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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes for her first trimester scan at 12 weeksâ gestation. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is feeling well. The ultrasound shows an intrauterine gestational sac with a fetal pole that corresponds to nine weeksâ gestation, but no fetal heart rate is detected. The patient had a stillbirth in her previous pregnancy at 27 weeks, and she underwent an extended course of psychotherapy to cope with the aftermath. What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Allow expectant management and review 14 days later
Correct Answer: Offer vaginal misoprostol
Explanation:Misoprostol is a synthetic E1 prostaglandin that can be used for various obstetric purposes, including medical termination of pregnancy, induction of labor, and medical management of miscarriage. It works by inducing contractions in the myometrium to expel the products of conception and ripening and dilating the cervix. However, it can cause side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, flatulence, and headaches, and in rare cases, uterine rupture. In the case of a miscarriage, expectant management is the first-line option, but medical or surgical management may be necessary in certain situations. Vaginal misoprostol is the most commonly used medical management, and patients should be informed of the potential risks and given appropriate pain relief and antiemetics. Surgical management is not first-line and carries risks such as perforation of the uterus, failure of the procedure, infection, bleeding, damage to the cervix, and venous thromboembolism. Expectant management should be offered and reviewed after 7-14 days, and if bleeding and pain settle, no further treatment is necessary. Mifepristone, an antiprogesterone medication, should not be used in the management of a missed or incomplete miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 19-year-old primiparous woman is being monitored on the labour ward after a midwife raised concerns about her CTG tracing. She is currently in active second stage labour for 2 hours and is using gas and air for pain relief. At 39 weeks gestation, her CTG shows a foetal heart rate of 90 bpm (110 - 160), variability of 15 bpm (5 - 25), and no decelerations. She is experiencing 6-7 contractions per 10 minutes (3 - 4) for the past 7 minutes. What is the most appropriate immediate next step?
Your Answer: Arrange a caesarean section within 30 minutes
Explanation:In the case of persistent foetal bradycardia with a higher than expected frequency of contractions, a category 1 caesarean section is necessary due to foetal compromise. This procedure should occur within 30 minutes. Therefore, the correct course of action is to arrange a caesarean section within this time frame. It is important to note that a category 2 caesarean section, which should occur within 75 minutes, is not appropriate in this situation as it is reserved for non-immediately life-threatening maternal or foetal compromise. Foetal blood sampling, placing a foetal scalp electrode, and taking an ECG of the mother are also not necessary in this scenario as urgent delivery is the priority.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the hospital due to experiencing contractions. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal birth. Despite being in good health, alert, and stable, her cardiotocography indicates that the baby's heart rate has increased from 164/min to 170/min after 10 minutes. As the woman is at full term, the obstetrician has decided to perform a caesarean section. What classification of caesarean section is this considered to be?
Your Answer: Category 1
Correct Answer: Category 2
Explanation:Category 2 caesarean sections are performed when there is a non-immediate life-threatening emergency concerning the mother or the baby. This may include an abnormality detected by cardiotocography that requires an emergency caesarean section within 75 minutes of the decision being made. It is not immediately life-threatening to either the mother or the baby.
Category 1 caesarean sections are performed in immediately life-threatening situations, such as haemodynamic instability of the mother.
Category 3 caesarean sections are not immediately life-threatening to the mother but are necessary for the non-immediate life-threatening condition of the baby, such as distress.
Category 4 caesarean sections are elective and may be chosen by the mother or recommended based on past medical history.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravid woman is rushed to the hospital due to preterm premature rupture of membranes. During assessment, it is observed that the cord is protruding below the level of the introitus. What is the most suitable immediate course of action to take while preparing for a caesarian section?
