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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.

      Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types

      Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.

      Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.

      Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      355.2
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  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?

      Your Answer: Remove any foreign body, close the wound, administer flucloxacillin or erythromycin.

      Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.

      Explanation:

      Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

      Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:

      1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
      2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
      3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
      4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
      5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
      6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
      7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
      8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
      9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
      10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.

      It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.

      Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?...

    Correct

    • Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations.

      Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, raised bilirubin and ALP levels, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. To diagnose PSC, doctors typically use endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A positive p-ANCA test may also be indicative of PSC.

      Liver biopsy may show fibrous, obliterative cholangitis, often described as ‘onion skin’, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma (in 10% of cases) and colorectal cancer.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, associations, and diagnostic methods for PSC is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following would be the best reason for randomly assigning elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be the best reason for randomly assigning elderly subjects to the various arms of the clinical trial assessing whether a new treatment is more effective than a placebo in reducing cholesterol levels?

      Your Answer: Blinding is ensured

      Correct Answer: Subjects in each arm have comparable baseline characteristics

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Randomisation in Clinical Trials

      Randomisation is a crucial aspect of clinical trials, particularly in randomised controlled trials (RCTs). In an RCT, subjects are randomly assigned to different treatments being investigated. This helps to minimise allocation bias between groups, ensuring that subjects in each arm have comparable baseline characteristics.

      Double blinding is another important aspect of clinical trials, which means that observers are unaware of which intervention each subject is receiving. Blinding can be achieved without randomisation, but randomisation doesn’t influence blinding.

      To ensure that subjects are representative of the general population, random sampling from a population could be used. However, randomisation occurs after subjects are selected.

      Finally, randomisation doesn’t affect whether or not subjects adhere to an intervention. It is important to evenly allocate subjects with characteristics that may limit adherence between groups. Overall, randomisation is a critical component of clinical trials, helping to ensure unbiased and reliable results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old male comes to the clinic for a routine check-up regarding a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the clinic for a routine check-up regarding a six month history of occasional seizures. He has been diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy by a neurologist and has been prescribed lamotrigine, which he reports has been effective in controlling his seizures. However, he admits to still driving despite being advised by his doctor to stop due to safety concerns. He explains that he needs to drive for work and has not had a seizure in two months.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Inform patient that you will notify the DVLA

      Correct Answer: Your only action is to write in the notes that the patient has been repeatedly warned but chose to ignore advice as she presents no serious risk in view of her epilepsy control

      Explanation:

      Driving and Epilepsy: Legal Obligations and Doctor’s Duty of Care

      The law is unequivocal when it comes to epilepsy and driving. If a patient is diagnosed with epilepsy, they must stop driving and inform the DVLA of their diagnosis. Ignoring this advice and continuing to drive can result in serious consequences. In such cases, doctors have a duty of care to society that overrides patient confidentiality. Therefore, if a patient persists in driving despite medical advice, the doctor may inform the DVLA. It is important to understand and follow these legal obligations to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road. Proper communication between doctors and patients can help prevent any potential harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      24.4
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brucella serology

      Explanation:

      The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      19.5
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  • Question 7 - A 71-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is curious about driving with diabetes. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is curious about driving with diabetes. He has experienced occasional episodes of hypoglycemia while at home but always carries a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with him and checks his blood sugar levels at the recommended intervals while driving. He is aware of the blood sugar threshold below which he should cease driving. If he needs to stop driving due to low blood sugar, he knows he should consume fast-acting carbohydrate and wait for his blood glucose levels to return to normal. How long should he wait after his blood sugar levels have returned to normal before resuming his journey?

      Your Answer: 1 hour

      Correct Answer: 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      Safe Driving for Insulin-Treated Diabetics

      Insulin-treated diabetics need to take extra precautions when driving to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. It is important for them to test their blood sugar levels within two hours of starting a journey and every two hours thereafter. If their blood sugar drops below 5 mmol/litre, they should take a snack to raise their blood sugar levels. If their blood sugar drops below 4, they should stop driving immediately.

      Insulin-treated diabetics should always carry a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with them in case of an episode of low blood sugar. They should not continue their journey until 45 minutes have elapsed after their blood sugar levels have returned to normal. By following these guidelines, insulin-treated diabetics can ensure their safety while driving and avoid any potential accidents on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Olivia is 36 years old and visits you to discuss contraception options. She...

