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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.4 g/dl
- Platelets (Plt): 278 * 109/l
- White blood cell count (WCC): 6.3 * 109/l
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 fl
- Hemoglobin A2 (HbA2): 4.5% (< 3%)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait
Explanation:When a female presents with microcytic anaemia, it is important to consider potential causes such as gastrointestinal bleeding or menorrhagia. However, if there is no history of these conditions and the microcytosis is not proportional to the haemoglobin level, beta-thalassaemia trait should be considered as a possible diagnosis, especially if HbA2 levels are elevated.
Understanding Beta-Thalassaemia Trait
Beta-thalassaemia trait is a genetic disorder that affects the production rate of beta chains. It is an autosomal recessive condition that results in a mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia. This condition is usually asymptomatic, meaning that it does not show any noticeable symptoms. However, it is important to note that microcytosis is characteristically disproportionate to the anaemia. Additionally, individuals with beta-thalassaemia trait have raised levels of HbA2, which is typically greater than 3.5%. Understanding beta-thalassaemia trait is crucial for individuals who may be carriers of this genetic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with a DVT 2 weeks after undergoing a hip replacement surgery, despite being on prophylactic dose LMWH. She has a history of osteoarthritis but no other significant medical history. The treatment for her DVT is started with LMWH. What is the best anticoagulation plan for her?
Your Answer: Switch to direct oral anticoagulant for 3 months
Explanation:For cases of venous thromboembolism that are provoked, such as those resulting from recent surgery, a standard length of warfarin treatment is 3 months. However, for unprovoked cases, the recommended length of treatment is 6 months.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is undergoing chemotherapy treatment. During the physical examination, a third heart sound is heard and the apex beat is displaced to the anterior axillary line in the 6th intercostal space. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Doxorubicin
Explanation:Cardiomyopathy can be caused by anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient comes to the clinic after discovering a lump in her right breast. She is uncertain about how long it has been there and reports no pain or other symptoms. She has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass of approximately 2 cm in diameter is palpated. The patient is immediately referred for imaging, which reveals a small, lobulated lesion measuring about 2.5cm in width, highly suggestive of a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Reassurance and monitoring
Explanation:A young patient has a small fibroadenoma <3 cm, which is highly suggestive on imaging. There is no increase in the risk of breast cancer, so a core-needle biopsy is not necessary. Watchful waiting is appropriate, and cryoablation may be used for larger fibroadenomas. Fine-needle aspiration is only necessary for larger lumps or in older patients. Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30. Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended. In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents to the infertility clinic with a low sperm count and suspected left varicocele, as noted by his GP. He also has a history of hypertension treated with ramipril and has been experiencing night sweats intermittently over the past few months. His FBC shows anaemia and his ESR is markedly raised. Additionally, haematuria is present on urinalysis. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Renal Cell Carcinoma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that often presents with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass. However, other symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and pyrexia may also occur. In some cases, paraneoplastic symptoms like a raised ESR may be present. Diagnosis involves FBC to check for anaemia or polycythaemia. Left-sided varicocele may also occur due to tumour invasion of the left renal vein. Prognosis depends on the tumour stage at diagnosis, with a 5-year survival rate of 60-70% for tumours confined to the renal parenchyma, 15-35% for lymph node involvement, and only 5% for distant metastases. It is important to differentiate renal cell carcinoma from other conditions such as lymphoma, multiple myeloma, testicular carcinoma, and chronic urinary tract infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman who recently finished a round of chemotherapy reports experiencing tingling sensations and difficulty using her hands. Additionally, she has noticed hesitancy in her urinary function. Which specific cytotoxic medication is the likely culprit for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Vincristine
Explanation:Peripheral neuropathy is a known side effect of Vincristine. Additionally, bladder atony may cause urinary hesitancy.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year. He reports difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection with his new partner, which is a new symptom for him. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ferritin levels. The patient is started on a treatment plan that involves regular phlebotomies.
What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's response to treatment?Your Answer: Serum iron and transferrin saturations
Correct Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation
Explanation:To monitor treatment in haemochromatosis, the most effective combination of iron tests is ferritin and transferrin saturation. These tests can track the response to treatment by measuring total iron stores and the amount of serum iron bound to proteins in the blood. However, serum transferrin and serum iron are not reliable indicators of treatment response as they fluctuate throughout the day and are affected by diet and phlebotomies. Therefore, using ferritin and serum transferrin or serum iron would not be the most useful combination for monitoring haemochromatosis. Similarly, using serum iron and serum transferrin together would not provide any insight into treatment monitoring. The most appropriate and effective combination is ferritin and transferrin saturation.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the Haematology Clinic with symptoms of bone pain and anaemia. The medical team suspects multiple myeloma (MM) and orders a set of blood tests, including a full blood count, urea, serum creatinine and electrolytes, serum calcium, albumin, serum protein electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and serum beta-2 microglobulin. The team also plans to perform an imaging investigation to look for osteolytic lesions. What initial scan should be ordered?
