-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 55-year-old female is referred to the cardiologist by her GP due to experiencing postural dyspnoea and leg oedema for a few months. The cardiologist conducts an echocardiogram and finds out that her left ventricular ejection fraction is 34%. Based on her clinical presentation, she is diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure.
To alleviate her symptoms and improve her long-term prognosis, the patient is prescribed several medications. However, she visits the GP after two weeks, complaining of a dry, tickling cough that she attributes to one of her new medications.
Which medication is most likely causing this new symptom in the patient?Your Answer: Ramipril (ACE inhibitor)
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which of the following is not a hepatic artery branch?
Your Answer: Pancreatic artery
Explanation:The Coeliac Axis and its Branches
The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.
The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dyspnoea and fatigue that has been going on for 2 days. She reports experiencing similar episodes repeatedly over the past few years. She has no other medical history.
During the examination, you observe sporadic erythematous lesions on her shins and detect a pansystolic murmur. You request a chest x-ray, which reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and an enlarged heart.
What additional symptom is linked to this ailment?Your Answer: Reduced ventricular ejection fraction
Explanation:Patients with reduced ejection fraction heart failure (HF-rEF) usually experience systolic dysfunction, which refers to the impaired ability of the myocardium to contract during systole.
Types of Heart Failure
Heart failure is a clinical syndrome where the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s metabolic needs. It can be classified in multiple ways, including by ejection fraction, time, and left/right side. Patients with heart failure may have a normal or abnormal left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), which is measured using echocardiography. Reduced LVEF is typically defined as < 35 to 40% and is termed heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HF-rEF), while preserved LVEF is termed heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HF-pEF). Heart failure can also be described as acute or chronic, with acute heart failure referring to an acute exacerbation of chronic heart failure. Left-sided heart failure is more common and may be due to increased left ventricular afterload or preload, while right-sided heart failure is caused by increased right ventricular afterload or preload. High-output heart failure is another type of heart failure that occurs when a normal heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's metabolic needs. By classifying heart failure in these ways, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying causes and tailor treatment plans accordingly. It is important to note that many guidelines for the management of heart failure only cover HF-rEF patients and do not address the management of HF-pEF patients. Understanding the different types of heart failure can help healthcare professionals provide more effective care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with increasing dyspnea on exertion and swelling in both legs. A recent outpatient echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 31%. During chest examination, an extra heart sound is detected just prior to the first.
What is the cause of this additional heart sound?Your Answer: Retrograde flow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium
Correct Answer: Atria contracting forcefully to overcome an abnormally stiff ventricle
Explanation:The presence of S4, which sounds like a ‘gallop rhythm’, can be heard after S2 and in conjunction with a third heart sound. However, if the ventricles are contracting against a stiffened aorta, it would not produce a significant heart sound during this phase of the cardiac cycle. Any sound that may be heard in this scenario would occur between the first and second heart sounds during systole, and it would also cause a raised pulse pressure and be visible on chest X-ray as calcification. Delayed closure of the aortic valve could cause a split second heart sound, but it would appear around the time of S2, not before S1. On the other hand, retrograde flow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium, known as tricuspid regurgitation, would cause a systolic murmur instead of an additional isolated heart sound. This condition is often caused by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users or a history of rheumatic fever.
Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man with a stable angina history for two years visits his cardiologist for a regular check-up. During the review, the cardiologist observes that the patient's heart rate is low at 46 bpm. As a result, the cardiologist decides to replace his beta-blocker with a new anti-anginal drug called nicorandil.
What is the mode of action of the patient's new medication?Your Answer: Calcium channel activator through activation of guanylyl cyclase
Correct Answer: Potassium channel activator through activation of guanylyl cyclase
Explanation:Nicorandil activates potassium channels, leading to vasodilation. This activation triggers guanylyl cyclase, which increases the production of cyclic GMP (cGMP) and activates protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates and inhibits GTPase RhoA, reducing Rho-kinase activity and increasing myosin phosphatase activity. As a result, the smooth muscle becomes less sensitive to calcium, leading to dilation of the large coronary arteries and improved perfusion. Nicorandil does not significantly affect calcium or sodium channels. This mechanism helps alleviate anginal symptoms.
Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old patient with chronic kidney disease is diagnosed with antithrombin III deficiency after presenting to the emergency department with left leg pain and swelling. A doppler-ultrasound scan confirms the presence of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient is prescribed dabigatran. What is the mechanism of action of dabigatran?
Your Answer: P2Y12 inhibitor
Correct Answer: Direct thrombin inhibitor
Explanation:Dabigatran inhibits thrombin directly, while heparin activates antithrombin III. Clopidogrel is a P2Y12 inhibitor, Abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor, and Rivaroxaban is a direct factor X inhibitor.
Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications
Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran does not require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Linda is a 54-year-old woman who was admitted with a 3-day history of worsening shortness of breath. On her last admission 6 months ago, she was treated for a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
She does not experience any significant chest pain. A chest X-ray shows minor bibasal consolidation suggestive of mild pulmonary oedema. Her blood tests are as follow:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)
A 12-lead electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm. An echocardiogram shows reduced left ventricular (LV) contraction with an LV ejection fraction of 40%.
Which of the following treatments should be prescribed to reduce mortality?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:For patients diagnosed with heart failure with reduced LVEF, the initial treatment should involve administering a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor. In the case of the patient in question, the symptoms and echocardiogram results indicate the onset of LV failure, which is likely due to their previous STEMI. Therefore, the recommended course of action is to prescribe an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker as the primary therapy. This will help alleviate the symptoms of heart failure by reducing the after-load on the heart.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Mrs. Smith is a 75-year-old woman who presents to the emergency department with progressive shortness of breath over the past 5 days. Last night she woke up suddenly because she couldn't catch her breath and developed a dry cough. Her breathing improved when she sat upright on the edge of her bed. She denies any chest pain, leg pain or fainting spells.
Her past medical history includes a myocardial infarction 5 years ago for which she underwent a coronary artery bypass graft, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She has been smoking for 30 years and doesn't drink any alcohol.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Left-sided heart failure
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for a patient experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea is left-sided heart failure. This symptom, which involves sudden waking at night due to shortness of breath, is a common feature of heart failure, particularly on the left side. Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms. Right-sided heart failure is also an unlikely diagnosis as it presents with different features such as raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly.
Features of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. It is characterized by several features that can help in its diagnosis. Dyspnoea, or shortness of breath, is a common symptom of chronic heart failure. Patients may also experience coughing, which can be worse at night and accompanied by pink or frothy sputum. Orthopnoea, or difficulty breathing while lying down, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, or sudden shortness of breath at night, are also common symptoms.
Another feature of chronic heart failure is the presence of a wheeze, known as a cardiac wheeze. Patients may also experience weight loss, known as cardiac cachexia, which occurs in up to 15% of patients. However, this may be hidden by weight gained due to oedema. On examination, bibasal crackles may be heard, and signs of right-sided heart failure, such as a raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly, may be present.
In summary, chronic heart failure is a condition that can be identified by several features, including dyspnoea, coughing, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, wheezing, weight loss, bibasal crackles, and signs of right-sided heart failure. Early recognition and management of these symptoms can help improve outcomes for patients with chronic heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman is scheduled to begin taking warfarin. Prior to starting this medication, her other medications are reviewed for potential contraindications. Is there any medication that should be reconsidered or adjusted before initiating warfarin therapy?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Before prescribing warfarin to a patient, it is crucial to thoroughly check for potential interactions with other medications. Warfarin is metabolized by cytochrome P450 enzymes in the liver, which means that medications that affect this enzyme system can impact warfarin metabolism.
Certain medications, such as NSAIDs, antibiotics like erythromycin and ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, and SSRIs like fluoxetine, can inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes and slow down warfarin metabolism, leading to increased effects.
On the other hand, medications like phenytoin, carbamazepine, and rifampicin can induce cytochrome P450 enzymes and speed up warfarin metabolism, resulting in decreased effects.
However, medications like simvastatin, salmeterol, bisoprolol, and losartan do not interfere with warfarin and can be safely prescribed alongside it.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 54-year-old male presents to the hospital with a chief complaint of central chest pain, accompanied by nausea and sweating that has been ongoing for two hours. After eight hours of the onset of the pain, the following result is obtained:
Troponin T 30.8 ug/L (<10)
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Explanation:Elevated Troponin T as a Marker of Cardiac Injury
This patient’s troponin T concentration is significantly elevated, indicating cardiac injury. Troponin T is a component of the cardiac myocyte and is normally undetectable. Elevated levels of troponin T are highly specific to cardiac injury and are more reliable than creatinine kinase, which is less specific. Troponin T levels increase in acute coronary syndromes, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction.
In this patient’s case, the elevated troponin T suggests a myocardial infarction (MI) due to the symptoms presented. Troponin T can be detected within a few hours of an MI and peaks at 14 hours after the onset of pain. It may peak again several days later and remain elevated for up to 10 days. Therefore, it is a good test for acute MI but not as reliable for recurrent MI in the first week. CK-MB may be useful in this case as it starts to rise 10-24 hours after an MI and disappears after three to four days.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include aortic dissection, which causes tearing chest pain that often radiates to the back with hypotension. ECG changes are not always present. Myocarditis causes chest pain that improves with steroids or NSAIDs and a rise in troponin levels, with similar ECG changes to a STEMI. There may also be reciprocal lead ST depression and PR depression. Pulmonary embolism presents with shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, hypoxia, and hemoptysis. Pericardial effusion presents with similar symptoms to pericarditis, with Kussmaul’s sign typically present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Where is troponin T located within the body?