    Incorrect

    • Olivia is 36 years old and visits you to discuss contraception options. She is currently using condoms and doesn't want to risk pregnancy. She smokes 8 cigarettes a day, has a body mass index of 27 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 115/62 mmHg. She has no personal or family history of blood clots, ischaemic heart disease, strokes or migraines. Olivia has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle and is on day 4 of her cycle. She wants to start contraception immediately and you decide to prescribe a progesterone only pill. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: She can start the progesterone only pill today but she needs to use barrier protection for 2 days

      Correct Answer: She can start the progesterone only pill today and she doesn't need to use extra protection

      Explanation:

      Rachel began taking the progesterone only pill during the fourth day of her menstrual cycle, which means she will have instant protection since it was before the fifth day of her cycle.

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).

      When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.

      It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.

      Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      26.9
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  • Question 9 - An 84-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and...

    Correct

    • An 84-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and stiffness along with elevated inflammatory markers on blood tests. After being diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica, what medication's inadequate response would lead to considering an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If patients with polymyalgia rheumatica do not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. While alendronic acid is necessary for bone protection during long-term steroid use, it will not alleviate symptoms. Amitriptyline is better suited for chronic or neuropathic pain rather than inflammatory conditions. Aspirin and naproxen may provide some relief due to their anti-inflammatory properties, but the response will not be as significant as with prednisolone.

      Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      113.1
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  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The probable reason for the patient’s condition is Clostridium difficile, which could have been caused by the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics during the operation. According to NICE guidelines, patients undergoing clean surgery with prosthesis or implant placement, clean-contaminated surgery, contaminated surgery, or surgery on a dirty or infected wound should receive antibiotics to prevent surgical site infections. In cases of contaminated or infected wounds, prophylaxis should be accompanied by antibiotic treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old male presents with bilateral paraesthesia in the radial aspects of both...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presents with bilateral paraesthesia in the radial aspects of both hands, over the thumbs and first fingers, as well as paraesthesia in the lateral aspects of both forearms and lower limb spasticity. His HBA1c level is 46 mmol/mol and nerve conduction studies and EMG show evidence of denervation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Degenerative cervical myelopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s muscle twitches are likely fibrillations, indicating dysfunction in the lower motor neurons. The neurophysiology report confirms denervation. The patient’s symptoms are mainly in the C6 dermatome distribution on both sides, which is not likely to be caused by median nerve compression at the elbow, given the patient’s age. The patient is probably suffering from degenerative cervical myelopathy, which can take more than two years to diagnose. Symptoms of this condition include pain and stiffness in the neck and limbs, loss of function, and sphincter disturbance. Neurological examination can reveal lower motor neuron signs at the level of the lesion and upper motor neuron signs below. The other answer options are unlikely for various reasons.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      73.4
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  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. She has been taking fluoxetine for 6 months and wants to switch to a different antidepressant. What important factors do you need to consider when changing her medication?

      Your Answer: Long half-life

      Explanation:

      Compared to other SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life. Therefore, it is recommended to wait for about 4-7 days after discontinuing fluoxetine before starting a new antidepressant. Although fluoxetine undergoes first-pass metabolism and is excreted through the kidneys, this doesn’t affect the process of switching to another antidepressant. Instead, it may impact the appropriateness of fluoxetine for a specific patient.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      14.7
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon

      Explanation:

      Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.

      In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary frequency, dysuria,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary frequency, dysuria, and a urethral discharge. He recently returned from a trip to Spain with his friends and has been experiencing pain during ejaculation. On examination, his prostate is tender. Laboratory results show a white cell count of 11.2 ×109/L (4-10). Based on this information, which organism is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: C. trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Prostatitis and STIs: A Possible Link

      The history of a recent lads’ holiday to Spain has raised concerns about the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection (STI) causing prostatitis. Two common STIs, Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, are known to cause prostatitis. If a sexual cause is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to a genitourinary medicine (GUM) clinic for appropriate contact tracing and screening for other STIs. This will help to identify any potential sources of infection and prevent the spread of STIs. It is important to be aware of the link between prostatitis and STIs, and to take appropriate measures to protect oneself from infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing....

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing. During the examination, the infant has a temperature of 38.6°C and a respiratory rate of 37. The baby appears distressed, and there are widespread crackles and wheezing sounds when listening to the chest. The pulse rate is 170 BPM. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchiolitis in Children

      This child is experiencing acute bronchiolitis and needs to be admitted to the hospital for supportive care. Ribavirin may also be necessary. The child is showing clear signs of respiratory distress. The most common cause of acute bronchiolitis is respiratory syncytial virus, but adenoviruses and parainfluenza viruses can also be responsible.

