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  • Question 1 - A 2-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his father who...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his father who is concerned as the child has developed a rash. The father tells you the rash started yesterday evening but only affected the face and behind the ears. Dad thought the child had a cold as he has had a dry cough, itchy eyes, and runny nose for the past 2-3 days but became concerned when the rash and high fever appeared. On examination, you note the child has a widespread rash to the trunk, limbs, and face which is maculopapular in some areas while the erythema is more confluent in other areas. There are small blue-white spots seen to the buccal mucosa. The child's temperature is 39ÂșC. You note the child has not received any childhood vaccines.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      The rash in measles typically begins as a maculopapular rash on the face and behind the ears. Within 24-36 hours, it spreads to the trunk and limbs. The rash may merge together, especially on the face, creating a confluent appearance. Usually, the rash appears along with a high fever. Before the rash appears, there are usually symptoms of a cold for 2-3 days. Koplik spots, which are blue-white spots on the inside of the cheeks (usually seen opposite the molars), can be observed 1-2 days before the rash appears and can be detected during a mouth examination.

      It is important to note that the rash in rubella infection is similar to that of measles. However, there are two key differences: the presence of Koplik spots and a high fever (>38.3ÂșC) are characteristic of measles. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, causes a rash that resembles a slapped cheek.

      Further Reading:

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.

      Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.

      The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.

      In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.

      When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.

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      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 2 - You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student provides a tentative diagnosis of roseola. What is a frequent complication linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsions

      Explanation:

      In patients with roseola, the fever occurs before the rash appears. Therefore, once the rash is present, it is unlikely for the child to experience a febrile convulsion.

      Further Reading:

      Roseola infantum, also known as roseola, exanthem subitum, or sixth disease, is a common disease that affects infants. It is primarily caused by the human herpesvirus 6B (HHV6B) and less commonly by human herpesvirus 7 (HHV7). Many cases of roseola are asymptomatic, and the disease is typically spread through saliva from an asymptomatic infected individual. The incubation period for roseola is around 10 days.

      Roseola is most commonly seen in children between 6 months and 3 years of age, and studies have shown that as many as 85% of children will have had roseola by the age of 1 year. The clinical features of roseola include a high fever lasting for 2-5 days, accompanied by upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) signs such as rhinorrhea, sinus congestion, sore throat, and cough. After the fever subsides, a maculopapular rash appears, characterized by rose-pink papules on the trunk that may spread to the extremities. The rash is non-itchy and painless and can last from a few hours to a few days. Around 2/3 of patients may also have erythematous papules, known as Nagayama spots, on the soft palate and uvula. Febrile convulsions occur in approximately 10-15% of cases, and diarrhea is commonly seen.

      Management of roseola is usually conservative, with rest, maintaining adequate fluid intake, and taking paracetamol for fever being the main recommendations. The disease is typically mild and self-limiting. However, complications can arise from HHV6 infection, including febrile convulsions, aseptic meningitis, and hepatitis.

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      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 3 - A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They are worried because the child has had a high fever for the past 24 hours and has developed noisy breathing and a change in her voice in the past few hours. They inform you that the child has been refusing to drink fluids orally due to a sore throat for the past few hours as well. The parents mention that the child has never had a serious illness before. You observe that the child has not received any vaccinations as the parents have concerns about potential vaccine-related diseases later in life. During the assessment, the child is sitting upright, leaning forward on her arms, and drooling. You can hear audible stridor. The child's vital signs are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.9ÂșC
      Pulse: 155 bpm
      Respiration rate: 40 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis symptoms typically appear suddenly, usually within a day. This patient’s symptoms align with those of epiglottitis and his vaccination status puts him at a higher risk. Common clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, a sore throat, a change in voice (often described as a muffled or hot potato voice), painful swallowing, a specific positioning called tripod positioning, excessive drooling, and stridor.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

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  • Question 4 - An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The parents inform you that the patient has had a fever with temperatures ranging between 37.5 and 38.1ÂșC and a runny nose for a few days before developing a barking cough. During examination, you observe stridor at rest and moderate sternal recession (retractions). The child appears lethargic and does not consistently respond to verbal stimuli. Oxygen saturation levels are 94% on air, and there is marked bilateral decreased air entry upon auscultation of the chest. The child's mother inquires if this could be croup.