Your Answer: Push the cord back inside the vagina
Correct Answer: Insert a urinary catheter and fill the bladder with saline
Explanation:The most appropriate action for managing umbilical cord prolapse is to insert a urinary catheter and fill the bladder with saline, which can help lift the presenting part off the cord. Alternatively, the presenting part can be manually lifted to prevent cord compression. Applying suprapubic pressure is not the correct management for cord prolapse, as it is used for shoulder dystocia. Administering IV oxytocin is not recommended, as it can induce contractions. Tocolytics such as terbutaline or nifedipine can be used to relax the uterus and delay delivery while transferring the patient to theatre for a caesarian section. Episiotomy may be used in the management of shoulder dystocia, but it is not appropriate for cord prolapse. Pushing the cord back inside the vagina is not recommended, as it can cause vasospasm and lead to foetal hypoxia.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old multiparous woman arrives at 38 weeks gestation in active labour. She has recently moved from a low-income country and has not received any prenatal care or screening tests. The patient delivers a healthy 3.5kg baby boy vaginally. However, the newborn develops respiratory distress, fever, and tachycardia shortly after birth. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Group B septicaemia
Explanation:Newborn infants are most commonly affected by severe early-onset (< 7 days) infection caused by Group B streptococcus. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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You are assessing a pregnant woman who is currently 30 weeks along with her second child. Her first child, who is now 3 years old, had neonatal sepsis caused by Group B Streptococcus (GBS). The patient is inquiring about measures that can be taken to prevent a recurrence of this in her current pregnancy. What treatment will be necessary for the patient and/or baby?
Your Answer: Maternal intravenous (IV) antibiotics during labour
Explanation:To prevent bacterial sepsis in newborns, maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis should be provided to women who have previously given birth to a baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease. GBS is a common cause of sepsis in newborns, particularly in preterm infants with a birth weight of less than 1500 g. GBS is a commensal of the female genital tract and can cause urinary tract infections, septic abortion, and postpartum endometritis in mothers. In newborns, GBS can cause early or late infection, and antibiotics should be administered if signs of sepsis are present at birth.
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is 39 weeks pregnant with twins (dichorionic diamniotic). During labor, the midwife observes the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. The emergency button is pressed, and the woman is rushed for an emergency C-section. What is the most probable cause of umbilical cord prolapse?
Your Answer: Prolonged pregnancy
Correct Answer: Artificial amniotomy
Explanation:The most probable reason for umbilical cord prolapse is artificial rupture of membranes. Factors such as cephalic presentation, nulliparity, and prolonged pregnancy decrease the chances of cord prolapse. Prostaglandins do not significantly affect the risk of cord prolapse.
Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse
Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.
Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.
In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of intense itching that has developed over the past few weeks. She is currently 32 weeks pregnant and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. The patient reports that the itch is particularly bothersome on her palms and soles. She denies any recent illness or fever and states that she otherwise feels well. On examination, there is no evidence of a rash. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP. What should be discussed with the patient?
Your Answer: Cholestyramine
Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks
Explanation:When a pregnant woman presents with pruritus, the possibility of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy should be considered. This condition is characterized by elevated levels of bile acids and liver enzymes, and can increase the risk of stillbirth if the pregnancy continues. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is another potential diagnosis, but it typically presents with additional symptoms such as abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The recommended course of action is to induce labor at 37 weeks. Ursodeoxycholic acid is often used for symptom management, while dexamethasone should not be used as a first-line treatment due to concerns about its effects on the fetus. An MRCP is not necessary in this case, as the diagnosis is already supported by the patient’s history and blood test results. Elective caesarean is not an appropriate option for management.
Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.
The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.
It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is at 16 weeks gestation attends her antenatal appointment and is given the option to undergo the quadruple test for chromosomal disorders. After consenting, she has a blood test and is later informed that the results indicate a higher likelihood of Down's syndrome in the fetus. The patient is now invited to discuss the next course of action. What is the probable outcome of the quadruple test?
