is started on supplemental oxygen therapy, and a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is ordered.

      While waiting for the CTPA results, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Commence rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial management for patients with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE) is to ensure they are haemodynamically stable before starting anticoagulation. According to the latest NICE Guidelines (2020), a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban should be started unless there are contraindications. In this case, the patient is stable and can be started on rivaroxaban. It is important to note that starting prophylactic dose LMWH is not appropriate for suspected PE, and commencing warfarin at loading dose is also not recommended due to its delayed anticoagulant effects. Thrombolytic agents such as alteplase are only appropriate for haemodynamically unstable patients. Dabigatran is an alternative option for patients who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban, but it too requires a bridging dose of LMWH.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      35.4
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol dependence presents with fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol dependence presents with fever and malaise. On admission, a chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with early cavitation. What is the probable causative agent responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).

      In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old male, who migrated to the UK from India 8 years ago,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male, who migrated to the UK from India 8 years ago, presents to the respiratory clinic with a persistent cough and recent episodes of haemoptysis. The patient has never smoked and there are no notable findings on physical examination. A chest X-ray reveals a crescent of air partially outlining a cavitating mass in the right upper lobe. A CT scan of the chest is performed in both supine and prone positions, demonstrating movement of the mass within the cavity. The patient has not previously been screened for tuberculosis. What is the most probable cause of the mass?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      Cavitating lung lesions can be caused by various factors, including infections and malignancies. In this case, the absence of a smoking history makes small cell and squamous cell lung cancers less likely. Small cell lung cancers typically affect the hilar or peri-hilar areas, while squamous cell lung cancers may present with pulmonary symptoms or paraneoplastic syndromes.

      An aspergilloma is a fungal ball that forms in an existing lung cavity, often caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, lung cancer, or cystic fibrosis. While it may not cause any symptoms, it can lead to coughing and severe haemoptysis (coughing up blood). Diagnosis can be made through a chest x-ray, which will show a rounded opacity with a possible crescent sign, as well as high levels of Aspergillus precipitins. In some cases, a CT scan may also be necessary to confirm the presence of the aspergilloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a past medical history of depression and gout. The patient was initiated on lisinopril for hypertension two months ago, with gradual titration of the dose and monitoring of her urea and electrolytes. During today's visit, she reports a dry cough that has been progressively worsening over the past four weeks. The cough is described as really annoying and is causing sleep disturbance. The patient is a non-smoker, and a chest x-ray performed six weeks ago during an Emergency Department visit was normal. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding her antihypertensive medications?

      Your Answer: Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      A dry cough is a common side effect experienced by patients who begin taking an ACE inhibitor. However, in this case, the patient has been suffering from this symptom for four weeks and it is affecting her sleep. Therefore, it is advisable to switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.

      Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a type of medication that is commonly used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the development of a cough. Examples of these blockers include candesartan, losartan, and irbesartan. However, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with renovascular disease. Side-effects may include hypotension and hyperkalaemia.

      The mechanism of action for angiotensin II receptor blockers is to block the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. These blockers have been shown to reduce the progression of renal disease in patients with diabetic nephropathy. Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that losartan can reduce the mortality rates associated with CVA and IHD in hypertensive patients.

      Overall, angiotensin II receptor blockers are a viable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who cannot tolerate the latter. They have a proven track record of reducing the progression of renal disease and improving mortality rates in hypertensive patients. However, as with any medication, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles are heard in the lungs. Which of the following result sets would be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis?

      Your Answer: FVC - reduced, FEV1/FVC - normal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.

      Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.

      On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath,...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old retired ship-builder has a 6-month history of increasing shortness of breath, dull right-sided chest pain, loss of appetite and sweats. He is a non-smoker. Examination of his lungs reveals dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right base.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant mesothelioma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Mesothelioma from Other Lung Diseases

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and is almost always caused by exposure to asbestos. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, cough, fever, weight loss, and fatigue. A pleural effusion is also common in mesothelioma cases.

      Small-cell lung cancer, on the other hand, is highly aggressive and life expectancy is only weeks without treatment. Smoking is the major risk factor, although asbestos can also cause this type of lung cancer. Symptoms are similar to mesothelioma, but lack of smoking history and longer onset of symptoms point more towards mesothelioma.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is usually caused by smoking and presents with progressive shortness of breath, productive cough, frequent chest infections, and wheeze. Examination could reveal cyanosis, barrel chest, hyperresonance on percussion, poor air entry, and wheeze or coarse crackles. However, this presentation does not fit with COPD.