      Your consultant requests you to calculate the Westley score for this child. What is the correct score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 11

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

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      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 5 - You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has been examined by...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student has made a preliminary diagnosis of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP). What is a characteristic symptom commonly associated with HSP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with HSP commonly experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, gastrointestinal issues like nausea and diarrhea, joint inflammation in multiple joints (polyarthritis), and involvement of the kidneys.

      Further Reading:

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is commonly seen in children following an infection, with 90% of cases occurring in children under 10 years of age. The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal upset, and polyarthritis. Renal involvement occurs in approximately 50% of cases, with renal impairment typically occurring within 1 day to 1 month after the onset of other symptoms. However, renal impairment is usually mild and self-limiting, although 10% of cases may have serious renal impairment at presentation and 1% may progress to end-stage kidney failure long term. Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, and treatment for nephropathy is generally supportive. The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, with the condition typically resolving fully within 4 weeks, especially in children without renal involvement. However, around 1/3rd of patients may experience relapses, which can occur for several months.

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  • Question 6 - A 6 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a 4 cm swelling to the left side of the forehead. The patient's father tells you the child's sister accidentally hit her with a toy and it struck her in the head. There was no loss of consciousness, no vomiting, the child cried immediately and is behaving normally. You diagnose a minor head injury. The patient indicates they have slight discomfort on the RCEM pain scoring tool. Which of the following is the most suitable pain relief to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen 10 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The recommended first line analgesics for mild pain are oral or rectal paracetamol and oral ibuprofen. When it comes to treating mild pain in children, it is best to consider either giving a loading dose of oral/rectal paracetamol at a rate of 20 mg/kg, followed by a maintenance dose of 15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours. Alternatively, oral ibuprofen can be administered at a rate of 10 mg/kg every 6-8 hours.

      Further Reading:

      Assessment and alleviation of pain should be a priority when treating ill and injured children, according to the RCEM QEC standards. These standards state that all children attending the Emergency Department should receive analgesia for moderate and severe pain within 20 minutes of arrival. The effectiveness of the analgesia should be re-evaluated within 60 minutes of receiving the first dose. Additionally, patients in moderate pain should be offered oral analgesia at triage or assessment.

      Pain assessment in children should take into account their age. Visual analogue pain scales are commonly used, and the RCEM has developed its own version of this. Other indicators of pain, such as crying, limping, and holding or not-moving limbs, should also be observed and utilized in the pain assessment.

      Managing pain in children involves a combination of psychological strategies, non-pharmacological adjuncts, and pharmacological methods. Psychological strategies include involving parents, providing cuddles, and utilizing child-friendly environments with toys. Explanation and reassurance are also important in building trust. Distraction with stories, toys, and activities can help divert the child’s attention from the pain.

      Non-pharmacological adjuncts for pain relief in children include limb immobilization with slings, plasters, or splints, as well as dressings and other treatments such as reduction of dislocation or trephine subungual hematoma.

      Pharmacological methods for pain relief in children include the use of anesthetics, analgesics, and sedation. Topical anesthetics, such as lidocaine with prilocaine cream, tetracaine gel, or ethyl chloride spray, should be considered for children who are likely to require venesection or placement of an intravenous cannula.

      Procedural sedation in children often utilizes either ketamine or midazolam. When administering analgesia, the analgesic ladder should be followed as recommended by the RCEM.

      Overall, effective pain management in children requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and psychological aspects of pain. By prioritizing pain assessment and providing appropriate pain relief, healthcare professionals can help alleviate the suffering of ill and injured children.

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  • Question 7 - A 6 month old infant is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old infant is brought to the emergency department by his father due to a 24 hour history of fever, fussiness, and crying. On examination, the infant is alert and responsive, with a temperature of 38.3ÂșC. The capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds, and there is mild redness in the throat. The left tympanic membrane appears red and bulging, while the chest is clear and the abdomen is soft with no rashes.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit under paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a child under 3 months old has a temperature of 38ÂșC or higher, it is considered a red flag according to the NICE traffic light system. This indicates that the child may have acute otitis media and it is recommended that they be admitted for further evaluation and treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.

      Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.

      Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

      Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.

      The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).

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  • Question 8 - A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that she hasn't been feeling well for the past couple of days, complaining of fatigue, nausea, and excessive thirst. Today, the parents decided to bring her to the ED as she has become extremely lethargic. Upon examination, you notice that the patient appears pale and has cool extremities. The triage observations and tests are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 85/50
      Pulse: 145 bpm
      Respiration rate: 30 bpm
      Oxygen saturations: 94% on air
      Capillary blood glucose: 26 mmol/l

      Which of the following actions should be prioritized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer 0.9% sodium chloride fluid bolus of 10 ml/kg

      Explanation:

      When children with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) show signs of shock such as low blood pressure, fast heart rate, and poor peripheral perfusion, it is important for clinicians to consider DKA as a possible cause. In these cases, the initial treatment should involve giving a fluid bolus of 10 ml/kg to help stabilize the patient.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

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      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 9 - A 6 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned new parents. They inform you that for the past couple of days, the baby has been vomiting forcefully after each feeding and is not urinating as frequently as usual. The parents are anxious as the baby was delivered via C-section at full term and is solely bottle fed. During the examination, you detect a lump in the upper abdomen.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis is characterized by recurring episodes of projectile vomiting and the presence of a mass in the upper abdomen, often described as an olive. This patient exhibits clinical features that align with pyloric stenosis and possesses several common risk factors, including being a male, being the firstborn son, being bottle-fed, and being delivered via C-section. It is important to note that intestinal atresia is typically diagnosed either during pregnancy or shortly after birth.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

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  • Question 10 - A 6 year old is brought to the emergency department due to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old is brought to the emergency department due to the sudden appearance of a widespread maculopapular rash. The child's parents express concern as they recently visited relatives in Nigeria where there was a measles outbreak. The symptoms are indicative of measles. What is a potentially severe complication associated with measles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

      Explanation:

      SSPE, also known as subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, is a serious and potentially deadly complication that can occur as a result of measles. While pneumonia and otitis media are commonly seen complications of measles, SSPE is much rarer. This condition involves inflammation of the brain and is believed to occur either due to the reactivation of the measles virus or an abnormal immune response to the virus.

      Further Reading:

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.

      Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.

      The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.

      In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.

      When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.

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      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in to Resus by an ambulance with sirens...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in to Resus by an ambulance with sirens blaring. She has been complaining of a severe headache all morning and developed a high fever and a rash of small red spots. She is now barely responsive, and the medical team decides to intubate her due to her decreased level of consciousness. Urgent action is necessary, and no one in the Emergency Department has had time to put on personal protective equipment. A diagnosis of meningococcal sepsis is later confirmed.

      Who will require post-exposure prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The intubating clinician

      Explanation:

      The risk of contracting meningococcal disease from a close contact is low. However, the risk is highest within the first seven days after the disease is diagnosed and decreases significantly afterwards.

      Prophylaxis or vaccination for close contacts is typically organized by secondary care. It is recommended for the following individuals, regardless of their meningococcal vaccination status:

      – People who have had prolonged close contact with the infected person in a household-type setting during the seven days prior to the onset of illness. This includes individuals living or sleeping in the same household, students in the same dormitory, partners, or university students sharing a kitchen in a hall of residence.

      – People who have had brief close contact with the infected person, but only if they have been directly exposed to large particle droplets or secretions from the respiratory tract of the case around the time of admission to the hospital.

      Antibiotic prophylaxis should be administered as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours after the diagnosis of the index case.

      Post-exposure prophylaxis is recommended for healthcare staff who have been exposed to direct nasopharyngeal secretions (without wearing a mask or personal protective equipment) from a known or highly probable case. This includes situations such as mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, airway management (suction/intubation), or prolonged close care within 1 meter of the patient who has been coughing or sneezing droplet secretions.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of close contacts of patients with meningococcal disease.

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  • Question 12 - A 10 year old is brought into the emergency department by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old is brought into the emergency department by his parents as they are concerned he has become lethargic over the past 4-6 hours. They inform you that the patient started complaining of feeling unwell last night before going to bed and had been urinating frequently.