Your Answer: Decreased AFP, decreased oestriol, increased hCG, increased inhibin A
Explanation:The correct result for the quadruple test in a patient with Down’s syndrome is a decrease in AFP and oestriol, and an increase in hCG and inhibin A. This test is recommended by NICE for pregnant patients between 15-20 weeks gestation. If the screening test shows an increased risk, further diagnostic tests such as NIPT, amniocentesis, or chorionic villous sampling may be offered to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that a pattern of decreased AFP, decreased oestriol, decreased hCG, and normal inhibin A is suggestive of an increased risk of Edward’s syndrome. Increased AFP, increased oestriol, decreased hCG, and decreased inhibin A or any other combination of abnormal results may not be indicative of Down’s syndrome.
NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman 25 weeks into her first pregnancy comes in with vaginal bleeding. What distinguishing characteristic would suggest a diagnosis of placenta praevia instead of placenta abruption?
Your Answer: No pain
Explanation:Differentiating Placental Abruption from Placenta Praevia in Antepartum Haemorrhage
Antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of pregnancy but before delivery of the fetus. It is important to determine the cause of the bleeding to provide appropriate management. Two common causes of antepartum haemorrhage are placental abruption and placenta praevia.
Placental abruption is characterized by shock that is not proportional to the visible loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, a normal lie and presentation, and an absent or distressed fetal heart. Coagulation problems may also be present, and healthcare providers should be cautious of pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
On the other hand, placenta praevia is characterized by shock that is proportional to the visible loss, no pain, a uterus that is not tender, an abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before a large one. It is important to note that vaginal examination should not be performed in primary care for suspected antepartum haemorrhage, as women with placenta praevia may experience bleeding.
In summary, distinguishing between placental abruption and placenta praevia is crucial in managing antepartum haemorrhage. Healthcare providers should carefully assess the patient’s symptoms and perform appropriate diagnostic tests to determine the cause of the bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is on her second day postpartum, following a Caesarean section. She is taking regular paracetamol for pain around the wound site, which has not alleviate her symptoms.
She is breastfeeding and is asking whether there are any other safe analgesics to help with her pain.
What is the recommended medication for this patient's pain management?Your Answer: Indometacin
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Safe Pain Management Options for Breastfeeding Mothers
Breastfeeding mothers who experience pain may require medication to manage their symptoms. However, certain drugs can be harmful to both the mother and the baby. Here are some safe pain management options for breastfeeding mothers:
Ibuprofen: This is the drug of choice for managing pain in breastfeeding mothers. Although it is contraindicated in pregnancy, its transfer into breast milk is very low.
Codeine: This opioid analgesic can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided as the mother approaches delivery due to the risk of respiratory depression in the infant. It should also be avoided when breastfeeding, as it can cause symptoms of overdose in the baby.
Aspirin: While aspirin is used during pregnancy for prophylaxis, its use as an analgesic should be avoided during breastfeeding as it can cause Reye’s syndrome or impair neonatal platelet function.
Indometacin: This NSAID can be used for analgesia in breastfeeding, as the concentration that transfers into breast milk is relatively low.
Tramadol: Although only small amounts of this opioid analgesic are present in breast milk, the manufacturers advise avoidance due to the risk of respiratory depression in the baby.
It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication while breastfeeding. Additionally, mothers should be aware of any contraindications and potential side effects of the medication they are taking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits the GP clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and it is her first pregnancy. She desires an antiemetic to use during the first trimester so she can continue working. She is not experiencing dehydration, has no ketonuria, and can retain fluids. She has no previous medical conditions. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe promethazine
Explanation:Promethazine is the appropriate medication to prescribe for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, as it is a first-line antiemetic. Metoclopramide should be avoided due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects if used for more than 5 days. While alternative methods such as ginger and acupressure bands may be discussed, as the patient has requested medication, it is appropriate to prescribe promethazine. It is also important to support the patient’s decision to continue working if that is her preference.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and undergoing a cardiotocography (CTG) review. Her waters broke 10 hours ago and she has been in labour for 6 hours. This is her first pregnancy and it has been uncomplicated so far. Her Bishop score is 6.
