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Question 1
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher raised concerns that the child sometimes appears to ‘stare into space’. The parents brought him to the General Practitioner reporting that they have also noticed that he would look blank for a minute and then looks confused. After these episodes, the boy becomes his normal self and does not remember what happened. The boy says that he sometimes has headaches, which usually occur at home and for which he takes paracetamol. There is no significant past medical or family history.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Absence seizure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Seizures: Symptoms and Characteristics
One of the most common types of seizures is the absence seizure, which is characterized by brief periods of decreased consciousness. In this type of seizure, the child may stop talking or what they were doing for about 10-15 seconds before returning to their normal self. Absence seizures are a form of generalized seizure and require electroencephalography (EEG) for diagnosis.
Another type of seizure is the focal seizure, which originates within networks limited to one hemisphere. It can be discretely localized or more widely distributed, and it replaces the terms partial seizure and localization-related seizure.
Primary generalized seizures usually present with a combination of limb stiffening and limb jerking, known as a tonic-clonic seizure. Patients may also experience tongue biting and incontinence. After the seizure, patients often feel tired and drowsy and do not remember what happened.
Atonic seizures are a form of primary generalized seizure where there is no muscle tone, causing the patient to drop to the floor. Unlike other forms of seizures, there is no loss of consciousness.
While migraines can cause neurological symptoms, they do not typically cause an episode such as the one described. Migraines often present with an aura and do not result in loss of consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A senior citizen visits his GP with a complaint of left facial weakness. He reports difficulty in removing food from his mouth while eating. Which muscle is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Masseter
Correct Answer: Buccinator
Explanation:Facial Nerve and its Branches: Muscles of Facial Expression
The facial nerve, also known as the seventh cranial nerve, is responsible for providing motor function to the muscles of facial expression through its five branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, and cervical. Additionally, it supplies special sensation, such as taste, through the chorda tympani.
One of the muscles affected by a lesion of the facial nerve is the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for emptying food residue from the vestibule when it contracts. On the other hand, the temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, and masseter muscles are supplied by the mandibular nerve, a branch of the trigeminal nerve. Lesions of this nerve would not lead to facial paralysis.
Understanding the facial nerve and its branches is crucial in diagnosing and treating facial paralysis and other related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to the Emergency Department with left-sided weakness and numbness. On examination, he has a drooping left face, decreased strength in his left arm and leg (4/5), and reduced sensation on the left side of his body. His pulse is regular at 70 bpm, and his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg. The initial diagnosis is a possible ischemic stroke.
What proportion of strokes are ischemic rather than hemorrhagic?Your Answer: 80-85%
Explanation:Understanding the Prevalence and Causes of Ischaemic and Haemorrhagic Strokes
Ischaemic strokes are the most common type of stroke, accounting for 80-85% of all cases. They are characterized by a sudden onset of neurological deficits, such as hemiplegia, and are usually caused by thromboembolic disease secondary to atherosclerosis. Risk factors for ischaemic stroke include smoking, diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, heart disease, and previous medical history of myocardial infarction, stroke or embolism.
Haemorrhagic strokes, on the other hand, account for only 10-20% of all strokes and usually result from the rupture of a blood vessel within the brain. While they are less common than ischaemic strokes, they can be more severe and have a higher mortality rate.
It is important to understand the prevalence and causes of both types of strokes in order to prevent and treat them effectively. By addressing risk factors such as smoking and heart disease, we can reduce the incidence of ischaemic strokes. And by recognizing the symptoms of haemorrhagic strokes and seeking immediate medical attention, we can improve outcomes for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor notices evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.
What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are rare
Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.
Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?Your Answer: Alpha-synuclein
Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
Explanation:Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases
Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Repeat CT head in morning
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination, she is drowsy and confused, with a blood pressure of 180/95 mmHg. You suspect that she may have had a subarachnoid haemorrhage and arrange a computed tomography (CT) scan. This is normal. She undergoes a lumbar puncture and the results are shown below:
Pot 1: red cells 490 × 109/l, white cells 10 × 109/l, no organisms seen
Pot 2: red cells 154 × 109/l, white cells 8 × 109/l, no organisms seen
Pot 3: red cells 51 × 109/l, white cells <5 × 109/l, no organisms seen
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these results?Your Answer: Confirmed recent subarachnoid haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Traumatic tap
Explanation:Interpreting Lumbar Puncture Results in Neurological Conditions
Lumbar puncture is a diagnostic procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis in various neurological conditions. The results of a lumbar puncture can provide valuable information in diagnosing conditions such as traumatic tap, subarachnoid hemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, and viral meningitis.