      After conducting an assessment, you diagnose the patient with diabetic ketoacidosis and initiate fluids and an insulin infusion. 4 hours later, you are called to reassess the patient as he had been experiencing headaches and is now becoming increasingly drowsy. During the examination, you observe that the patient is grunting and has had an episode of urinary incontinence. What complication is likely to have developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral oedema

      Explanation:

      During the examination, the child is observed to be grunting and has had an episode of urinary incontinence. The question asks about the likely complication that has developed.

      The most likely complication in this case is cerebral edema. Cerebral edema refers to the swelling of the brain due to an increase in fluid accumulation. It is a severe and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetic ketoacidosis, particularly in children. The symptoms observed, such as headaches, increasing drowsiness, grunting, and urinary incontinence, are indicative of cerebral edema.

      Cerebral edema can occur due to various factors, including the rapid correction of hyperglycemia and dehydration, as well as the release of inflammatory mediators. It is crucial to recognize and manage cerebral edema promptly as it can lead to increased intracranial pressure and neurological deterioration.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

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  • Question 13 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an episode of fainting at home. The parents noticed that the girl suddenly collapsed and appeared pale. After lifting her up, she quickly regained consciousness and her color returned. After a thorough examination and investigation by the pediatric team, a diagnosis of a brief resolved unexplained event (BRUE) is made.
      Which of the following is NOT a recognized risk factor for a BRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High birth weight

      Explanation:

      The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing ALTE with a new term called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).

      An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.

      On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is characterized by being brief (lasting less than 1 minute, typically 2-30 seconds), resolved (the infant must have returned to their baseline state), and not explained by any identifiable medical condition. It must also exhibit at least one of the following symptoms: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.

      To diagnose a BRUE, a thorough history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and no explanation for the event should be found. Additionally, there are several risk factors associated with the development of a BRUE, including prematurity, age less than ten weeks, recent anesthesia, airway or maxillofacial abnormalities, history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, previous apnoeic episode, recent upper respiratory tract infection. Low birth weight may also be a risk factor, while high birth weight has no recognized association with BRUEs.

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  • Question 14 - A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child's parents inform you that the patient has had a cough and a runny nose for about 2-3 days, but in the past 24 hours, he has developed a fever and started coughing up large quantities of green mucus. You suspect bacterial tracheitis. What is the most probable causative agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

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  • Question 15 - A 5 year old male is brought to the emergency department as his...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old male is brought to the emergency department as his parents are worried about his intermittent headache and fever for 2 days and the recent appearance of a rash. Upon examining the rash (shown below), you diagnose the patient with chickenpox. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge with self care advice

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox in children is usually managed conservatively. In this case, the patient has chickenpox but does not show any signs of serious illness. The parents should be given advice on keeping the child out of school, ensuring they stay hydrated, and providing relief for their symptoms. It is important to provide appropriate safety measures in case the child’s condition worsens. Admission to the hospital is not recommended for uncomplicated chickenpox as it could spread the infection to other children, especially those who may have a weakened immune system. Aciclovir should not be used for uncomplicated chickenpox in children. VZIG is given as a preventive measure for infection, mainly for pregnant women without immunity, and is not a treatment for those already infected. There is no need to check both parents’ IgG levels unless the mother is pregnant and has no history of chickenpox or shingles, in which case testing may be appropriate.

      Further Reading:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.

      Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.

      Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.

      Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.

      Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.

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  • Question 16 - A 2 year old is brought into resus following rescue from a car...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old is brought into resus following rescue from a car accident. The patient has severe injuries and observations are consistent with shock. Attempts to insert an IV cannula fail three times. You decide to obtain intraosseous (IO) access. Which of the following is a commonly used site for obtaining intraosseous (IO) access in young children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal femur - 2 cm above condyle in midline

      Explanation:

      The three sites most frequently used for IO access are the proximal tibia, distal tibia, and distal femur. The proximal tibia is located 2 cm below the tibial tuberosity, while the distal tibia is just above the medial malleolus. The distal femur site is situated 2 cm above the condyle in the midline. These sites are commonly chosen for IO access. However, there are also less commonly used sites such as the proximal humerus (above the surgical neck) and the iliac crest. It is important to note that the proximal humerus may be challenging to palpate in children and is typically not used in those under 5 years of age. Additionally, accessing the sternum requires a specialist device.

