-
Question 1
Correct
-
An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin. Other members residing with her at the retirement home also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Scabies is due to an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei and most commonly presents with these symptoms. The organism resides in burrows in a pattern specifically affecting the interdigital spaces and the skin folds of the arms and legs. The infection spreads from one person to another, especially in populated communities, through close contact.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vascular inflammation.
Psoriasis rash is characterised by scaly plaques affecting the extensor surfaces of the body. Pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid both are bullous disorders of the skin. They may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions and there may be involvement in other sites; erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman came to the diabetes clinic for her regular follow up. The following results are obtained: Urine analysis: Protein+, HBA1c 86mmol/mol (10.0%). What is her average blood glucose level during the past 2 months?
Your Answer: 10
Correct Answer: 15
Explanation:The level of haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), also known as glycated haemoglobin, determines how well a patient’s blood glucose level has been controlled over the previous 8–12 weeks. Recent studies have been made to correlate between HbA1c and average glucose level.
Using the following formula: Average blood glucose (mmol/l) = (1.98 x 1 HbA1c) – 4.29 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A study is developed to assess a new mandible advancement device designed to reduce snoring. A 10 point scale was used to assess the severity of snoring before and after applying of the device by the respective partner. The number of the people involved in the study was 50. What test would you apply in this particular study?
Your Answer: Unpaired Student's t-test
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:Steps required in performing the Wilcoxon signed rank test:
1 State the null hypothesis and, in particular, the hypothesized value for comparison
2 Rank all observations in increasing order of magnitude, ignoring their sign. Ignore any observations that are equal to the hypothesized value. If two observations have the same magnitude, regardless of sign, then they are given an average ranking
3 Allocate a sign (+ or -) to each observation according to whether it is greater or less than the hypothesized value (as in the sign test)
4 Calculate:
R+ = sum of all positive ranks
R- = sum of all negative ranks
R = smaller of R+ and R-
5 Calculate an appropriate P value What makes this test the most appropriate for this study is that the data is non-parametric, paired and comes from the same population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Your Answer: Nodular sclerosing
Explanation:The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:
1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis
2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis
3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis
4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?
Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?
Your Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics
Explanation:Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female in her second week post delivery presents for review with her husband. He is worried due to her depressed mood and her poor interaction with the baby. He describes her mood three days ago being much different. She was talking in a rapid and incoherent fashion about the future. The mother denies any hallucinations but states that her child has been brought into a 'very bad world'. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Start fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission
Explanation:The given clinical scenario warrants urgent admission and psychiatric evaluation as the mother seems to be suffering from puerperal psychosis.
Post-partum mental health problems can range from the ‘baby-blues’ to puerperal psychosis.
The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale may be used to screen for depression:
A 10-item questionnaire, with a maximum score of 30
indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week
score > 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’
sensitivity and specificity > 90%. It includes a question about self-harmPostpartum psychosis has a complex multifactorial origin. Risk factors include a history of bipolar disorder, history of postpartum psychosis in a previous pregnancy, a family history of psychosis or bipolar disorder, a history of schizoaffective disorder or schizophrenia and discontinuation of psychiatric medications during pregnancy.
Incidence rate: 2.6 per 1000 births.
Onset usually within the first 2-3 weeks following birth
Symptoms of puerperal psychosis include confusion, lack of touch with reality, disorganized thought pattern and behaviour, odd effect, sleep disturbances, delusions, paranoia, appetite disturbances, a noticeable change in the level of functioning from baseline, hallucinations and suicidal or homicidal ideation.
The safety of the patient and new-born is of utmost importance, and thus, immediate hospitalization is warranted if there is a risk of harm to either one.
Cognitive-behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe – whilst they are secreted in breast milk it is not thought to be harmful to the infant
There is around a 20% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
All of the following are true regarding carcinoid syndrome, except?