The CTG findings are as follows:
- Foetal heart rate 120 bpm (110 - 160)
- Variability 10 bpm (5 - 25)
- Decelerations Late, with 50% of contractions absent
- Contractions 3 per 10 minutes (3 - 4)
These findings have been consistent for the past 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prepare for category 2 caesarean section
Explanation:Non-reassuring CTG findings during labour can indicate maternal or foetal compromise and require prompt action. Examples of abnormal findings include bradycardia, tachycardia, reduced variability, or prolonged deceleration. If these findings persist, the best course of action is to prepare for a category 2 caesarean section, which is for non-life-threatening maternal or foetal compromise. Augmenting contractions with syntocinon infusion is not recommended, as there is no evidence of its benefit. Increasing the frequency of CTG checks is not the best action, as the definitive action needed is to plan delivery. Tocolysis and a category 3 caesarean section are also not recommended, as they do not resolve the issue quickly enough. Foetal blood sampling is not routinely performed for non-reassuring CTG findings, but may be indicated for abnormal CTG findings to determine the health of the foetus.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 26-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has not felt the baby move for 2 hours. Her pregnancy has been normal, but her baby is slightly underweight for its gestational age. She visits the obstetric emergency walk-in unit at her nearby hospital.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use a handheld doppler to auscultate the fetal heart rate
Explanation:When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, the first step should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the fetal heartbeat. Most women start feeling the baby move around 20 weeks of gestation, and reduced movements at 30 weeks could indicate fetal distress. The Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology recommends that doctors attempt to listen to the fetal heart rate in any woman with reduced fetal movements. Checking a urine sample for a UTI is not a priority in this situation, and performing an ultrasound should only be done after confirming fetal viability with a handheld Doppler. Reassuring the woman that reduced movements are normal is incorrect, as it is abnormal at this stage of pregnancy. CTG is also not necessary until fetal viability has been confirmed with a Doppler.
Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements
Introduction:
Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.Physiology:
Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.Epidemiology:
Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.Investigations:
Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.Prognosis:
Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is struggling with breastfeeding; her nipples are sore, and she feels her son is not feeding enough, as he is fussy and crying for most of the day. Breast examination reveals bilateral breast engorgement, but no evidence of infection. The patient tells you she felt embarrassed to ask the nurse for advice when she had her first postnatal visit, as she did not want her to think she was incompetent as a mother.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a one-to-one appointment with a health visitor
Explanation:Management options for breastfeeding problems in new mothers
Breastfeeding is a common challenge for new mothers, and it is important to provide them with effective management options. The first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines is a one-to-one visit from a health visitor or breastfeeding specialist nurse. This allows for observation and advice on optimal positioning, milk expressing techniques, and pain management during breastfeeding. Information leaflets and national breastfeeding support organisation websites can supplement this training, but they are not as effective as one-to-one observation. Prescribing formula milk may be an option if there is evidence of significant weight loss in the baby. It is important to reassure the mother that establishing a good breastfeeding technique can take time, but active support should be provided to maximise the chances of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately
Explanation:Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for a routine visit and is found to have a blood pressure of 165/111 mmHg and ++proteinuria on urinalysis. Her doctor suspects pre-eclampsia and admits her to the obstetrics assessment unit. She has recently moved to the area and her medical records are not available. She is otherwise healthy and only uses blue and brown inhalers for her asthma, for which she recently completed a 5-day course of steroids after being hospitalized for a severe exacerbation. What medication should be used to manage her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is the recommended initial treatment for pre-eclampsia in women with severe asthma. The patient’s medical history indicates that she has severe asthma, making beta blockers like Labetalol unsuitable for her. Additionally, the use of Ramipril during pregnancy has been associated with a higher incidence of birth defects in infants.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 12 weeks gestation for Down's syndrome screening. She undergoes a screening test and the results show an increased b-hCG, decreased PAPP-A, and thickened nuchal translucency on ultrasound. The chance of Down's syndrome is calculated to be 1/80. The patient expresses her concern about the safety of the testing options for her and her baby. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT)