Your Answer: Skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: Heart
Explanation:Troponin and Its Significance in Cardiac Health
Troponin is an enzyme that is specific to the heart and is used to detect injury to the heart muscle. It is commonly measured in patients who present with chest pain that may be related to heart problems. Elevated levels of troponin can indicate a heart attack or other acute coronary syndromes. However, it is important to note that troponin levels may also be slightly elevated in other conditions such as renal failure, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, and large pulmonary embolism.
Troponin is a crucial marker in the diagnosis and management of cardiac conditions. It is a reliable indicator of heart muscle damage and can help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for their patients. Additionally, troponin levels can provide prognostic information, allowing doctors to predict the likelihood of future cardiac events. It is important for individuals to understand the significance of troponin in their cardiac health and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms of heart problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing severe dizziness, vertigo, slurred speech, and nausea with vomiting. The diagnosis reveals a basilar artery stroke. Which blood vessels combine to form the affected artery?
Your Answer: Anterior inferior cerebellar arteries
Correct Answer: Vertebral arteries
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 87-year-old male with chronic untreated hypertension arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. Upon examination of his ECG, it is observed that there are tall QRS complexes throughout the entire ECG with elevated R-waves in the left-sided leads. What condition does this suggest?
Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVF)
Explanation:ST elevation is expected in the leads corresponding to the affected part of the heart in an STEMI, while ST depression, T wave inversion, or no change is expected in an NSTEMI or angina. Dilated cardiomyopathy does not have any classical ECG changes, and it is not commonly associated with hypertension as LVF. LVF, on the other hand, causes left ventricular hypertrophy due to prolonged hypertension, resulting in an increase in R-wave amplitude in leads 1, aVL, and V4-6, as well as an increase in S wave depth in leads III, aVR, and V1-3 on the right side.
ECG Indicators of Atrial and Ventricular Hypertrophy
Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicated on an ECG when the sum of the S wave in V1 and the R wave in V5 or V6 exceeds 40 mm. Meanwhile, right ventricular hypertrophy is characterized by a dominant R wave in V1 and a deep S wave in V6. In terms of atrial hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement is indicated by a bifid P wave in lead II with a duration of more than 120 ms, as well as a negative terminal portion in the P wave in V1. On the other hand, right atrial enlargement is characterized by tall P waves in both II and V1 that exceed 0.25 mV. These ECG indicators can help diagnose and monitor patients with atrial and ventricular hypertrophy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements relating to the basilar artery and its branches is false?
Your Answer: The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest of the cerebellar arteries arising from the basilar artery
Explanation:The largest of the cerebellar arteries that originates from the vertebral artery is the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. The labyrinthine artery, which is thin and lengthy, may emerge from the lower section of the basilar artery. It travels alongside the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves into the internal auditory meatus. The posterior cerebral artery is frequently bigger than the superior cerebellar artery and is separated from the vessel, close to its source, by the oculomotor nerve. Arterial decompression is a widely accepted treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 30-year-old male patient complains of shortness of breath, weight loss, and night sweats for the past six weeks. Despite being generally healthy, he has been experiencing these symptoms. During the examination, the patient's fingers show clubbing, and his temperature is 37.8°C. His pulse is 88 bpm, and his blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. A pansystolic murmur is audible upon auscultation of the heart. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infective endocarditis
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Young Man with Night Sweats and Clubbing of Fingers
This young man has been experiencing night sweats and has clubbing of the fingers, which suggests a long history of illness. These symptoms, along with the presence of a murmur, point towards a possible diagnosis of infective endocarditis. Other symptoms that may be present in such cases include splinter haemorrhages in the nails, Roth spots in the eyes, and Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions in the palms and fingers of the hands.
In summary, the combination of night sweats, clubbing of fingers, and a murmur in a young man may indicate infective endocarditis. It is important to look for other symptoms such as splinter haemorrhages, Roth spots, Osler’s nodes, and Janeway lesions to confirm the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman who is 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby is worried about the possibility of her child having a congenital heart defect. She was born with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) herself and wants to know what treatment options are available for this condition.