Traumatic Tap: A traumatic tap is characterized by a gradation of red cell contamination in sequential samples of CSF. This condition is often accompanied by severe headaches and can be managed with adequate analgesia and reassessment of blood pressure.
Confirmed Recent Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage, red cells within the CSF are expected to be constant within each bottle. However, a more reliable way to examine for subarachnoid hemorrhage is to look for the presence of xanthochromia in the CSF, which takes several hours to develop.
Bacterial Meningitis: Bacterial meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly polymorphs. CSF protein and glucose, as well as paired blood glucose, are valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing bacterial meningitis.
Viral Meningitis: Viral meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly lymphocytes. Protein and glucose levels in the CSF are also valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing viral meningitis.
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage >1 Week Ago: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage that occurred more than a week ago, few red cells would remain in the CSF. In such cases, examining the CSF for xanthochromia in the lab is a more valuable test.
In conclusion, interpreting lumbar puncture results requires careful consideration of various parameters and their respective values in different neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl is brought from a school party following an episode of loss of consciousness. She was noted to have jerking of the limbs, frothing at the mouth and was incontinent of urine in the episode. Examination is non-contributory. Blood investigations and CT scan of the brain are normal. She mentions a similar case when on holiday about a year before this episode for which she did not receive treatment.
What is an appropriate step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Refer for MRI of the brain if EEG shows abnormality
Correct Answer: Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy: Key Steps and Considerations
Epilepsy is a complex condition that requires careful management to ensure optimal outcomes for patients. Here are some key steps and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when treating patients with epilepsy:
1. Involve an epilepsy nurse specialist: Epilepsy nurse specialists can serve as valuable intermediaries between patients and healthcare providers, helping to ensure effective communication and treatment compliance.
2. Advise patients to avoid driving and other high-risk activities: Patients with epilepsy should be advised to avoid driving until they have been seizure-free for a certain amount of time (according to local laws). They should also be cautioned against engaging in other high-risk activities, such as operating heavy machinery or swimming unaccompanied.
3. Refer for diagnostic testing: Patients who have experienced one or more seizures should be referred for diagnostic testing, including blood investigations, EEG, and MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of seizures and guide treatment decisions.
4. Consider drug treatment: Drug treatment is often necessary for patients with epilepsy, but the choice of medication should be carefully considered based on the patient’s seizure type and individual needs. Sodium valproate and lamotrigine are often used for generalised tonic-clonic seizures, while carbamazepine is first-line for partial seizures.
5. Monitor for side effects: All medications used to treat epilepsy have potential side effects, so patients should be carefully monitored for any adverse reactions. Women of childbearing age should avoid sodium valproate due to the risk of neural tube defects.
6. Consider MRI if EEG shows abnormality: MRI is indicated for patients with new-onset epilepsy or failure of first-line medication, unless there is a clear diagnosis of idiopathic generalised epilepsy. In acute situations, a CT scan may be necessary.
By following these key steps and considerations, healthcare professionals can help to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive the best possible care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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What are the reasons for having dilated pupils?
Your Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning
Explanation:Causes of Dilated and Small Pupils
Dilated pupils can be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, and drugs or poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. On the other hand, small pupils can be caused by Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates.
Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil and third nerve palsy are conditions that affect the muscles that control the size of the pupil. Meanwhile, drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can cause dilation of the pupils as a side effect. On the other hand, Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause the pupils to become smaller.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is admitted at the request of his family due to a 3-month history of increasing confusion and unsteady gait. They have also noted intermittent jerking movements of both upper limbs. He was previously healthy and till the onset of symptoms, had continued to work part-time as a carpenter. On examination, he is not orientated to time, person or place. Myoclonic jerks of both upper limbs are noted together with non-specific cerebellar signs. CT brain and blood work-up for common causes of dementia is normal.
Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis?Your Answer: MRI of the brain
Explanation:Diagnostic Procedures for Suspected Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) is a rare and fatal neurological disorder that presents with rapidly progressive dementia and other non-specific neurological symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic procedures that are typically used when sCJD is suspected.
Clinical diagnosis of sCJD is based on a combination of typical history, MRI findings, positive CSF 14-3-3 protein, and characteristic EEG findings. Definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy, but this is often not desirable due to the difficulty in sterilizing equipment.
Renal biopsy is not indicated in cases of suspected sCJD, as the signs and symptoms described are not indicative of renal dysfunction. Echocardiography is also not necessary, as sCJD does not affect the heart.
Muscle biopsy may be indicated in suspected myopathic disorders, but is not useful in diagnosing sCJD. Similarly, bone marrow biopsy is not of diagnostic benefit in this case.