      Chronic thromoboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CPTH) can develop months or years after a large pulmonary embolism (PE) or after several episodes. Symptoms include shortness of breath, chest pain on exertion, and fatigue. The patient can go on to develop right heart failure, but this diagnosis would not explain the weight loss and sweats.

      Tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise. In this patient, the symptoms, along with history of asbestos exposure, are highly suggestive of mesothelioma rather than tuberculosis.

      In summary, distinguishing mesothelioma from other lung diseases requires careful consideration of symptoms, risk factors, and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman presents for her yearly asthma check-up. She reports experiencing her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents for her yearly asthma check-up. She reports experiencing her typical symptoms of chest tightness, wheezing, and shortness of breath about three times per week, usually at night. She also wakes up feeling wheezy once a week. At present, she only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed, which provides her with good relief. The patient has no medical history, takes no other medications, and has no allergies. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Switch to regular salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Add a budesonide inhaler

      Explanation:

      According to NICE (2017) guidelines, patients with asthma should be prescribed a SABA as the first step of treatment. However, if a patient experiences symptoms three or more times per week or night waking, they should also be prescribed a low-dose ICS inhaler as the second step of treatment. This is also necessary for patients who have had an acute exacerbation requiring oral corticosteroids in the past two years. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are not well-controlled with a SABA alone, and she experiences frequent symptoms and night waking. Therefore, she requires a low-dose ICS inhaler, and the only option available is budesonide.

      Adding a salmeterol inhaler is not appropriate at this stage, as LABAs are only used as the fourth step of treatment if a patient is not controlled with a SABA, low-dose ICS, and a trial of LTRAs. Similarly, adding montelukast and a beclomethasone inhaler is not appropriate, as LTRAs are only added if a patient is still not controlled on a low-dose ICS and a SABA. However, it may be appropriate to trial beclomethasone without montelukast.

      Continuing with the current salbutamol-only treatment is not appropriate, as the patient’s asthma is poorly controlled, which increases the risk of morbidity and mortality. Regular salbutamol has no role in the management of asthma, as it does not improve outcomes and may even worsen them by downregulating beta receptors that are important for bronchodilation.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 24 - For a young adult who experiences occasional mild bronchoconstriction symptoms without any identified...

    Incorrect

    • For a young adult who experiences occasional mild bronchoconstriction symptoms without any identified trigger or night-time symptoms and is not currently taking any medication, which drug therapy combination is appropriate? Please choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Budesonide inhaler

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler

      Explanation:

      Understanding Asthma Treatment: BTS/SIGN Guidelines

      Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The British Thoracic Society/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (BTS/SIGN) has developed a stepwise approach to managing asthma symptoms. The goal is to achieve complete control of symptoms while minimizing side effects from medication.

      Step 1 involves using a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) on an as-needed basis and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) regularly. If symptoms persist, step 2 involves adding a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) to the ICS. Step 3 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) if the LABA is ineffective. Step 4 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a fourth medication, such as a slow-release theophylline or a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist (LAMA). Step 5 involves using a daily steroid tablet in the lowest effective dose while maintaining high-dose ICS and considering other treatments to minimize the use of steroid tablets.

      It is important to note that the management of asthma in children under 5 years of age is different. Patients at step 4 or 5 should be referred for specialist care. Complete control of asthma symptoms is defined as no daytime or nighttime symptoms, no need for rescue medication, no asthma attacks, no limitations on activity, and normal lung function with minimal side effects from medication.

      In summary, the BTS/SIGN guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing asthma symptoms. By following these guidelines, patients can achieve complete control of their symptoms while minimizing the risk of side effects from medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following interventions is most likely to improve survival in individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following interventions is most likely to improve survival in individuals with COPD?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary rehabilitation

      Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy is one of the few interventions that has been proven to enhance survival in COPD following smoking cessation.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 26 - Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known side effect of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of deep vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      While the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer, it has been found to provide protection against ovarian and endometrial cancer. In fact, studies have shown that the pill can actually decrease the risk of ovarian cancer.

      Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.

      However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.

      It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is true when considering an exacerbation of chronic bronchitis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true when considering an exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in patients with COPD?