Your Answer: Pharmacological blockade is clinically useful in only 10% of patients
Explanation:For medical management of carcinoid syndrome, there are two somatostatin analogues available, Octreotide and Lanreotide. Somatostatin is an amino acid peptide which is an inhibitory hormone, which is synthesized by paracrine cells located ubiquitously throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Both somatostatin analogues provide symptom relief in 50% to 70% of patients and biochemical response in 40% to 60% patients. Many studies have shown that Octreotide and Lanreotide also inhibit the proliferation of tumour cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?
Your Answer: Serous carcinoma of the ovary
Correct Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan. What should be the preferred anticoagulant?
Your Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
Explanation:Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.
Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.
Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
2. Decrease in protein S
3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legsManagement options include:
1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
2. Warfarin contraindicated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode of diarrhoea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome
Explanation:The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea in these cases as well.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor. You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions. On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm. Blood investigations reveal: Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5) WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11) Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400) C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Manic depressive psychosis
Correct Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis
Explanation:Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.
In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.
Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.
During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common.
Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms.Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 26 year old male from Eastern Europe has been experiencing night sweats, fevers, and decreased weight for several months. He also has a chronic cough which at times consists of blood. He is reviewed at the clinic and a calcified lesion was detected in his right lung with enlarged calcified right hilar lymph nodes. His leukocytes are just below normal range and there is a normochromic normocytic anaemia. Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) are found in one out of five sputum samples. Sputum is sent for extended culture. Which diagnosis fits best with his signs and symptoms?
Your Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Classic clinical features associated with active pulmonary TB are as follows (elderly individuals with TB may not display typical signs and symptoms):
– Cough
– Weight loss/anorexia
– Fever
– Night sweats
– Haemoptysis
– Chest pain (can also result from tuberculous acute pericarditis)
– FatigueTest:
Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture – Using sputum obtained from the patient.
AFB stain is quick but requires a very high organism load for positivity, as well as the expertise to read the stained sample. This test is more useful in patients with pulmonary disease.
Obtain a chest radiograph to evaluate for possible associated pulmonary findings. If chest radiography findings suggest TB and a sputum smear is positive for AFB, initiate treatment for TB. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a one-week history of dark urine and fatigue. One day before admission, she developed severe abdominal pain and abdominal distension. On examination, she has pallor, jaundice, an enlarged tender liver, and ascites. Her investigations show: Hb: 7.9 g/dL, WCC: 3.2 x 10^9/L, Plts: 89 x 10^9/L, MCV: 101 fL. Peripheral smear: Mild polychromasia, AST: 144 U/L, ALT: 130 U/L, Bilirubin: 54 μmol/L. Urine hemosiderin: ++, Urine urobilinogen +. Abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged liver, ascites, and absent flow in the hepatic veins. Which single test would you request to confirm the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) assay
Correct Answer: Flow cytometry for CD55 and CD59 expression
Explanation:The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) complicated by acute hepatic vein thrombosis (Budd–Chiari syndrome).
PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combination of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray of his left thigh revealed a fractured shaft of the left femur. He has a known history of opioid abuse. You are called to the ward to assess him after he becomes unwell. Which of the following clinical features are NOT compatible with a diagnosis of opioid withdrawal?
Your Answer: Yawning
Correct Answer: Hypothermia
Explanation:Among the options provided, hypothermia is not a symptom of opioid withdrawal.
Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include dysphoric mood, yawning, insomnia, muscle aches, lacrimation/rhinorrhoea, papillary dilatation, piloerection, fever, sweating, nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea.
If the patient is having an opioid withdrawal reaction, then give 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait about 60 min to determine its effect.COWS (Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale) assessment for opioid withdrawal is commonly used to determine the severity of opioid withdrawal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Your Answer: Cherry red skin
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:
It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:
Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)
Nausea and vomiting: 50%
Vertigo: 50%
Confusion: 30%
Subjective weakness: 20%
Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
Cherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.
Management
• 100% oxygen
• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
• COHb levels > 20-25%
• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
• Loss of consciousness
• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii
Explanation:The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Haemodialysis
Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI
Explanation:According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?
Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin
Explanation:The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.
In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.