Overall, a combination of clinical history, imaging, and laboratory tests are used to diagnose sCJD, with biopsy reserved for cases where definitive diagnosis is necessary. It is important to note that there is currently no curative treatment for sCJD, and the disease is invariably fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned pregnancy. She has a history of grand mal epilepsy for two years and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has not had any seizures for the past six months and wishes to continue with the pregnancy if it is safe for her and the baby. She is concerned about the effects of her anticonvulsant therapy on the fetus and seeks advice on how to proceed. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Stop carbamazepine until the second trimester
Correct Answer: Continue with carbamazepine
Explanation:Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy
During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants tend to fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Vitamin K should be given to the mother prior to delivery. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of headache for the past few months. She reports feeling a tight band-like sensation all over her head, which is present most days but has not interfered with her work. She experiences fatigue due to the headache but denies any associated nausea or vomiting. She occasionally takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, which provide some relief. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic tension headache
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are most consistent with chronic tension headache, which is a common cause of non-pulsatile headache that affects both sides of the head. There may be tenderness in the scalp muscles. Treatment typically involves stress relief measures such as massage or antidepressants. Chronic headache is defined as occurring 15 or more days per month for at least 3 months. Other types of headache, such as cluster headache, trigeminal neuralgia, and migraine, have more specific features that are not present in this case. Medication overuse headache is unlikely given the patient’s occasional use of paracetamol and ibuprofen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense headache, fever, and right periorbital pain. He has a sizable infected lesion on his face next to his right nostril, which he admits to causing by picking at an acne spot. During the physical examination, the doctor notices swelling around his right eye. The physician suspects that he may have cavernous venous sinus thrombosis (CST).
What is a characteristic of CST?Your Answer: Third nerve palsy is the most common nerve paralysis
Correct Answer: Visual disturbance
Explanation:Understanding Visual Disturbance in Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis
Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis (CST) is a condition that can cause visual disturbance due to the involvement of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. This can lead to ophthalmoplegia and diplopia. The most common infective organism responsible for CST is Staphylococcus aureus, although Staphylococcus epidermidis can also be a culprit.
One of the symptoms of CST is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi on the affected side. However, it’s important to note that this muscle is innervated by the facial nerve, which is not affected by the thrombosis.
Third nerve palsy is the most common nerve paralysis associated with CST, but sixth nerve palsy is the most common nerve palsy overall. While symptoms such as chemosis and ptosis can occur, they are not as common as ophthalmoplegia and diplopia.
Overall, understanding the visual disturbance associated with CST can help with early diagnosis and treatment of this potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Cyclizine
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs
Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.
On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and fever. During the examination, you observe that she is wearing sunglasses due to the bright lights worsening her headache. Kernig's sign is positive, and you suspect meningitis. Which of the following statements regarding the cranial meninges is accurate?
Your Answer: A subdural haematoma lies in the plane between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater
Explanation:Understanding the Layers of the Meninges and Intracranial Hemorrhage
The meninges are the three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The outermost layer is the dura mater, followed by the arachnoid mater, and the innermost layer is the pia mater. Each layer serves a specific function in protecting the central nervous system.
Subdural hematomas occur between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, often as a result of venous bleeding. The pia mater is the outermost layer closest to the skull, while the dura mater consists of two layers and is richly innervated, causing pain when stretched. Extradural hematomas occur between the endosteal layer of the dura mater and the skull, often due to trauma and bleeding from the middle meningeal artery.
Subarachnoid hematomas form on the outside of the dura mater and are caused by arterial bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Intracerebral bleeds occur within the brain parenchyma itself and are unrelated to the meninges.
Understanding the various meningeal layers is crucial in identifying and treating different types of intracranial hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which statement about the facial nerve is accurate in terms of its paragraph structure?
Your Answer: Carries taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue
Correct Answer: Is secretomotor to the lacrimal gland
Explanation:Functions of the Facial Nerve
The facial nerve, also known as the seventh cranial nerve, has several important functions. It carries secretomotor fibers to the lacrimal gland through the greater petrosal nerve and is secretomotor to the submandibular and sublingual glands. It also supplies the muscles of facial expression and is associated developmentally with the second branchial arch. The facial nerve carries special taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via the chorda tympani nerve and somatic sensation to the external auditory meatus. However, it does not innervate the levator palpebrae superioris or the principal muscles of mastication, which are supplied by other nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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An epileptic teenager is seeking advice regarding their ability to drive following a seizure six months ago. On further enquiry, you discover that the seizure was in response to a medication change, which also took place six months ago and since being put back on their original medication, they have been seizure-free.