      Further Reading:

      Intraosseous (IO) cannulation is a technique used to gain urgent intravenous (IV) access in patients where traditional IV access is difficult to obtain. It involves injecting fluid or drugs directly into the medullary cavity of the bone. This procedure can be performed in both adult and pediatric patients and is commonly used in emergency situations.

      There are different types of IO needles available, including manual IO needles and device-powered IO needles such as the EZ-IO. These tools allow healthcare professionals to access the bone and administer necessary medications or fluids quickly and efficiently.

      The most commonly used sites for IO cannulation are the tibia (shinbone) and the femur (thighbone). In some cases, the proximal humerus (upper arm bone) may also be used. However, there are certain contraindications to IO cannulation that should be considered. These include fractures of the bone to be cannulated, overlying skin infections or a high risk of infection (such as burns), conditions like osteogenesis imperfecta or osteoporosis, ipsilateral vascular injury, and coagulopathy.

      While IO cannulation is a valuable technique, there are potential complications that healthcare professionals should be aware of. These include superficial skin infections, osteomyelitis (infection of the bone), skin necrosis, growth plate injury (in pediatric patients), fractures, failure to access or position the needle correctly, extravasation (leakage of fluid or medication into surrounding tissues), and compartment syndrome (a rare but serious condition that can occur if there is an undiagnosed fracture).

      Overall, IO cannulation is a useful method for gaining urgent IV access in patients when traditional methods are challenging. However, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential complications and contraindications associated with this procedure.

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  • Question 17 - A 2 year old male is brought to the emergency department by concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old male is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The child started experiencing episodes of diarrhea and vomiting 2 days ago which have continued today. They are worried as the patient has become lethargic throughout the day and hasn't urinated for several hours. After initial assessment, you decide to administer a 10 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride fluid to treat suspected shock. After giving the fluid bolus, you repeat the patient's observations as shown below:

      Initial observation observation after fluid bolus
      Pulse 160 148
      Respiration rate 52 42
      Capillary refill time 5s 4s
      Temperature 37.8ÂșC 37.8ÂșC

      You notice the patient still has cool extremities and mottled skin. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer further 10 ml/kg 0.9% sodium chloride fluid bolus

      Explanation:

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.

      Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.

      When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.

      In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.

      Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.

      Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.

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  • Question 18 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by his parents who...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by his parents who are worried that he may have croup. What clinical features would you expect to find in a child with croup?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barking cough worse at night

      Explanation:

      Croup is identified by a cough that sounds like a seal barking, especially worse during the night. Before the barking cough, there may be initial symptoms of a cough, runny nose, and congestion for 12 to 72 hours. Other signs of croup include a high-pitched sound when breathing (stridor), difficulty breathing (respiratory distress), and fever.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

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  • Question 19 - A 3-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The parents inform you that the patient had a slight fever, a runny nose, and a decreased appetite for 2 days before developing a barking cough, which seems to have worsened overnight. Upon examination, the child presents with a seal-like barking cough accompanied by stridor and mild sternal recession at rest. The child appears alert and not agitated. Oxygen saturation levels are 96% on room air, and mild bilateral decreased air entry is noted upon chest auscultation. The child's mother inquires if this could be croup.

      What is the most appropriate evaluation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moderate croup

      Explanation:

      A person’s level of consciousness is determined by their alertness. In this case, the score for alertness is 0, indicating that the person is not alert. Based on the scoring system, a total score of 4 suggests a moderate case of croup. Moderate croup is typically diagnosed when the scores range from 3 to 5.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

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      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 20 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the emergency department by worried parents. The parents inform you that the child had a slight fever and a runny nose for 48 hours before developing a barking cough last night. During the examination, the child's temperature is recorded as 38.1ÂșC and you observe a high-pitched wheeze during inspiration.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are the primary treatment for croup. In this case, the child’s symptoms align with croup. The recommended initial medication for croup is a one-time oral dose of dexamethasone, regardless of the severity of the condition. The dosage is typically 0.15mg per kilogram of the child’s weight.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies.