What treatment will you recommend if her baby is diagnosed with PDA?Your Answer: The baby receives prostaglandin E1 as a neonate
Correct Answer: The baby receives indomethacin as a neonate
Explanation:The preferred treatment for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in neonates is indomethacin or ibuprofen, administered after birth. While PDA is more common in premature infants, a family history of heart defects can increase the risk. Diagnosis typically occurs during postnatal baby checks, often due to the presence of a murmur or symptoms of heart failure. Doing nothing is not a recommended approach, as spontaneous closure is rare. Surgery may be necessary if medical management is unsuccessful. Prostaglandin E1 is not the best answer, as it is typically used in cases where PDA is associated with another congenital heart defect. Indomethacin or ibuprofen are not given to the mother during the antenatal period.
Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.
This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.
The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A nursing student is being consented for a parathyroidectomy for symptomatic hyperparathyroidism. The parathyroid gland consists of 2 superior and 2 inferior glands. The patient is informed that all four glands will be removed in order to achieve a complete resolution of her symptoms. You explain to her that the superior and inferior glands are derived from different structures.
From which one of the following embryological structures are the superior parathyroid glands derived from?Your Answer: Second pharyngeal pouch
Correct Answer: Fourth pharyngeal pouch
Explanation:The superior parathyroid glands are formed from the fourth pharyngeal pouch during embryonic development. The pharyngeal pouches develop between the branchial arches, with the first pouch located between the first and second arches. There are four pairs of pouches, with the fifth pouch being either absent or very small. A helpful mnemonic to remember the derivatives of the four pharyngeal pouches is 1A, 2P, 3 TIP, 4 SUB. This stands for the auditory tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum for the first pouch; the crypts of the palatine tonsil for the second pouch; the thymus and inferior parathyroid gland for the third pouch; and the superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body for the fourth pouch.
Anatomy and Development of the Parathyroid Glands
The parathyroid glands are four small glands located posterior to the thyroid gland within the pretracheal fascia. They develop from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, with those derived from the fourth pouch located more superiorly and associated with the thyroid gland, while those from the third pouch lie more inferiorly and may become associated with the thymus.
The blood supply to the parathyroid glands is derived from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries, with a rich anastomosis between the two vessels. Venous drainage is into the thyroid veins. The parathyroid glands are surrounded by various structures, with the common carotid laterally, the recurrent laryngeal nerve and trachea medially, and the thyroid anteriorly. Understanding the anatomy and development of the parathyroid glands is important for their proper identification and preservation during surgical procedures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 36-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of chest pain that has been present for a week. The pain worsens when he breathes in and is relieved when he sits forward. He also has a non-productive cough. He recently had a viral infection. An ECG was performed and showed global saddle-shaped ST elevation.
Your Answer: Acute pericarditis
Explanation:Chest pain that is relieved by sitting or leaning forward is often a symptom of acute pericarditis. This condition is commonly caused by a viral infection and may also present with flu-like symptoms, non-productive cough, and dyspnea. ECG changes may show a saddle-shaped ST elevation.
Cardiac tamponade, on the other hand, is characterized by Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds. Dyspnea and tachycardia may also be present.
A myocardial infarction is unlikely if the chest pain has been present for a week, as it typically presents more acutely and with constant chest pain regardless of body positioning. ECG changes would also occur in specific territories rather than globally.
A pneumothorax presents with sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, and sweating. No ECG changes would be observed.
A pulmonary embolism typically presents with acute onset tachypnea, fever, tachycardia, and crackles. Signs of deep vein thrombosis may also be present.
Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management
Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.
The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.
Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.
Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.
In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman has been prescribed amiodarone. She has been advised to take higher doses initially and then switch to a lower maintenance dose for long-term use.
What is the rationale behind this initial dosing regimen?Your Answer: Extensive hepatic P450 breakdown of amiodarone
Correct Answer: Slow metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive lipid binding
Explanation:A loading dose is necessary for amiodarone to achieve therapeutic levels quickly before transitioning to a maintenance dose. This is because a 50mg once daily maintenance dose would take a long time to reach the required 1000mg for therapeutic effect. The fast metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive protein binding, extensive hepatic P450 breakdown, and slow absorption via the enteral route are not the reasons for a loading regime.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
As a medical student on placement in the pathology lab, I observed the pathologist examining a section of a blood vessel. I wondered, what distinguishes the tunica media from the tunica adventitia?
Your Answer: Endothelium
Correct Answer: External elastic lamina
Explanation:Artery Histology: Layers of Blood Vessel Walls
The wall of a blood vessel is composed of three layers: the tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica adventitia. The innermost layer, the tunica intima, is made up of endothelial cells that are separated by gap junctions. The middle layer, the tunica media, contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and from the adventitia by the external elastic lamina. The outermost layer, the tunica adventitia, contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen. This layer is responsible for providing support and protection to the blood vessel. The vasa vasorum are small blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the larger blood vessels. The fibroblast and collagen provide structural support to the vessel wall. Understanding the histology of arteries is important in diagnosing and treating various cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)