      Your Answer: The clinical symptoms are usually severe.

      Correct Answer: Moraxella catarrhalis is not commonly isolated on culture

      Explanation:

      Exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are a common occurrence and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial infections. In a bacterial acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the most common causative pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Since the introduction of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, the most common bacterial pathogen may be changing from Streptococcus pneumoniae to Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Chlamydia pneumoniae are also relatively common. An elevated white cell count may indicate exacerbation, but a lack of prominent leukocytosis is common. Clinical judgement is crucial, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) test may be useful, but it lags behind by 24-48 hours.

      Exacerbations of COPD are characterized by episodes of acutely increased dyspnea and cough, often with a change in the characteristics of the sputum. Despite fever and other signs and symptoms, the clinical presentation is mild to moderate in most cases. Patients with COPD often develop type 2 respiratory failure, which can escalate into respiratory acidosis, a potentially serious complication that may require non-invasive or invasive ventilation. An arterial blood gas analysis should be performed early in every patient presenting with a possible exacerbation of COPD.

      Treatment options for bacterial infections in exacerbations of COPD include trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septrin) combinations. However, resistance to this combination has been frequently reported in cases of infection with M. catarrhalis. The vast majority of cases of infection with M. catarrhalis are also penicillin-resistant due to their production of beta-lactamase. Co-amoxiclav is usually the antibiotic of choice, with macrolides being good alternatives.  In most cases, the initial antibiotic treatment is empirical and mainly guided by known local sensitivities and the patient’s previous history of exacerbations. Gram stain can be quite useful to identify broad classes of bacteria. If the gram stain is inconclusive, blood cultures should be performed if the patient is pyrexial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 38-year-old woman underwent bowel resection and 48 hours post-operation, she became breathless,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman underwent bowel resection and 48 hours post-operation, she became breathless, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and complained of pleuritic chest pain.
      Which of the following is the most definitive investigation to request?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiography (ECG)

      Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism: A Comparison

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available for PE, but not all are equally effective. Here, we compare the most commonly used tests and their suitability for diagnosing PE.

      CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard diagnostic test for PE. It is highly sensitive and specific, making it the most definitive investigation for PE. Patients with a history of recent surgery and subsequent symptoms pointing towards PE should undergo a CTPA.

      Electrocardiography (ECG) is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE. Although classic ECG changes may occur in some patients with PE, they are not specific to the condition and may also occur in individuals without PE.

      Chest radiograph is less definitive than CTPA for diagnosing PE. While it may show some abnormalities, many chest radiographs are normal in PE. Therefore, it is not a reliable test for diagnosing PE.

      Echocardiogram may show right-sided heart dysfunction in very large PEs, but it is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE and is not definitive in the investigation of PE.

      Positron emission tomography (PET)/CT of the chest is not recommended for the investigation of PE. It is a radioisotope functional imaging technique used in the imaging of tumours and neuroimaging, but not for diagnosing PE.

      In conclusion, CTPA is the most definitive diagnostic test for PE and should be used in patients with a high suspicion of the condition. Other tests may be used in conjunction with CTPA or in specific cases, but they are not as reliable or definitive as CTPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that his wife has been experiencing chills, night sweats, coughing up yellow phlegm, and is having difficulty answering basic questions.
      Which of the following is NOT part of the scoring evaluation for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatinine

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CURB65 Score and its Criteria

      The CURB65 score is a tool used to assess the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients. It consists of five criteria, including confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, age, and urea levels. However, creatinine does not play a role in this score.

      While the CURB65 score helps determine the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP, it is important to note that acute kidney injury and high creatinine levels may still be independent risk factors for morbidity and mortality.

      The criteria for the CURB65 score are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates that the patient can be managed at home, a score of 2-3 suggests hospital management with close monitoring, and a score of 4-5 indicates the need for admission and observation, potentially in an intensive therapy unit.

      Age greater than 65 years old is one of the defining criteria of the CURB65 score, while confusion, respiratory rate > 30 breaths per minute, and blood pressure systolic < 90 mmHg or diastolic < 60 mmHg are also included. Additionally, a blood urea nitrogen level higher than 7 mmol/l is another criterion. In summary, understanding the CURB65 score and its criteria is essential in determining the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP. However, it is important to consider other risk factors, such as creatinine levels, in predicting morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan

      Explanation:

      When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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