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  • Question 21 - You are present at a pediatric cardiac arrest. The cardiac arrest team has,...

    Incorrect

    • You are present at a pediatric cardiac arrest. The cardiac arrest team has, unfortunately, been unable to establish IV access, and an intraosseous needle is inserted. The child weighs 20 kg.
      What is the appropriate dose of adrenaline to administer via the IO route in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 300 mcg

      Explanation:

      When administering adrenaline to a pediatric patient experiencing cardiac arrest, the dosage given through the intraosseous (IO) route is identical to that given through the intravenous (IV) route. Both routes require a dosage of 10 mcg/kg. For instance, if the child weighs 30 kg, the appropriate dosage would be 300 mcg (0.3 mg).

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  • Question 22 - A 6-month-old infant is brought in by his parents following a brief episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought in by his parents following a brief episode where it seemed that the baby looked very pale and had ceased breathing. The infant is examined by the pediatric registrar, who declares that a 'BRUE' has taken place.
      Which of the following does NOT align with a diagnosis of 'BRUE'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Event is explainable by an identifiable medical condition

      Explanation:

      The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing this term with a new one called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).

      An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.

      On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is considered brief, typically lasting 2-30 seconds but no longer than 1 minute. It must also have resolved, meaning the infant has returned to their baseline state. Additionally, it should not be explained by any identifiable medical condition and must be characterized by at least one of the following: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.

      To diagnose a BRUE, a full history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and if no explanation for the event is found, it can be classified as a BRUE. Once a BRUE is diagnosed, it can be risk-stratified to guide further management.

      A BRUE is considered low risk if the infant has fully recovered, there are no concerning history or physical examination findings, and the following criteria are met: the infant is over 60 days old, born after 32 weeks gestation with a corrected gestational age over 45 weeks, no CPR was performed by a trained healthcare professional, and this was the first event that lasted less than 1 minute.

      Low-risk infants can be safely discharged with early outpatient follow-up within 24 hours. However, it is important to involve the parents/caregivers in the decision-making process. They should be informed that a low-risk BRUE is unlikely to indicate a severe underlying disorder and that the event is unlikely to happen again.

      Before discharge, it may be advisable to perform an ECG, observe the infant for a brief period, and conduct a pertussis swab

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  • Question 23 - A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6 cm laceration to the right thigh. The wound requires suturing. Your consultant suggests you suture the child under ketamine sedation as the child is upset by the wound. You are confident there are no contraindications and proceed to obtain parental consent. Which of the following risks should be specifically listed on the consent form and discussed with the parent giving consent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rash

      Explanation:

      Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.

      Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.

      During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.

      Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.

      Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.

      Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.

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  • Question 24 - A 6 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by his father. The boy tugged on the tablecloth and a hot bowl of soup spilled onto his right leg, causing a scald. The boy is in tears and holding onto his right leg. The patient's father mentions that he gave the boy acetaminophen before coming to the emergency department. What is the most suitable additional pain relief to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal diclofenac 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      For children experiencing moderate pain, diclofenac (taken orally or rectally), oral codeine, or oral morphine are suitable options for providing relief. The patient has already been given the appropriate initial analgesia for mild pain. Therefore, it is now appropriate to administer analgesia for moderate pain, following the next step on the analgesic ladder. Considering diclofenac, codeine, or oral morphine would be appropriate in this case.

      Further Reading:

      Assessment and alleviation of pain should be a priority when treating ill and injured children, according to the RCEM QEC standards. These standards state that all children attending the Emergency Department should receive analgesia for moderate and severe pain within 20 minutes of arrival. The effectiveness of the analgesia should be re-evaluated within 60 minutes of receiving the first dose. Additionally, patients in moderate pain should be offered oral analgesia at triage or assessment.

      Pain assessment in children should take into account their age. Visual analogue pain scales are commonly used, and the RCEM has developed its own version of this. Other indicators of pain, such as crying, limping, and holding or not-moving limbs, should also be observed and utilized in the pain assessment.