Explanation:NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with significant vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole. The uterus is evacuated, but she continues to feel unwell and her ÎČ-human chorionic gonadotrophin (ÎČ-HCG) levels continue to increase in the following weeks.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Choriocarcinoma
Explanation:Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a rare condition that includes hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor. GTD occurs when abnormal trophoblastic tissue forms instead of a fetus after fertilization. Hydatidiform moles are the most common form of GTD and are found in about 1 in every 1000 births. They often present with signs of early pregnancy failure, such as heavy vaginal bleeding. Treatment involves removing the abnormal tissue, and close monitoring of beta-HCG levels is necessary post-evacuation. If levels fail to drop, it may indicate an invasive mole or choriocarcinoma, which requires referral to a specialist center for further treatment. Pituitary and adrenal adenomas are other types of tumors that can produce hormones and cause various symptoms. In contrast, ectopic pregnancy is a separate condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old lady who is 30 weeks pregnant with her second child presents in a very anxious state. She has just been at a friendâs party and has discovered that one of the children there had just developed a rash suggesting chickenpox. She is terrified the disease is going to harm her unborn child. She cannot recall if she had chickenpox as a child. Her medical record does not shed any light on the situation, and it is unclear if she has had vaccination against varicella. She does not have a rash herself and feels well. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date.
What is the most appropriate next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgently test for varicella antibodies (varicella-zoster IgG)
Explanation:The patient’s immunity to varicella-zoster needs to be determined urgently by testing for varicella-zoster IgG antibodies in the blood, as she has had some exposure to chickenpox and is unsure of her immunity status. If antibodies are detected, she is considered immune and no further action is required, but she should seek medical care immediately if she develops a rash. Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin should only be administered to non-immune patients within 10 days of exposure. It is important to note that if the patient contracts chickenpox during pregnancy, there is a risk of fetal varicella syndrome if infected before 28 weeks’ gestation. Immunisation during pregnancy is not recommended, but the patient can receive the vaccine postpartum if found to be non-immune. It is safe to receive the vaccine while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman (G1P1) gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She notices some brown mucousy vaginal discharge with blood, which amounts to around 120ml of blood. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft but tender, and she has a GCS of 15, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate of 88 bpm, and temperature of 36.6C. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Provide sanitary pads
Explanation:After a vaginal delivery, the loss of blood exceeding 500 ml is referred to as postpartum haemorrhage.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to you, her primary care physician, with complaints of feeling sad and low since giving birth to her daughter 2 weeks ago. She reports difficulty sleeping and believes that her baby does not like her and that they are not bonding, despite breastfeeding. She has a strong support system, including the baby's father, and has no history of depression. She denies any thoughts of self-harm or substance abuse, and you do not believe the baby is in danger. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:The recommended first line treatment for moderate to severe depression in pregnancy or post-natal period for women without a history of severe depression is a high intensity psychological intervention, such as CBT, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. If this is not accepted or symptoms do not improve, an antidepressant such as a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) or tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) should be used. Mindfulness may be helpful for women with persistent subclinical depressive symptoms. Social services should only be involved if there is a risk to someone in the household. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against using zopiclone while breastfeeding as it is present in breast milk.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops a visual field defect and severe headache. What are the most probable complications that may arise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sheehanâs syndrome
Explanation:Peripartum Complications: Sheehan’s Syndrome, Eclampsia, and Other Causes of Headache and Visual Disturbances
Peripartum complications can present with a variety of symptoms, including headache and visual disturbances. Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results from pituitary infarction due to haemorrhagic shock during labour and the peripartum period. It typically affects the anterior pituitary, leading to hormonal deficiencies that may present acutely or more indolently. Hormone replacement is the mainstay of treatment.
Eclampsia is another peripartum complication that can cause high blood pressure and seizures, sometimes leading to loss of consciousness. It requires urgent medical attention.