Your Answer: PET with 2-deoxy-2-[fluorine-18]fluoro-D-glucose integrated with computed tomography (FDG-PET-CT)
Correct Answer: Whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT)
Explanation:When investigating suspected multiple myeloma (MM), it is crucial to use whole-body low-dose CT (WBLD-CT) imaging. This method is more effective than traditional radiology in detecting lytic lesions and should be the first option if available. Lesions with a diameter of 5mm or more are considered positive. If WBLD-CT and MRI fail to show lesions with a strong clinical indication, an FDG-PET or FDG-PET-CT can be used to detect bone lesions. During treatment follow-up, an FDG-PET-CT can detect active lesions and provide prognostic information. While a skeletal survey (X-ray) is less sensitive than WBLD-CT, it can still be useful. If suspicion remains high for MM despite negative WBLD-CT or skeletal survey results, a whole-body MRI should be performed. This method can detect focal lesions and bone marrow infiltration and may also be of prognostic value in asymptomatic patients. The presence of focal lesions is a strong predictor of progression to symptomatic MM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old woman presents to the Haematology Clinic to review her latest blood test results. These show that her international normalised ratio (INR) is 8.9 (normal range: 2–3). She usually takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The patient's General Practitioner has telephoned her to advise that she stop taking the warfarin. The patient says that she feels well and is asymptomatic.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Give vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in one week
Correct Answer: Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours
Explanation:Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Treatment Options
When a patient on warfarin presents with a high INR level, it is important to take immediate action to prevent spontaneous bleeding and haemorrhage. Here are some treatment options and their implications:
1. Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: Administering vitamin K is necessary to reverse the effects of warfarin, which is a vitamin K antagonist. In this situation, it is important to act quickly to reduce the INR level and prevent haemorrhage.
2. Give intramuscular (IM) vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: While IM vitamin K can be given in cases where peripheral access is difficult, it is slower acting. In a situation with a high INR level, it is important to reduce the INR as soon as possible to prevent haemorrhage.
3. Give vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in one week: While giving vitamin K is necessary to prevent spontaneous haemorrhage, it is important to recheck the INR relatively soon to ensure it has dropped below the required range. Waiting a week would be too long, and the INR should be rechecked within 24 hours of administering vitamin K.
4. Stop warfarin for life: If the patient has no actual side-effects from warfarin, such as anaphylaxis, they can continue to use it long-term with tighter control.
5. Switch from warfarin to aspirin: Aspirin cannot be used as a substitute for warfarin as it does not prevent thrombosis.
In conclusion, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires prompt action to prevent haemorrhage. Vitamin K administration is necessary, and the INR level should be rechecked within 24 hours to ensure it has dropped below the required range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with a breast lump. The lump is painless and she reports first noticing it 3 weeks ago. During examination, a hard, non-mobile lump measuring 2cm x 2cm is detected in the upper, outer quadrant of her right breast. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent suspected cancer referral to the breast team
Explanation:If a woman over the age of 30 presents with an unexplained breast lump, it is important to refer her urgently to the breast team using a suspected cancer pathway referral. It is important to inform the patient that they are being referred to a cancer service, but also explain that not all referrals to cancer services result in a cancer diagnosis. It is incorrect to perform a biopsy as an initial investigation, as this will be done in secondary care. While fibroadenoma is a common cause of breast lumps in young women, urgent referral to the breast team is necessary to rule out cancer in patients over 30 years old. It is not appropriate to schedule a GP review in 2 weeks, as this lump needs prompt investigation by the breast team.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is found to have a proximal deep vein thrombosis four weeks after undergoing surgery for a broken ankle. She is prescribed warfarin (initially accompanied by low molecular weight heparin) with a desired INR range of 2.0-3.0. What other treatment option should be presented to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No additional treatment other than routine care
Explanation:Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis
Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.
In the past, compression stockings were offered to patients with DVT to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome. However, current recommendations state that elastic graduated compression stockings should not be used to prevent post-thrombotic syndrome or VTE recurrence after a proximal DVT. This recommendation does not cover the use of elastic stockings for the management of leg symptoms after DVT.
Once post-thrombotic syndrome has developed, compression stockings are a recommended treatment. Other recommendations include keeping the leg elevated. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the potential complications of DVT and to provide appropriate management to prevent the development of post-thrombotic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman, who is currently four weeks into a course of postoperative radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma, is admitted with abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radiation enteritis
Explanation:Understanding Radiation Enteritis and Other Possible Causes of Bowel Symptoms
Radiation enteritis is a condition that occurs when the bowel becomes inflamed due to radiation therapy. It can manifest as ileitis, colitis, or proctitis, and can be acute or chronic. Acute radiation enteritis typically occurs during therapy and presents with symptoms such as anorexia, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Chronic radiation enteritis, on the other hand, can develop months or years after treatment and may cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, and small bowel obstruction.
While radiation enteritis is a likely cause of bowel symptoms in patients who have undergone radiation therapy, other conditions should also be considered. Bowel obstruction, for example, can cause nausea, vomiting, and bloating, but does not typically cause diarrhoea. Local malignant infiltration to the bowel may present with obstruction, while bowel perforation is a medical emergency that causes peritonitis and sepsis.
In summary, understanding the possible causes of bowel symptoms is important in determining the appropriate treatment for patients. While radiation enteritis is a common consequence of radiation therapy, other conditions such as bowel obstruction, local malignant infiltration, and bowel perforation should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with complaints of weight loss and fatigue that have been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, the only notable finding is pallor. A blood film reveals the presence of immature blasts, and genetic testing shows the presence of a chromosomal translocation t(9;22) - the Philadelphia chromosome. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb of 95 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), leukocytes of 62 Ă— 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 Ă— 109/l), and PLT of 101 Ă— 109/l (normal range: 150-400 Ă— 109/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a rare form of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of myeloid precursors or blasts. This leads to an increase in white blood cells and a decrease in the normal functions of the bone marrow, resulting in anaemia and thrombocytopenia. CML is most commonly seen in people between the ages of 60 and 70 and has a slow onset that can last for months or even years. The majority of cases are caused by a genetic mutation called the Philadelphia chromosome, which produces a protein that promotes the growth of cancer cells. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, abdominal distension, and left upper quadrant pain. Treatment for CML involves inhibiting the genetic mutation with a drug called imatinib.
Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of immature lymphocytes, which replace the normal cells of the bone marrow and lead to a decrease in blood cell production. ALL is most commonly seen in children and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, fever, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow biopsy and genetic analysis, which can reveal chromosomal abnormalities associated with the disease.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is a type of cancer that typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes and is associated with the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B cells. Multiple myeloma (MM) is a cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in blood cell production and other symptoms such as hypercalcemia and kidney dysfunction. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) is a type of cancer that arises from the abnormal growth of B cells, T cells, or natural killer cells and can be caused by genetic mutations, infections, or chronic inflammation. Symptoms of NHL include enlarged lymph nodes throughout the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with known ovarian cancer presented to the emergency department complaining of severe right leg pain since yesterday. She had a hysterectomy 1 month ago.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DVT (deep-vein thrombosis)
Explanation:After undergoing surgery, a woman presents with leg pain. Several potential causes are considered, including deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), acute limb ischaemia, air embolus, lumbar disc herniation, and paradoxical embolus. Based on the patient’s risk factors and symptoms, DVT is deemed the most likely diagnosis. Other causes are ruled out due to lack of relevant history or low probability. Understanding the possible causes of leg pain after urological surgery can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide timely treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule with significant fatigue and frequent infections over the past six months. His blood results confirm a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) with a 17p chromosome deletion.
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acalabrutinib
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released new guidelines for managing newly diagnosed CLL in adults. Acalabrutinib is recommended as a monotherapy option if the patient has a 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, or if fludarabine plus cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) or bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are unsuitable. Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid commonly used in treating lymphoma, has no role in managing CLL. If there is no 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, FCR or BR would be the most appropriate first-line treatment. Conservative management is not recommended as the patient has developed signs of bone marrow dysfunction. Imatinib, the first-line treatment for CML, would not be useful for CLL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a 12-year history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease presents with dysphagia. Upon endoscopy, an obstructive lesion is observed that is highly suspicious of oesophageal cancer. What is the expected result of the biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s esophagus are linked to the development of oesophageal adenocarcinoma.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and lack of energy. She has a 1-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding with excessive blood loss. She is clinically anaemic.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
Haematocrit 28% 36–47%
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 70 fl 80–100 fl
Mean cell haemoglobin (MCH) 25 pg 28–32 pg
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin volume (MCHC) 300 g/l 320–350 g/d
White cell count (WCC) 7.5 × 109/l 4.0–11.0× 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 400× 109/l 150–400× 109/l
What is the most appropriate dietary advice for this patient?
Select the SINGLE advice option from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should increase her intake of vitamin C-rich and iron-rich food
Explanation:To address her iron-deficiency anaemia, the patient should consume more foods rich in vitamin C and iron. Vitamin C can increase iron absorption by up to 10 times and maintain iron in its ferrous form. However, she should avoid breakfast cereals and white breads as they are often fortified with iron. Tea should also be avoided during meals or when taking iron supplements as it contains tannin, which reduces iron absorption. While a vegetarian diet can still provide non-haem iron, it is important to consume a variety of iron-rich plant-based foods. A gluten-free diet is only necessary if coeliac disease is present, which is unlikely in this case as the patient’s iron-deficiency anaemia is likely due to menorrhagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of unexplained weight loss and vague symptoms. During the examination, the GP detects a suspicious lump on her neck and refers her urgently to ENT. To expedite the process, the GP conducts several investigations and observes a significant elevation in calcitonin levels. Which type of cancer is associated with calcitonin as a tumor marker?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medullary thyroid cancer
Explanation:The presence of calcitonin in the blood can indicate the presence of medullary thyroid cancer, as this type of cancer originates from the parafollicular cells that produce calcitonin. Therefore, calcitonin is considered a tumor marker for medullary thyroid cancer.
Understanding Tumour Markers
Tumour markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor cancer, as well as to determine the effectiveness of treatment. Tumour markers can be divided into different categories, including monoclonal antibodies against carbohydrate or glycoprotein tumour antigens, tumour antigens, enzymes, and hormones.
Monoclonal antibodies are used to target specific tumour antigens, which are proteins or other molecules that are found on the surface of cancer cells. Some common tumour markers include CA 125 for ovarian cancer, CA 19-9 for pancreatic cancer, and CA 15-3 for breast cancer. However, it is important to note that tumour markers usually have a low specificity, meaning that they can also be found in people without cancer.
Tumour antigens are proteins that are produced by cancer cells and can be detected in the blood or tissues of people with cancer. Some examples of tumour antigens include prostate specific antigen (PSA) for prostatic carcinoma, alpha-feto protein (AFP) for hepatocellular carcinoma and teratoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer.
Enzymes and hormones can also be used as tumour markers. For example, alkaline phosphatase and neurone specific enolase are enzymes that can be elevated in people with cancer, while hormones such as calcitonin and ADH can be used to detect certain types of cancer.