      Managing pain in children involves a combination of psychological strategies, non-pharmacological adjuncts, and pharmacological methods. Psychological strategies include involving parents, providing cuddles, and utilizing child-friendly environments with toys. Explanation and reassurance are also important in building trust. Distraction with stories, toys, and activities can help divert the child’s attention from the pain.

      Non-pharmacological adjuncts for pain relief in children include limb immobilization with slings, plasters, or splints, as well as dressings and other treatments such as reduction of dislocation or trephine subungual hematoma.

      Pharmacological methods for pain relief in children include the use of anesthetics, analgesics, and sedation. Topical anesthetics, such as lidocaine with prilocaine cream, tetracaine gel, or ethyl chloride spray, should be considered for children who are likely to require venesection or placement of an intravenous cannula.

      Procedural sedation in children often utilizes either ketamine or midazolam. When administering analgesia, the analgesic ladder should be followed as recommended by the RCEM.

      Overall, effective pain management in children requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and psychological aspects of pain. By prioritizing pain assessment and providing appropriate pain relief, healthcare professionals can help alleviate the suffering of ill and injured children.

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  • Question 25 - A 9 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old girl is brought into the emergency department with a worsening sore throat, fever, and feeling unwell. The patient reports that the symptoms began 4 days ago. During the examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.1ÂșC, bilateral palpable cervical lymphadenopathy, and exudate on both tonsils. Glandular fever is suspected.

      What would be the most suitable approach for investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange blood test for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) viral serology in 2-3 days time

      Explanation:

      The most suitable approach for investigation in this case would be to send a blood test for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) viral serology. Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, is commonly caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The symptoms described by the patient, including a sore throat, fever, and feeling unwell, are consistent with this condition. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for EBV viral serology can be performed. This test detects antibodies produced by the body in response to the virus. It is important to note that the Monospot test, which is another blood test for infectious mononucleosis, may not be as accurate in younger children. Therefore, the most appropriate option would be to send a blood test for EBV viral serology in 2-3 days time. This will allow for the detection of specific antibodies and provide a more accurate diagnosis.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

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  • Question 26 - A parent brings their 10 year old child into the emergency department as...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings their 10 year old child into the emergency department as they have been feeling sick and have now developed a rash. You diagnose chickenpox. The mother asks about school exclusion.

      What is the appropriate guidance to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exclude for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash and until all blisters have crusted over

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have chickenpox should refrain from coming into contact with others for a minimum of 5 days starting from when the rash first appears and continuing until all blisters have formed a crust.

      Further Reading:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella zoster virus (VZV) and is highly infectious. It is spread through droplets in the air, primarily through respiratory routes. It can also be caught from someone with shingles. The infectivity period lasts from 4 days before the rash appears until 5 days after the rash first appeared. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days.

      Clinical features of chickenpox include mild symptoms that are self-limiting. However, older children and adults may experience more severe symptoms. The infection usually starts with a fever and is followed by an itchy rash that begins on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash starts as macular, then becomes papular, and finally vesicular. Systemic upset is usually mild.

      Management of chickenpox is typically supportive. Measures such as keeping cool and trimming nails can help alleviate symptoms. Calamine lotion can be used to soothe the rash. People with chickenpox should avoid contact with others for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash until all blisters have crusted over. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV aciclovir should be considered. Aciclovir may be prescribed for immunocompetent, non-pregnant adults or adolescents with severe chickenpox or those at increased risk of complications. However, it is not recommended for otherwise healthy children with uncomplicated chickenpox.

      Complications of chickenpox can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, and rare conditions such as arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Shingles is the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus that remains dormant in the nervous system after primary infection with chickenpox. It typically presents with signs of nerve irritation before the eruption of a rash within the dermatomal distribution of the affected nerve. Patients may feel unwell with malaise, myalgia, headache, and fever prior to the rash appearing. The rash appears as erythema with small vesicles that may keep forming for up to 7 days. It usually takes 2-3 weeks for the rash to resolve.

      Management of shingles involves keeping the vesicles covered and dry to prevent secondary bacterial infection.