Other causes of headache and visual disturbances in the peripartum period include subarachnoid haemorrhage, which may present with sudden onset headache and visual disturbances, and extradural haemorrhage, which is typically found in trauma adjacent to fractures of the temporal bone. Occipital haemorrhagic infarction can also cause these symptoms, but a visual field defect is more suggestive of Sheehan’s syndrome.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to promptly evaluate and manage them to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with her partner. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and G2P1. Her pregnancy has been progressing normally without concerns raised at her antenatal appointments. However, she experienced a sudden gush of fluid earlier today, which soaked her trousers. On examination, fluid is seen pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix, and a swab of the fluid returns a positive partosure. The patient is afebrile and has no other abnormal vital signs. What is the most appropriate management for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IM corticosteroids
Explanation:Antenatal corticosteroids should be given in cases of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the neonate. IM corticosteroids are the appropriate form of administration for this purpose. Cervical cerclage is not recommended in this scenario as it is contraindicated in cases of preterm prelabour rupture of membranes. Expectant management is also not the best option as it increases the risk of intraamniotic infection. Indomethacin tocolysis is not recommended as it can cause complications such as ductus arteriosus closure and oligohydramnios. Nifedipine is the preferred medication for delaying labour in this scenario.
Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.
The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old primiparous woman, who is a smoker and has been diagnosed with pre-eclampsia, presents to the Antenatal Assessment Unit at 34 weeksâ gestation with sudden-onset lower abdominal pain, associated with a small amount of dark red vaginal bleeding. The pain has gradually worsened and is constant. On examination, she looks a bit pale; her heart rate is 106 bpm, and blood pressure 104/86 mmHg. The uterus feels hard; she is tender on abdominal examination, and there is some brown discharge on the pad.
What is the likely cause of this woman's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Revealed placental abruption
Explanation:Antepartum Haemorrhage: Causes and Symptoms
Antepartum haemorrhage is a condition where a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding during the second half of pregnancy. There are several causes of antepartum haemorrhage, including placental abruption, concealed placental abruption, placenta accreta, placenta praevia, and premature labour.
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine lining, leading to bleeding. It can be revealed, with vaginal bleeding, or concealed, without vaginal bleeding. Risk factors for placental abruption include maternal hypertension, smoking, cocaine use, trauma, and bleeding post-procedures.
Concealed placental abruption is usually an incidental finding, with the mother recalling an episode of pain without vaginal bleeding. Placenta accreta occurs when part of the placenta grows into the myometrium, causing severe intrapartum and postpartum haemorrhage. Placenta praevia is a low-lying placenta that can cause painless vaginal bleeding and requires an elective Caesarean section. Premature labour is another common cause of antepartum bleeding associated with abdominal pain, with cyclical pain and variable vaginal bleeding.
It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing antepartum haemorrhage, as it can lead to significant maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. Women with placenta praevia are advised to attend the Antenatal Unit for assessment and monitoring every time they have bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes during her second pregnancy. Despite progressing well, she has been experiencing persistent nausea and vomiting throughout her pregnancy. In her previous pregnancy, she tried taking metformin but it worsened her symptoms and caused frequent loose stools. As a result, she refuses to take metformin again. She has made changes to her diet and lifestyle for the past two weeks, but her blood results show little improvement. Her fasting plasma glucose levels are 6.8 mmol/L, which is still above the normal range of <5.3mmol/L. What should be the next step in managing her gestational diabetes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced as the next step. This is in accordance with current NICE guidelines, which recommend that pregnant women with any form of diabetes aim for plasma glucose levels below specific target values. Commencing anti-emetic medications or metformin would not be the most appropriate options in this scenario, as the former would not address the underlying issue of gestational diabetes and the latter is not acceptable to the patient. Additionally, offering a 2 week trial of diet and exercise changes would not be appropriate at this stage, as medication is now required. However, this may be an option for patients with a fasting plasma glucose of between 6.0 and 6.9 mmol/L without complications, who can be offered a trial of diet and exercise for 2 weeks before medication is considered if blood glucose targets are not met.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of back pain uses paracetamol and ibuprofen regularly for pain relief. She and her partner are planning to have a baby, and would like to know about the safety of analgesics during pregnancy.