What advice is appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: She can apply to the DVLA to reinstate her licence now
Explanation:Clarifying Misconceptions about Driving Eligibility for Patients with Epilepsy
There are several misconceptions about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy. One common misconception is that a patient must wait another six months before being eligible to drive after a medication-induced seizure. However, according to DVLA guidance, if the patient has been seizure-free for six months on their working medication, they can apply to reinstate their licence.
Another misconception is that the patient must trial the new medication again to determine if they can drive. This is not true, as reverting back to the previous medication that did not work would not be helpful.
Additionally, some believe that the patient must wait another 12 months due to the medication change resulting in the seizure. However, the time a patient must be seizure-free is not increased because the seizure was medication-induced.
It is important to note that if a patient with epilepsy has been seizure-free for a certain period of time, depending on certain circumstances, they will be eligible to drive again in most cases. It is crucial for patients and healthcare professionals to have accurate information about driving eligibility for patients with epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Primary restless legs syndrome
Correct Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.
Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.Nocturnal Cramps:
Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.Diabetic Neuropathy:
Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right eye. He has a regular heart rate of 88 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable test to diagnose the condition?
Your Answer: Carotid duplex ultrasonography
Explanation:Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis
Carotid duplex ultrasonography is an investigation used to identify significant stenosis or occlusive lesions in the internal carotid artery caused by atherosclerosis. This condition can lead to amaurosis fugax, temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. Although carotid duplex is not arranged directly from primary care, healthcare professionals should have an of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and be able to discuss this with patients in more general terms, including indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant past medical history or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture
When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.
In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.
The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how to distinguish between the various types of dementia based on symptoms during the medical post-take ward round. What is a typical clinical characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Emotional lability
Correct Answer: Agnosia
Explanation:Common Symptoms of Different Types of Dementia
Dementia is a group of disorders that affect cognitive abilities, including memory, thinking, and communication. While Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, there are other types that have distinct symptoms. Here are some common symptoms of different types of dementia:
Agnosia: The inability to perceive and utilize information correctly despite retaining the necessary, correct sensory inputs. It is a common feature of Alzheimer’s disease and leads to patients being unable to recognize friends and family or to use everyday objects, e.g. coins or keys.
Pseudobulbar palsy: This is where people are unable to control their facial movements. This does not typically occur in Alzheimer’s disease and is seen in conditions such as progressive supranuclear palsy, Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.
Emotional lability: This is a common feature of fronto-temporal dementia (otherwise known as Pick’s dementia).
Apathetic mood: This is typically a feature of Lewy body disease, but it can also present in other forms of dementia.
Marche à petits pas: It is a short, stepping (often rapid) gait, characteristic of diffuse cerebrovascular disease. It is common to patients with vascular dementia, as is pseudobulbar palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man without significant history presents with complaints of pain in his left forearm and hand that is relieved by changing the position of his arm. During examination, there is a loss of sensation on the medial aspect of his hand, and a cervical rib is suspected. To confirm involvement of the C8 and T1 roots of the brachial plexus rather than a palsy of the ulnar nerve, which motor test should be used?
Your Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger
Correct Answer: Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger
Explanation:Assessing Nerve Lesions: Differentiating Between C8/T1 and Ulnar Nerve Lesions
When assessing for nerve lesions, it is important to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. One way to do this is by testing specific actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves.
Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger is controlled by the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by both the ulnar nerve and the anterior interosseous nerve (a branch of the median nerve) via C8/T1 nerve roots. Weakness in this action would make an ulnar nerve injury unlikely.
Abduction and adduction of the fingers are controlled by the dorsal and palmar interosseous muscles, respectively. These muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots, making testing these actions unable to differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Adduction of the thumb is controlled by the adductor pollicis muscle, which is also innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
Similarly, flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger is controlled by the medial aspect of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve via C8/T1 nerve roots. Testing this action would also not differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion.
In summary, assessing for weakness in flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger can help differentiate between a C8/T1 lesion and an ulnar nerve lesion. Testing other actions controlled by muscles innervated by these nerves would not provide this differentiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of sudden onset of complete right-sided facial weakness that started yesterday. There are no other neurological symptoms observed during the examination. The patient denies any hearing loss and reports only drooling of saliva. Other than that, she is healthy and has no other complaints. An ear examination reveals no abnormalities.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bell's Palsy
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy and Differential Diagnoses
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, unexplained facial nerve paralysis that affects one side of the face. It is more common in individuals with certain risk factors, such as diabetes, obesity, and upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include facial muscle weakness, drooling, speech difficulties, dry mouth, numbness, and ear pain. Treatment focuses on preventing complications, such as eye irritation, and can include eye ointment, lubricating drops, sunglasses, and a soft-food diet. Recovery typically occurs within a few weeks to several months.