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  • Question 27 - You are requested to evaluate a 6 year old girl. She was playing...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 6 year old girl. She was playing in the backyard when she suddenly burst into tears. Her mother suspects she stepped on a bee. Shortly after, her face began to swell and her breathing became rapid and noisy. Your diagnosis is anaphylaxis. What is the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150 micrograms by IM injection

      Explanation:

      The appropriate dose of adrenaline for treating anaphylaxis in children under 6 years old is 150 micrograms, which is equivalent to 0.15 ml of a 1 in 1,000 solution.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It is characterized by a rapid onset and can lead to difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. In paediatrics, anaphylaxis is often caused by food allergies, with nuts being the most common trigger. Other causes include drugs and insect venom, such as from a wasp sting.

      When treating anaphylaxis, time is of the essence and there may not be enough time to look up medication doses. Adrenaline is the most important drug in managing anaphylaxis and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary based on the age of the child. For children under 6 months, the dose is 150 micrograms, while for children between 6 months and 6 years, the dose remains the same. For children between 6 and 12 years, the dose is increased to 300 micrograms, and for adults and children over 12 years, the dose is 500 micrograms. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary.

      The preferred site for administering adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. This ensures quick absorption and effectiveness of the medication. It is important to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines for anaphylaxis management, as they have recently been updated.

      In some cases, it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis. This can help confirm the diagnosis and guide further management.

      Overall, prompt recognition and administration of adrenaline are crucial in managing anaphylaxis in paediatrics. Following the recommended doses and guidelines can help ensure the best outcomes for patients experiencing this severe allergic reaction.

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  • Question 28 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has been feeling unwell for 3-4 days, experiencing muscle aches, fever, chills, tiredness, and headache. In the past 24 hours, he has developed a severe sore throat. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.9ÂșC, tender enlarged posterior cervical lymph nodes, and white exudate covering both tonsils.

      His parents inquire about keeping him off school. What is the recommended exclusion period for the likely underlying illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No exclusion required

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely that this patient has glandular fever, as school exclusion is not necessary for this condition. However, it is important to note that in the UK, school exclusion is not required for tonsillitis either. The only exception is if a child has tonsillitis and a rash consistent with scarlet fever, in which case exclusion is necessary for 24 hours after starting antibiotics. The child and parents should be provided with additional information about glandular fever (refer to the notes below).

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

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  • Question 29 - You are requested to educate the foundation doctors and medical students assigned to...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to educate the foundation doctors and medical students assigned to the emergency department on evaluating the vomiting toddler. What is a potential risk factor for pyloric stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First born child

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants and is often seen in those with a positive family history. It is more commonly observed in first-born children and those who were bottle-fed or delivered by c-section. Additionally, it is more prevalent in white and hispanic children compared to other races and ethnicities. Smoking during pregnancy and premature birth are also associated with an increased risk of developing pyloric stenosis.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

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  • Question 30 - A 6 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his father who was worried because the patient's urine appears similar to coca-cola. Urinalysis reveals blood +++ and protein ++. Upon further inquiry, the child's father informs you that the patient has no notable medical history and is typically healthy. He mentions that the child had a sore throat and a mild rash for approximately a week, but it cleared up two weeks ago.

      What is the probable cause of this child's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a condition that usually occurs at least 2 weeks after a person has had scarlet fever. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are consistent with this condition. It is important to note that the sore throat and rash associated with scarlet fever can be mild and may be mistaken for a generic viral illness with hives. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis typically presents with blood in the urine (which may appear brown like coca-cola) and protein in the urine. Other symptoms may include decreased urine output, swelling in the extremities, and high blood pressure. It is rare for this condition to cause permanent kidney damage.

      Further Reading:

      Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the peak incidence at 4 years. The typical presentation of scarlet fever includes fever, malaise, sore throat (tonsillitis), and a rash. The rash appears 1-2 days after the fever and sore throat symptoms and consists of fine punctate erythema that first appears on the torso and spares the face. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later, particularly around the fingers and toes. Another characteristic feature is the ‘strawberry tongue’, which initially has a white coating and swollen, reddened papillae, and later becomes red and inflamed. Diagnosis is usually made by a throat swab, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately without waiting for the results. The recommended treatment is oral penicillin V, but patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Complications of scarlet fever include otitis media, rheumatic fever, and acute glomerulonephritis.

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