What is the best statement regarding the safety of analgesics in pregnancy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate can be used at low doses if needed
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Painkillers in Pregnancy
Pregnancy can be a challenging time for women, especially when it comes to managing pain. While some painkillers are safe to use during pregnancy, others can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used painkillers and their safety in pregnancy.
Codeine phosphate: Low doses of codeine phosphate are generally safe to use during pregnancy. However, if taken closer to delivery, the neonate should be observed for signs of respiratory depression, drowsiness, or opioid withdrawal.
Naproxen: Naproxen belongs to the family of NSAIDs and is contraindicated in pregnancy. However, it is safe to use in the postpartum period and by women who are breastfeeding.
Ibuprofen: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs should be avoided during pregnancy as they are associated with teratogenic effects and other congenital problems.
Paracetamol: Paracetamol is the analgesic of choice in pregnancy and is safe to use within the recommended limits. However, patients should be cautioned against taking paracetamol and low-dose co-codamol concurrently.
Tramadol: Tramadol should be avoided in pregnancy as it has been shown to be embryotoxic in animal models.
In conclusion, it is important for pregnant women to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any painkillers to ensure the safety of both mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 28-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with epilepsy and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has just given birth to a baby boy and is uncertain about breastfeeding. Samantha is worried that her medication may harm her baby if she continues to breastfeed. What guidance would you offer Samantha regarding her antiepileptic medication and breastfeeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue carbamazepine, continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Mothers often have concerns about the use of antiepileptic medication during and after pregnancy, particularly when it comes to breastfeeding. However, according to a comprehensive document released by the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, nearly all antiepileptic drugs are safe to use while breastfeeding. This is because only negligible amounts of the medication are passed to the baby through breast milk, and studies have not shown any negative impact on the child’s cognitive development. Therefore, it is recommended that mothers continue their current antiepileptic regime and are encouraged to breastfeed. It is important to note that stopping the medication without consulting a neurologist can lead to further seizures.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.
A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset abdominal pain and some very light vaginal bleeding which has subsequently stopped. On examination her abdomen is tense and tender. The mother says she has not noticed any reduction in foetal movements. Her vital signs are as follows:
HR 105 bpm
BP 120/80 mmHg
Temperature 37.1ÂșC
Respiratory Rate 20 min-1
Cardiotocography (CTG) was performed and showed a foetal heart rate of 140 bpm, with beat-beat variability of 5-30 bpm and 3 accelerations were seen in a 20 minute period.
Ultrasound demonstrates normal foetal biophysical profile and liquor volume. There is a small collection of retroplacental blood.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for IV corticosteroids and monitor maternal and foetal condition
Explanation:In the case of a small placental abruption without signs of foetal distress and a gestational age of less than 36 weeks, the recommended management is to admit the patient and administer steroids. While vitamin K can aid in blood clotting, it is not the optimal choice in this situation. A caesarean section is not immediately necessary as the foetus is not in distress and is under 36 weeks. Antibiotics are not indicated as there are no signs of infection and the patient is not experiencing a fever. Continuous monitoring with CTG for 24 hours is not necessary if the foetus is not displaying any distress on initial presentation and the mother has not reported a decrease in foetal movements.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications
Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.
Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.
In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient visits the antenatal clinic after her 20-week scan reveals a low-lying placenta. She is concerned about what this means and if any action needs to be taken. This is her first pregnancy, and she has not experienced any complications thus far. She has no known medical conditions and does not take any regular medications. The patient mentions that her mother had a placenta-related issue that resulted in significant bleeding, and she is worried that the same may happen to her. What steps would you take to assist this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rescan at 32 weeks
Explanation:In the event that a low-lying placenta is detected during the 20-week scan, it is recommended to undergo a follow-up scan at 32 weeks for further evaluation.
Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.
In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.
The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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