      Acute bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in young children, especially those under the age of two. It is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the small airways in the lungs, making it difficult for the child to breathe. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and fluids, and may also include antiviral medications like ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 16 - You are conducting a review of your repeat prescribing system due to a...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a review of your repeat prescribing system due to a recent complaint following a prescribing error involving a pediatric patient.
      What are the recommended best practices for repeat prescribing in order to reduce the occurrence of prescribing or monitoring errors in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Request repeat medications from a prescribing clerk by telephone

      Correct Answer: Request repeat prescriptions from any staff member by telephone

      Explanation:

      Practice-wide Defences Against Prescribing Errors

      A study conducted by GMC has identified several practice-wide defences against prescribing errors. These defences include strongly discouraging verbal repeat requests, performing face to face medication reviews, having blood tests one week before scheduled reviews, and updating records within 48 hours with hospital correspondence.

      To prevent prescribing errors, it is important to discourage verbal repeat requests as they can lead to confusion and mistakes. Face to face medication reviews can also help identify any potential errors and ensure that the patient is receiving the correct medication. Having blood tests one week before scheduled reviews can help monitor the patient’s health and ensure that the medication is working effectively. Finally, updating records within 48 hours with hospital correspondence can help ensure that all healthcare providers are aware of any changes in the patient’s medication or health status.

      By implementing these practice-wide defences, healthcare providers can help prevent prescribing errors and ensure that patients receive safe and effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      34.1
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  • Question 17 - What is a risk factor for clubfoot in infants? ...

    Correct

    • What is a risk factor for clubfoot in infants?

      Your Answer: Spina bifida

      Explanation:

      Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Birth Defect

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a common birth defect that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns. It is more prevalent in males than females and can occur bilaterally in 50% of cases. The condition is characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot, which is usually diagnosed during the newborn exam. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.

      Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically clinical, and imaging is not usually necessary. In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management methods, such as the Ponseti method. This approach involves manipulation and progressive casting, which begins soon after birth and can correct the deformity within 6-10 weeks. In some cases, an Achilles tenotomy may be required, but this can usually be done under local anesthesia. Night-time braces are also recommended until the child is four years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroid

      Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      33.5
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on sodium valproate. What guidance should be given regarding his group 2 license?

      Your Answer: He cannot drive until he is fit-free for 10 years without medication

      Explanation:

      Individuals who possess a group 2 license and have epilepsy are only permitted to operate a vehicle after a period of 10 years without experiencing seizures while not taking medication. This is a more stringent requirement compared to group 1 license holders. If a group 2 license holder is diagnosed with epilepsy, it is advised that they refrain from driving, even if their condition is under control with medication. Only after a decade of being seizure-free without medication can they undergo a reassessment to determine their eligibility to drive.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Recurrent miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid Syndrome and Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of both venous and arterial blood clots, recurrent miscarriage, and low platelet count. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other illnesses, such as systemic lupus erythematosus. When a woman with antiphospholipid syndrome becomes pregnant, there are several potential complications that may arise, including pre-eclampsia, placental abruption, and preterm delivery.

      To manage these risks, low-dose aspirin is typically prescribed as soon as the pregnancy is confirmed through a urine test. Once a fetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound, low molecular weight heparin is added to the treatment plan. This medication is usually discontinued at 34 weeks gestation. These interventions have been shown to increase the live birth rate by seven-fold. It is important for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks are affected as is the bridge of the nose. The erythema began in the paranasal areas and has spread to both cheeks rapidly. The affected area is bright red, firm, swollen and painful. The edge of the erythema is sharply defined and raised. She has been feeling hot and has been shivering. No other symptoms are reported.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erysipelas

      Erysipelas is a condition that is typically diagnosed based on clinical symptoms. It usually comes on suddenly and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever. The condition is commonly found on the lower limbs or the face, with facial involvement often manifesting as a butterfly distribution on the cheeks and nasal bridge. The affected skin is characterized by a sharp, well-defined raised border and is bright red, firm, and swollen. In severe cases, dimpling, blistering, and necrosis can occur. While cellulitis shares some clinical features with erysipelas, it doesn’t demonstrate the same clear swelling. Erysipelas is predominantly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Other conditions that can cause skin flushing and redness include carcinoid syndrome, mitral stenosis, rosacea, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Carcinoid syndrome is associated with neuroendocrine tumors that produce hormones, while mitral stenosis can cause a malar flush across the cheeks. Rosacea is a skin condition that affects the face and causes redness and blushing, while systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that can have multi-organ involvement and is characterized by a photosensitive malar butterfly rash.