In summary, tumour markers are an important tool in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer. However, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and imaging studies, as they are not always specific to cancer and can also be elevated in people without cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease
Explanation:Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease
Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.
There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of left breast cancer and had undergone local wide excision recently. She is scheduled to begin radiotherapy soon. After a diagnostic workup, it was discovered that she has a segmental pulmonary embolism. Her blood tests indicate good renal function. What is the most suitable treatment option for this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:For cancer patients with VTE, the recommended treatment is a DOAC for a period of 6 months. Among the DOACs, apixaban is the most suitable option as it has been found to have a lower risk of bleeding complications compared to LMWH and VKA. Moreover, patients taking apixaban can benefit from oral treatment and avoid frequent monitoring required with other anticoagulation treatments. Studies have also shown that apixaban is the most cost-effective option as it results in fewer bleeds.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nose bleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30. A full blood count reveals Hb of 11.7 g/dl, platelets of 62 * 109/l, and WCC of 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.
To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.
In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman presents to the clinic after undergoing a lumpectomy for a cancerous lump in her left breast. The histopathology report indicates that the tissue was oestrogen receptor-positive, and the patient is offered anastrozole therapy as adjuvant treatment. She has no significant medical history and is not currently taking any medications. The patient is eager to begin the recommended adjuvant therapy. What diagnostic tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DEXA scan
Explanation:Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is a recommended adjuvant therapy for patients with oestrogen positive cancer (ER+). However, it may lead to osteoporosis as an adverse effect. Therefore, NICE recommends performing a DEXA scan before initiating therapy. A clotting screen is not necessary before starting anastrozole, as it does not cause coagulopathies. ECGs are not required either, as cardiac changes and arrhythmias are not associated with this medication. Unlike certain medications like statins, anastrozole is not known to commonly affect lipid profiles, so it does not need to be monitored. Liver function tests are also not routinely assessed before starting anastrozole, as it is not known to affect liver function. However, it would have been appropriate to send a clotting screen before the patient’s lumpectomy.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 10.0 g/dl and a white cell count of 23 Ă— 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL)
Explanation:Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Characteristics and Symptoms
Leukaemia and lymphoma are both types of blood cancer, but they have distinct characteristics and symptoms. In this context, we will discuss the characteristics and symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL), and multiple myeloma (MM).
CLL is the most common leukaemia in adults, characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients are often asymptomatic, and CLL is often picked up incidentally.
ALL is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults.
CML tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group. A classic symptom is a massive hepatosplenomegaly. Blood film would show PMNs, basophils, and myelocytes.
HL is a possibility in this age group; however, the question asks for the ‘most likely’ diagnosis, which would be CLL as it is more common in this age group and the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis.
MM is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and does not present in the way described above. Bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia are common presentations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of left hip pain. There is no history of recent trauma, but the patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and has been admitted multiple times in the past with similar symptoms. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Painkillers, oxygen and IV fluids
Explanation:To effectively manage sickle cell crisis, it is essential to administer analgesia, oxygen, and IV fluids. In addition, antibiotics may be necessary if an infection is suspected, and transfusion may be required if the patient’s Hb levels are low.
It is not advisable to simply monitor patients without providing any treatment, as this would result in significant pain and discomfort.
The most effective approach involves a combination of oxygen, fluids, and analgesia. Pain management is crucial, as the blockage of blood vessels by sickle-shaped red blood cells prevents the delivery of oxygen and blood to the tissues, resulting in pain. Oxygen supplementation is necessary to alleviate this pain, and IV fluids can help to slow or halt the sickling process. None of these components alone would be sufficient in managing pain, but together they form a comprehensive approach to pain management.
Managing Sickle-Cell Crises
Sickle-cell crises can be managed through various interventions. General management includes providing analgesia, rehydration, and oxygen. Antibiotics may also be considered if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusion may be necessary for severe or symptomatic anemia, pregnancy, or pre-operative cases. However, it is important not to rapidly reduce the percentage of Hb S containing cells.
In cases of acute vaso-occlusive crisis, such as stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, or splenic sequestration crisis, exchange transfusion may be necessary. This involves rapidly reducing the percentage of Hb S containing cells. It is important to note that the management of sickle-cell crises should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old retired car mechanic who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer. Some fifteen years ago he was treated with surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder cancer. His brother had oesophageal cancer aged 66 and another brother had prostate cancer in his 70s. His 55-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with breast cancer.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the cancers in your patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exposure to tobacco smoke
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Multiple Cancers in an Individual
It is not uncommon for an individual to develop two different types of cancer over their lifetime. In a case where a man has been diagnosed with both bladder and lung cancer, the possible causes need to be explored.
Exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both cancers in this case. Smoking is responsible for 85% of lung cancers and is also the biggest risk factor for developing bladder cancer.
Exposure to asbestos or aniline dyes are not likely causes of both cancers. While asbestos exposure is associated with mesothelioma, it is not linked to bladder cancer. Similarly, aniline dyes increase the risk of bladder cancer but not lung cancer.
A hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome is also an unlikely cause in this case. While it is possible for an individual to have a genetic predisposition to developing multiple cancers, there are no specific patterns in the family history that suggest this.
Finally, the second tumor is not a late complication of chemotherapy. While previous cancer treatment could potentially increase the risk of developing lung cancer, smoking is still the most likely cause in this case.