Differential diagnoses for Bell’s palsy include stroke, acoustic neuroma, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome, and neurosarcoidosis. Stroke typically spares the forehead muscles, while acoustic neuroma presents with hearing loss, tinnitus, and balance problems. Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is a complication of shingles and includes a vesicular rash, fever, and hearing loss. Neurosarcoidosis is rare and associated with systemic disease. A thorough evaluation is necessary to differentiate these conditions from Bell’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic woman who complains of numbness and tingling in some of her fingers in her right hand. During examination, you observe that she has reduced sensation in her thumb, index and middle fingers in this hand. She also has some weakness in these fingers when she tries to flex them and make a fist, and there is some thenar muscle wasting. Her pulse is 80 bpm with a normal volume, and otherwise her skin, joints and bones appear totally normal.
What is the most likely condition that she is suffering from?Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Hand and Wrist Conditions: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Possibilities
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve is compressed, leading to symptoms such as tingling, numbness, altered sensation, and pain in the thumb, index finger, and half of the middle finger. This condition can be caused by various risk factors, including obesity, overuse of hand and wrist, wrist trauma, and pregnancy. Diagnosis can be made through tests such as Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests, and treatment options range from conservative measures to surgical intervention.
Other possible hand and wrist conditions include radial nerve palsy, peripheral neuropathy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop and an inability to extend the wrist, while peripheral neuropathy typically affects both upper and lower limbs in a glove and stocking distribution of anesthesia. Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of the ulnar nerve and affects the ring and fifth finger, while rheumatoid arthritis tends to be symmetrical and affects the small joints of the hand. Understanding these conditions and their unique features can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.
She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?Your Answer: Intravenous thiamine
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia resulting in multiple hospitalisations is referred to you in a psychiatry ward. She reports feeling generally unwell for several weeks, with increasing stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for the past few years with good symptom control. During examination, her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What drug treatments would you consider for her condition?
Your Answer: Benzatropine
Correct Answer: Dantrolene
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome vs Serotonin Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. Concurrent use of lithium or anticholinergics may increase the risk of NMS. Symptoms include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the offending medication and using antipyretics to reduce body temperature. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be helpful.
Serotonin syndrome is a differential diagnosis for NMS, but the two can be distinguished through a thorough history and examination. NMS develops over days and weeks, while serotonin syndrome can develop within 24 hours. Serotonin syndrome causes neuromuscular hyperreactivity, such as myoclonus, tremors, and hyperreflexia, while NMS involves sluggish neuromuscular response, such as bradyreflexia and rigidity. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus are rare in NMS, and resolution of NMS takes up to nine days, while serotonin syndrome usually resolves within 24 hours.
Despite these differences, both conditions share common symptoms in severe cases, such as hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, leukocytosis, elevated CK, altered hepatic function, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, a thorough history and physical examination are crucial in distinguishing between the two syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion?
Your Answer: Masked facies
Correct Answer: Cogwheel rigidity
Explanation:Neurological Features of Extrapyramidal and Pyramidal Involvement
Cogwheel rigidity is a characteristic of extrapyramidal involvement, specifically in the basal ganglia. This type of rigidity is commonly observed in individuals with parkinsonism. On the other hand, pyramidal (corticospinal) involvement is characterized by increased tone, exaggerated spinal reflexes, and extensor plantar responses. These features are distinct from Cogwheel rigidity and are indicative of a different type of neurological involvement. the differences between extrapyramidal and pyramidal involvement can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Correct
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What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?
Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression
Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.
The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?
Your Answer: T8 and aortic opening in the diaphragm
Correct Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks and Openings
The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness. Her conscious state is formally assessed. She withdraws to a painful stimulus and is mumbling incoherent words randomly, irrespective of people attempting to speak to her in conversation, and her eyes open only in response to painful stimuli.
What is the breakdown of this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?Your Answer: Motor response 3/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4
Correct Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale: Interpreting a Patient’s Level of Consciousness
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It consists of three scores: best motor response, best verbal response, and eye opening response. Each score is given a value out of a maximum score, and the total score is used to determine the patient’s level of consciousness.
In this case, the patient’s motor response is a score of 4 out of 6, indicating a withdrawal response to pain. The verbal response is a score of 3 out of 5, indicating mumbling words or nonsense. The eye opening response is a score of 2 out of 4, indicating opening to pain. Therefore, the patient’s total GCS score is 9, indicating a comatose state.
It is important to understand the GCS and how to interpret the scores in order to properly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and provide appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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