      Overall, the sudden onset and associated fever make erysipelas the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with worsening shortness of breath on exertion. You suspect left ventricular failure. Identify the single test that, if normal, would make the diagnosis of heart failure highly unlikely.

      Your Answer: An ECG

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Heart Failure: Importance of ECG and Natriuretic Peptides

      When a patient is suspected of having heart failure, several investigations are recommended to confirm the diagnosis and determine the underlying cause. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and blood glucose, are typically performed. However, the results of these tests alone are not sufficient to diagnose heart failure.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is also commonly performed, although its predictive value for heart failure is limited. A normal ECG can make left ventricular systolic dysfunction unlikely, with a negative predictive value of 98%. On the other hand, an abnormal ECG may indicate the need for further testing, such as echocardiography.

      Serum natriuretic peptides, which are released by the heart in response to increased pressure or volume, can also be helpful in diagnosing heart failure. If these levels are normal, the diagnosis of heart failure is less likely. However, this test is not always available or necessary in the initial investigation.

      A chest x-ray can provide supportive evidence for heart failure and rule out other potential causes of breathlessness. It is important to note that oxygen saturation may be normal in heart failure, so this alone cannot be used to rule out the condition.

      Echocardiography is the gold standard for diagnosing heart failure and determining the underlying cause. It is recommended in patients who have either a raised natriuretic peptide level or an abnormal ECG. By providing detailed images of the heart’s structure and function, echocardiography can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

      In summary, a combination of tests is necessary to diagnose heart failure and determine the best course of treatment. The ECG and natriuretic peptides can provide important clues, but echocardiography is essential for confirming the diagnosis and identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of 102 g/L. Iron studies are ordered. What result would indicate a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↑ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↓ transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      In cases of iron-deficiency anemia, it is common for both the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) and transferrin levels to be elevated. However, it should be noted that the transferrin saturation level is typically decreased.

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.

      The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.

      The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless swelling of the scrotum on one side. The swelling enlarges during the day and diminishes overnight. On examination there is a smooth swelling, within which the testis can be felt. Transillumination is seen when a torch is held against the scrotum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hydrocele

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hydroceles and Hernias in Children

      During fetal development, the testicle descends into the scrotum accompanied by a sac-like extension of peritoneum called the processus vaginalis (PV). If the PV fails to close, it can result in a communicating hydrocele, where only fluid can pass through, or a hernia, where other abdominal contents protrude.

      To diagnose a hydrocele, transillumination of the scrotum can reveal fluid in the tunica vaginalis (TV). However, this test may not fully exclude a hernia, as bowel may also transilluminate. Hydroceles may appear to enlarge during the day and disappear at night due to gravity’s effect on filling.

      Hernias may present with abdominal pain, constipation, or vomiting, and the lump may be more prominent when the child cries. Bowel sounds in the scrotum strongly suggest a hernia.

      In infants, many hydroceles resolve spontaneously due to PV closure early after birth. Observation is often appropriate up to 12-18 months of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following increases the risk of breast cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following increases the risk of breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      1. Having First Child at a Young Age

      Decreases Risk: Having the first child at a young age is actually associated with a lower risk of breast cancer. Women who have their first child before age 30, especially before age 20, tend to have a reduced risk compared to those who have children later in life or not at all.

      Explanation: Early pregnancy reduces the total number of menstrual cycles a woman has over her lifetime, reducing exposure to estrogen and progesterone, which are associated with breast cancer development.

      2. Early Menopause

      Decreases Risk: Experiencing menopause at an earlier age is associated with a lower risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: Early menopause means fewer menstrual cycles and reduced lifetime exposure to estrogen, which is linked to the development of breast cancer.

      3. Multiparity (Having Multiple Pregnancies)

      Decreases Risk: Having multiple pregnancies generally reduces the risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: Similar to having a first child at a young age, multiple pregnancies lower the total number of menstrual cycles and thereby reduce lifetime hormone exposure, decreasing breast cancer risk.

      4. A Mother Who Has Breast-Fed Her Baby

      Decreases Risk: Breastfeeding is associated with a lower risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: Breastfeeding reduces the number of menstrual cycles, which reduces hormone exposure. Additionally, lactation may lead to changes in breast cells that make them more resistant to cancer.

      5. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

      Increases Risk: Hormone replacement therapy, particularly combined estrogen-progesterone therapy, is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.