In conclusion, exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both bladder and lung cancer in this individual. It is important to identify the possible causes of multiple cancers in an individual to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit after experiencing increasing fatigue and general malaise for the past week following a recent febrile illness. Upon examination, she appears pale and has multiple petechiae and bruises over her trunk and upper and lower limbs. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 82 g/L (135-180), platelets of 29 * 109/L (150 - 400), and WBC of 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0). What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
Explanation:Pancytopenia may occur in patients with underlying haematological conditions who are infected with Parvovirus B19, which can also cause fever and rash.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer presents to his General Practitioner with generalised pain. He states that he has always had aches and pains from old age, but that this is different: he can feel the pain particularly in his back at night.
What is the most likely site to be involved in bone metastasis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spine
Explanation:Common Sites of Metastatic Spread in Bone
Metastatic spread to the bone is a common occurrence in many types of cancer. The following are some of the most common sites of metastases in bone:
Spine: The spine is the most common site for bony metastases, with spread often found from a range of solid and haematological cancers, as well as infectious diseases such as tuberculosis.
Ribs: While breast cancer is known to spread to the ribs, this is not the case for many other cancers.
Pelvis: The pelvis is a prevalent site of metastatic spread occurring mostly from the prostate, breast, kidney, lung, and thyroid cancer.
Skull: Skull metastases are seen in 15-25% of all cancer patients and tend to include those from the breast, lungs, prostate, and thyroid, as well as melanoma.
Long bones: Localised bone pain is a red flag for metastatic spread to any of the long bones such as the femur and humerus. Breast, prostate, renal, thyroid, and lung cancers frequently metastasize to these areas.
Overall, understanding the common sites of metastatic spread in bone can help with early detection and treatment of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a 2-month history of progressive fatigue. She has a medical history of type-1 diabetes mellitus. Her doctor orders a full blood count, which reveals a low Hb and high mean cell volume. The platelet and WBC counts are within normal limits. Which antibody test should be performed to assist in the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic-factor antibodies
Explanation:When investigating vitamin B12 deficiency, intrinsic factor antibodies are more useful than gastric parietal cell antibodies due to the low specificity of the latter. Megaloblastic anaemia, characterized by low haemoglobin and raised mean cell volume, can be caused by B12 or folate deficiency and may indicate pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune condition that impairs B12 uptake. Intrinsic factor antibodies are more specific for pernicious anaemia and are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis along with a blood test. Anti-histone antibodies are involved in drug-induced lupus caused by certain drugs. Anti-TTG antibodies are used to screen for coeliac disease, which can cause microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency from malabsorption. While gastric parietal cell antibodies are linked to pernicious anaemia, their low specificity makes them less reliable for diagnosis compared to intrinsic factor antibodies.
Understanding Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.
The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.
Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.
Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis
Explanation:Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.
Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast
Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has been admitted to the orthopaedic ward following a left hemiarthroplasty. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML).
The nurse has requested an urgent review of the patient as he is displaying signs of confusion. His blood pressure is 96/54 mmHg and his heart rate is 135 bpm. The patient has been passing 10 ml of urine an hour through his catheter and the nurse has observed that the urine in the catheter bag is bright red.
Upon examination, the patient has petechial bruising over his arms and blood is slowly oozing from his peripheral cannula. What blood test results would you anticipate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low platelets, low fibrinogen, raised APTT and PT and raised D-dimer
Explanation:The typical blood picture for DIC includes a decrease in platelets and fibrinogen levels, as well as an increase in PT and APTT, and fibrinogen degradation products. DIC can be triggered by trauma, malignancies, and other factors. The patient’s symptoms, such as oliguria, hypotension, and tachycardia, suggest circulatory collapse due to DIC. Bleeding at multiple sites, including haematuria, petechial bruising, and bleeding from a peripheral cannula, is also common in DIC. The release of procoagulants in DIC leads to widespread clotting activation, which consumes platelets and clotting factors, resulting in a low platelet count and prolonged bleeding times. Fibrinolysis is also activated, leading to low fibrinogen levels and high D-dimer levels. Additionally, haemoglobin levels may be low due to bleeding and lysis caused by fibrin strands in small blood vessels.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis
Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.
To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old patient with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the emergency department with haematemesis. Urgent blood tests are taken and blood products ordered from the laboratory.
A full blood count shows:
Hb 76 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 26 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 21.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Which blood product carries the highest risk for this immunocompromised patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Platelet transfusions have the highest risk of bacterial contamination due to their short shelf life and refrigeration. This patient requires both red blood cells and platelets, but caution should be taken with platelet transfusions due to the risk of contamination. Cryoprecipitate and plasma have lower contamination risks and can be stored for longer periods. Packed red cells can also be used and have a longer shelf life.
Platelet Transfusion Guidelines for Active Bleeding and Pre-Invasive Procedures
Platelet transfusions are recommended for patients with thrombocytopenia and clinically significant bleeding, such as haematemesis, melaena, or prolonged epistaxis, with a platelet count of less than 30 x 10 9. For severe bleeding or bleeding at critical sites, such as the CNS, platelet thresholds for transfusion are higher, with a maximum of less than 100 x 10 9. However, it should be noted that platelet transfusions have a higher risk of bacterial contamination compared to other types of blood products.