In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from vomiting, but 36 hours later her condition worsens and her bloods reveal a corrected calcium of 2.0 mmol/l and serum potassium of 6.7 mmol/l. Which of the following options is the best way to avoid this problem from occurring?
Your Answer: Hydration and allopurinol pre-chemotherapy
Explanation:This case is most likely tumour lysis syndrome, often occurring immediately after starting chemotherapy because the tumour cells are killed and their contents are released into the bloodstream. After treating lymphomas or leukaemia, there is a sudden hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalaemia
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of cisplatin?
Your Answer: Causes cross-linking in DNA
Explanation:Cisplatin is a cytotoxic agent that acts by causing cross-linking in DNA. Its adverse effects include ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, etc.
The causative cytotoxic agents acting through the other aforementioned MOAs are as follows:
1. Doxorubicin: Stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.
2. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide): Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis.
3. Mercaptopurine (6-MP): Purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, decreasing purine synthesis.
4. Vincristine, vinblastine: Inhibits formation of microtubules.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 45 year old man presents with fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgias that have been occurring for a month. You suspect polyarteritis nodosa and arrange for some lab investigations. Which of the following abnormality would most likely be present?
Your Answer: Positive ANCA
Correct Answer: Elevated creatinine
Explanation:People with polyarteritis nodosa often exhibit anaemia of chronic disease. Leucocytosis and eosinophilia may also be present. ANCA is only rarely positive. As polyarteritis nodosa affects the kidneys as well, the creatinine is elevated in most cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old boy is referred by his GP to the neurology clinic with abnormal movements. His mother noticed that for the last year, the boy has been falling over more and more frequently. He has also been having increasingly slurred speech. These have been getting progressively worse. He has had recurrent chest infections in his childhood. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Correct Answer: Ataxic telangiectasia
Explanation:Ataxic telangiectasia is an inherited combined immunodeficiency disorder that is characterised by cerebellar ataxia and telangiectasia as seen in this child, as well as frequent infections as noted in this child’s history. The other differentials would not present with this clinical picture:
Friedreich’s ataxia and Infantile-onset spinocerebellar ataxia do not present with immune problems, whereas Cerebral palsy and Di-George Syndrome do not present with ataxia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?
Your Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism
Explanation:The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.
Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.
Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 20 year old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?
Your Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa
Explanation:In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).
Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A patient presented with acute onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also has evidence of sensory loss on the right hand side. There is evidence of Horner’s syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left hand side. Which of the following structures are involved?
Your Answer: Brain stem
Explanation:The patient is presenting with symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome or posterior inferior cerebellar artery syndrome, where the symptoms are due to an ischemia in the brainstem. The classical symptoms include contralateral sensory deficits of the trunk region paired with ipsilateral facial sensory deficits.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer: N saline should be started iv
Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered
Explanation:Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.
Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h.
Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary.
Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.
Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 43 year-old female artist with no past medical history presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of pins and needles in the lower limbs, and progressive walking difficulties. She states she had diarrhoea 1 week ago. On examination, there is a loss of pinprick sensation noted to the lower limbs from mid-thigh distally and in the upper limbs from MCP joints distally. There is bilateral weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, noted at 3/5, and knee flexion and extension weakness, noted at 4/5 bilaterally. Power in upper and lower limbs is otherwise normal. Knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is an immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection (classically Campylobacter jejuni). Characteristic features include progressive weakness of all four limbs, and it is classically ascending, affecting the lower extremities first. Sensory symptoms tend to be mild.
Functional neurological syndrome can be discounted due to presence of hard neurological signs. Multiple sclerosis can be excluded because of the presence of lower motor neuron signs and absence of upper motor neuron signs. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is the chronic form of Guillain-Barre syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes. Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome
Explanation:This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia presented with productive cough, fever with chills and loss of appetite for 4 days. On examination he was unwell and febrile with a temperature of 38.3. His blood pressure was 130/80mmHg and pulse rate was 140 bpm. Respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute. On auscultation there were crepitations over the left lower zone of his chest. His abdomen was soft and non-tender. ECG showed an irregular narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute management to treat his tachycardia?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