      Explanation: HRT increases the exposure to estrogen and progesterone, which can promote the development and growth of hormone-sensitive breast cancer cells. The risk is higher with longer duration of use and decreases after stopping the therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which statement about the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is accurate?

      Your Answer: Bowel cancer incidence rates have increased by 1-2% over the last 10 years

      Correct Answer: A quarter of patients diagnosed with bowel cancer will survive for at least 10 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Epidemiology of Colorectal Cancer

      A basic understanding of the epidemiology of colorectal cancer is important for general practitioners to consider when treating their patients. It is worth noting that 95% of colorectal cancer cases occur in individuals over the age of 50.

      In terms of incorrect answer options, it is important to note that bowel cancer incidence rates have not increased by 6% over the last 10 years. Additionally, bowel cancer is not the second most common cause of cancer death in the UK overall, but rather in men alone it is second to prostate cancer and in women alone it is second to breast cancer.

      Finally, while almost 42,000 people were diagnosed with bowel cancer in the UK in 2011, it is not accurate to say that half of patients diagnosed with colorectal cancer will survive their disease for 10 years or more. It is important for general practitioners to have accurate information about colorectal cancer in order to provide the best care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP for a check-up. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP for a check-up. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking levothyroxine 100 mcg. She reports feeling well and has no significant symptoms. Her TFTs were last checked 6 months ago and were normal.

      Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
      TSH 0.1 mu/l

      What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Increase dose to levothyroxine 150 mcg od

      Correct Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od

      Explanation:

      The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole cannot be prescribed in primary care

      Correct Answer: Surgical treatment should be considered for patients with large goitres

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism: Medications, Radio-Iodine, and Surgery

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and tachycardia. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are medications used to treat hyperthyroidism, but they require monitoring and should be initiated under specialist advice. A β-blocker may also be used to relieve adrenergic symptoms. Treatment is typically on a titration-block or block-and-replace regime, with a remission rate of about 50% after 6-18 months of treatment.

      Radio-iodine is another treatment option for hyperthyroidism, particularly for toxic nodular hyperthyroidism or when medical treatment is not effective. However, it is contraindicated in thyroid eye disease and pregnancy, and can lead to hypothyroidism in 80% of patients. There is no increased risk of cancer from radio-iodine treatment.

      Surgical treatment by total or near-total thyroidectomy may be necessary for recurrent hyperthyroidism after drug treatment, compression symptoms from a large toxic multinodular goitre, potentially malignant thyroid nodules, or in certain cases of pregnancy or active eye disease.

      Overall, treatment options for hyperthyroidism should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old patient presents to your GP clinic with a spider bite that...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old patient presents to your GP clinic with a spider bite that occurred 7 days ago. The patient reports experiencing pruritus, urticarial rash, erythema, lip swelling, abdominal pain, and vomiting shortly after being bitten. The patient has been taking cetirizine daily from a home supply for the past week, which has resolved all symptoms.

      What is the recommended follow-up plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to an allergy specialist

      Explanation:

      If someone experiences a systemic reaction to an insect bite, it is important to refer them to an allergy specialist. In this case, the patient’s moderate reaction suggests the need for further evaluation by a specialist who can determine if an adrenaline auto-injector and medical identification bracelet are necessary. However, since the bite occurred 7 days ago and the patient is currently stable, there is no need to refer them to the emergency department or medical team at this time. Additionally, late-onset reactions typically occur within a few hours of the bite, so a follow-up appointment at the 2-week mark is not necessary.

      Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old patient visits your clinic seeking travel and immunisation advice for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient visits your clinic seeking travel and immunisation advice for an upcoming trip overseas. The patient has Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone on a daily basis. She plans to bring extra medication with her and has been advised by her travel agent to obtain a letter from you confirming the need to carry injections. During the consultation, she asks what she should do if she experiences vomiting.

      What guidance would you provide?

      Your Answer: Double her normal dose of hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately

      Explanation:

      Sick Day Rules for Patients with Addison’s Disease

      Patients with Addison’s disease need to follow specific sick day rules to avoid catastrophic consequences. There are four scenarios that may be tested in the AKT exam: a patient with a temperature >37.5 degrees or treated with antibiotics, a patient who is vomiting, a patient with nausea, and a patient who has sustained major trauma and is at significant risk of shock.

      According to the Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel, patients must double their normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. For severe nausea, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids. On vomiting, patients should use the emergency injection (100 mg hydrocortisone) immediately and then call a doctor, saying Addison’s emergency. After a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock.

      It is essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication and that they have checked the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition effectively and avoid potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      23.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/5) 20%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/2) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Passmed