For pre-invasive procedures, platelet transfusions are recommended to maintain platelet levels of greater than 50 x 10 9/L for most patients, 50-75 x 10 9/L for those at high risk of bleeding, and greater than 100 x 10 9/L for surgeries at critical sites. However, if there is no active bleeding or planned invasive procedure, a threshold of 10 x 10 9/L is recommended, unless platelet transfusion is contraindicated or there are alternative treatments available for the patient’s condition.
It is important to note that platelet transfusions should not be performed for chronic bone marrow failure, autoimmune thrombocytopenia, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. These guidelines aim to provide appropriate and safe platelet transfusion practices for patients with thrombocytopenia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with metastatic breast cancer presents to surgery with his wife. He has known bone metastases in his pelvis and ribs, but his pain is not adequately managed with paracetamol, diclofenac, and MST 30 mg bd. His wife reports that he is using 10mg of oral morphine solution approximately 6-7 times a day for breakthrough pain. The hospice palliative care team attempted to use a bisphosphonate, but it resulted in persistent myalgia and arthralgia. What is the next appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase MST + refer for radiotherapy
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is evaluated in the DVT clinic and a raised D-dimer is detected. A Doppler scan reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and feeling well, the patient has not undergone any recent surgeries or been immobile for an extended period. As a result, he is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant. What is the optimal duration of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about a lump in her breast that she discovered three weeks ago. The lump is causing discomfort when she wears a bra. During the examination, the doctor detects a 4 cm, non-tethered, and firm lump in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The surface and contour are smooth, the skin is intact, and it does not transilluminate. The doctor refers her for a triple assessment, which confirms that she has a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for surgical excision
Explanation:The appropriate action for a patient presenting with a breast fibroadenoma larger than 3 cm is to refer them for surgical excision. Fibroadenomas are benign masses that develop from the whole lobule and are typically small, firm, and smooth, often referred to as breast mice. While they are usually treated conservatively, surgical excision is necessary if they cause discomfort, as in this case. Checking the mass again in three months, discharge and safety netting, prescribing oral antibiotics, and referring for aspiration are all incorrect management options for a fibroadenoma.
Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma
Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.
Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.
In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss some recent blood tests which were taken for tri-monthly monitoring of her methotrexate. She has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and takes methotrexate, folic acid and co-codamol.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–165 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets 228 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Neutrophils 5.4 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 85–105 fl
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) 29 pg 27–32 pg
Sodium 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5–7.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 68 µmol/l 53–100 µmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Normocytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis
The patient in question has been diagnosed with normocytic anaemia, which is characterized by normal MCV and MCH results. There are several potential causes of this type of anaemia, including renal failure, anaemia of chronic disease, and mixed iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. However, given that the patient has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and normal renal function, the most likely cause of her anaemia is a chronic disease. This is thought to be the result of chronic inflammation associated with diseases such as RA.
One potential complication of RA is Felty syndrome, which is characterized by a triad of conditions: RA, splenomegaly, and neutropenia. However, this patient has a normal WCC and neutrophil count, which rules out this diagnosis.
Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause anaemia, but it typically results in macrocytic anaemia characterized by a raised MCV. In contrast, this patient has a normal MCV. Vitamin B12 deficiency is typically treated with oral supplements, unless intrinsic antibodies are present, in which case intramuscular B12 is needed.
Folate deficiency can also drive macrocytic anaemia, but this patient demonstrates normocytic anaemia. Methotrexate, which is commonly used to treat RA, is a folate antagonist, which is why the patient is also taking folic acid supplements to reduce the risk of developing folate deficiency.
Iron deficiency is another potential cause of anaemia, but it typically results in microcytic hypochromic anaemia characterized by low MCV and MCH. In contrast, this patient has normal MCV and MCH results. A combination of iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiencies may result in normocytic anaemia, as can acute blood loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to the Oncology Clinic under the 2-week-wait pathway. She has been noticing some lumps on her neck that are classified as painless, nontender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. She complains of increasing night sweats and has noticed some pain when drinking alcohol.
Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following features is associated with a poor prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Prognosis Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. One of the most common symptoms of this malignancy is painless, non-tender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. However, the presence of night sweats, fever, and weight loss can also indicate a diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Patients of Afro-Caribbean origin may have a worse prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, but not in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Alcohol-induced pain is a characteristic feature of some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it has not been associated with a poor prognosis. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a typical feature of Hodgkin’s lymphoma and has not been linked to a worse prognosis. Finally, while female sex has not been associated with poor prognosis, some studies suggest that male sex could be connected with a poorer outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. His symptoms have come on quickly over the last three weeks. A full blood count is ordered and is suggestive of acute lymphoblastic myeloid leukaemia (AML).
What Is the next most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bone marrow biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Myeloid Leukaemia
Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow. To diagnose AML, several diagnostic tests may be performed. The most common tests include a bone marrow biopsy, ultrasound scan of the abdomen, chest X-ray, computerised tomography (CT) scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis, and lumbar puncture.
Bone Marrow Biopsy: This is the most important test for diagnosing AML. It involves extracting cells from the bone marrow and examining them under a microscope. AML is characterised by the presence of primitive myeloblasts and Auer rods in the bone marrow.
Ultrasound Scan of the Abdomen: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen or spleen. If any enlarged lymph nodes are found, they may be biopsied to determine the extent of the leukaemia.
Chest X-ray: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum.
CT Scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis: This test is not usually used as a first-line investigation for AML. However, once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan may be used to assess for the presence of enlarged lymph nodes or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.
Lumbar Puncture: This test is not usually used in the diagnosis of AML unless it is suspected that the leukaemia cells are also present in the cerebrospinal fluid.
In conclusion, a bone marrow biopsy is the most important test for diagnosing AML. Other tests may be used to determine the extent of the leukaemia or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A patient underwent an 80-cm ileum resection for Crohn's disease 2 years ago. She now presents with anaemia. Her haemoglobin is 88 g/l (female – 120–160 g/l) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (Mean Corpuscular Volume) 105 fl/red cell (normal 80-96 fl/red cell.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired vitamin B12 absorption
Explanation:Causes of Different Types of Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the blood. There are different types of anaemia, and each has its own causes. Here are some of the causes of different types of anaemia:
Impaired Vitamin B12 Absorption: Vitamin B12 deficiency is a potential consequence of ileal resection and Crohn’s disease. Vitamin B12 injections may be required. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes a macrocytic anaemia.
Impaired Iron Absorption: Iron deficiency causes a microcytic anaemia. Iron deficiency anaemia is multifactorial, with gastrointestinal (GI), malabsorption and gynaecological causes being the most common causes. Ileal resection is not associated with impaired iron absorption, but gastrectomy can be.
Chronic Bleeding after Surgery: Iron deficiency due to chronic blood loss causes a microcytic anaemia. Acute blood loss would cause a normocytic anaemia.
Haemolysis: Haemolysis is the abnormal destruction of red blood cells. It causes a normocytic anaemia.
Bacterial Infection: A bacterial infection is not a common cause of anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by the local general surgeon. She has undergone a mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.
Which of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Young age
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Breast Cancer and Their Impact on Survival
Breast cancer prognosis is influenced by several factors, including axillary nodal status, tumour type and grade, lymphatic/vascular invasion/proliferation markers, ethnicity, patient age at diagnosis, oestrogen receptor and progesterone receptor status, and HER2/neu overexpression. Younger patients tend to have more aggressive tumours, which increases their risk of recurrence and mortality over their lifetimes.
Oestrogen receptor-positive tumours have a better prognosis and can be treated with tamoxifen, which increases survival rates. Progesterone receptor-positive tumours also have a good prognosis and can be targeted using HER2 receptor modulators like tamoxifen. On the other hand, oestrogen receptor-negative and progesterone receptor-negative tumours are associated with a poor prognosis.
Tumour grade is another important prognostic factor, with high-grade tumours being linked to a poorer prognosis. Additionally, a positive lymph node status is a poor prognostic factor, as the risk of recurrence increases with the number of affected nodes.
In summary, understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare professionals tailor treatment plans and provide patients with more accurate information about their prognosis and survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone scan shows multiple lesions highly suggestive of metastases. Clinical examination is normal apart from unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of an affected lymph node shows adenocarcinoma. Which of the following investigations should be prioritised to find the site of the primary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mammography
Explanation:When a patient presents with metastatic bone disease from an unknown primary, it is important to identify the primary source in order to guide treatment and determine prognosis. Tumours that commonly metastasize to bone include those of the lungs, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
In cases where the patient has unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy, metastatic breast carcinoma is highly likely. Other potential causes of unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy include lymphoma, primary malignancy, melanoma, or metastases from non-breast primary malignancy.
While there are various investigations that can be performed, mammography should be the first examination of choice. If the mammogram is negative, other investigations may be pursued to identify alternative occult sites.
It is important to note that identifying the primary source is useful even in cases of metastatic disease, as it can guide treatment and provide insight into prognosis. Therefore, mammography plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy with sickle cell anaemia complains of abdominal pain. During the physical examination, the doctor observes splenomegaly and signs of anaemia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sequestration crisis
Explanation:In a sequestration crisis, the sickle cells lead to significant enlargement of the spleen, which causes abdominal pain as seen in this case. This is more prevalent in early childhood as repeated sequestration and infarction of the spleen during childhood can eventually lead to an auto-splenectomy. A sequestration crisis can result in severe anemia, noticeable pallor, and cardiovascular collapse due to the loss of effective circulating volume.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.
Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.
Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently metastasizing to bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid
Explanation:Metastasis Patterns of Common Tumours
Metastasis, the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumour to other parts of the body, is a major factor in cancer progression and treatment. Different types of cancer have different patterns of metastasis. Here are some common tumours and their predilection for dissemination to specific organs:
– Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid: These tumours have a predilection for dissemination to bone.
– Kidney, sarcoma, lung, thyroid: Sarcoma most commonly metastasises to the lungs.
– Breast, prostate, kidney, lymphoma: Tumours that commonly metastasise to the brain include those of the breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid.
– Lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, brain: Primary brain tumours rarely metastasise to other parts of the body.
– Thyroid, brain, lung, liver, breast: Primary liver tumours most commonly metastasise to the lung, portal vein and portal nodes.Understanding the metastasis patterns of different tumours can help in early detection and targeted treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent urination and thirst for the past 3 months. Upon examination, the doctor orders a urine protein electrophoresis and a serum-free light-chain assay, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most probable result on the patient's blood film?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rouleaux formation
Explanation:Rouleaux formation is a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma, which is a condition that presents with symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, anaemia, and back pain. Diagnosis of myeloma involves urine protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay. Rouleaux formation is observed as stacked RBCs on a blood film, resulting from an increase in acute-phase proteins that are positively charged and attract negatively charged RBCs. It is important to note that rouleaux formation is not exclusive to myeloma and can be seen in various inflammatory conditions. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test measures this mechanism clinically. Heinz bodies, which are caused by oxidative stress and denaturation of haemoglobin, are not associated with myeloma but are seen in G6PD deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies, which are present in hyposplenic or asplenic disorders, and an increased number of reticulocytes, which indicate increased RBC turnover, are also not characteristic of myeloma.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic rain-drop skull pattern.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother with a 6-day history of fever, reduced feeding and increased irritability. His mother has also noticed this morning that his fingers and toes are swollen and tense and some of the skin is peeling. He is reluctant to play with toys or walk. On examination, he is pale, his lips are cracked and there are no rashes present. Ear, nose and throat (ENT) examinations reveal the presence of a red, swollen tongue he also has swollen, tender digits of his hands and feet.
He is admitted to hospital and his full blood count (FBC) result is shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 88 g/l 100–135 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 3.8–11 × 109/l
Platelets 150 × 109/l 150–400 × 1109/l
Mean corpuscular volume 93 fl 85–105 fl
Reticulocytes 6% 0.2–2%
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is a condition that causes inflammation in small and medium blood vessels, particularly in the coronary vessels. Children with this disease typically experience a high fever lasting more than five days, along with symptoms such as a strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips, rashes, peeling skin on the hands and feet, conjunctivitis, and swollen and painful hands and feet.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that can cause bone pain and swelling in children, as well as unexplained fever, lethargy, recurrent infections, headaches, petechiae or purpura, and splenomegaly. However, a high white blood cell count would be present in ALL, which would be absent in this patient. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia are also common in ALL.
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin and protein in the urine due to damage to the basement membrane of the renal glomerulus. Children with this condition typically experience swelling in the face, feet, abdomen, and genitals, but not in the fingers and toes as seen in this patient.
Rheumatic fever is a reaction to a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A streptococcus. Symptoms may include fever, abdominal pain, carditis, Sydenham’s chorea, and a rash, but joint pain typically affects the ankles, knees, elbows, and wrists rather than the hands and feet.
Sickle cell disease is an inherited condition that causes abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to blockages in small blood vessels and chronic anemia. It is most common in Black African and Black Caribbean populations. Symptoms may include jaundice, anemia, and acute dactylitis, and screening is recommended for high-risk ethnic groups. A diagnosis of hemolysis is supported by a high reticulocyte count and normocytic anemia on FBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden shortness of breath. An urgent full blood count is performed and the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
What is the most probable first-line treatment option for this patient's leukemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia: Chemotherapy, Stem-Cell Transplant, Blood Transfusion, Intravenous Immunoglobulins, and Radiotherapy
Acute leukaemias, such as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), are characterized by an increase in primitive undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment for ALL involves four components: induction, consolidation, maintenance, and central nervous system (CNS) prophylaxis. The first-line therapy for ALL is combination chemotherapy, which aims to eradicate the blast cells. Once remission is induced, maintenance chemotherapy is given to eliminate the disease that cannot be detected under the microscope.
Stem-cell transplants can be used to treat ALL once remission is induced using chemotherapy. This treatment can be allogeneic (the patient receives stem cells from a matched or partially mismatched related or unrelated donor) or autologous (the patient receives their own stem cells). The goal of a stem-cell transplant is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells. While it can be a curative treatment for patients with this disease, it is not used as a first-line treatment.
Blood transfusions are not a treatment for acute leukaemia, but they may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are typically given irradiated blood components. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used to treat acute leukaemia but may be used prophylactically against infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia due to cancer treatment.
Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat the brain or spinal cord if the disease has spread there. Total body radiotherapy may also be used before a stem-cell transplant to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of transplant rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration of the cyst
Explanation:Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.
Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a complaint of a palpable mass in her left breast. The diagnostic mammogram shows a spiculated mass measuring 2.1 cm. Ultrasound detects a hypoechoic mass measuring 2.1 cm x 1.3 cm x 1.1 cm. Biopsy reveals a well-differentiated mucinous carcinoma which is negative for ER and HER2. The recommended course of treatment to prevent recurrence in this patient is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whole breast radiotherapy
Explanation:Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and peri-menopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in post-menopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man who comes to see you concerned about prostate cancer. You perform a digital rectal exam which reveals an enlarged, firm and irregular prostate. What would be the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to urology as 2 week wait referral
Explanation:The appropriate way to address the patient is as a 2-week wait referral. According to the NICE Guidelines for suspected cancer referrals, if a hard, irregular prostate indicative of prostate carcinoma is detected during rectal examination, urgent referral is necessary. Along with the referral, the PSA test result should also be included. It is important to note that the PSA test is not always reliable in detecting prostate cancer, as around 1 in 50 men with fast-growing prostate cancer have a normal PSA level.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.
The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.
On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.
Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy who has haemophilia A presents to the Emergency Department after falling off a skateboard and hitting his head. He is drowsy and confused with a Glasgow Coma Score of 9.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate administration of factor VIII
Explanation:Immediate Treatment for Serious Bleeding in Patients with Haemophilia
Serious or life-threatening bleeding in patients with haemophilia requires immediate evaluation and therapy with replacement factor. The immediate goal is to raise the activity of the deficient factor to a level sufficient to achieve haemostasis. For patients with potentially serious or life-threatening bleeding, treatment should be initiated immediately, even before completing diagnostic assessment.
In the case of haemophilia A, factor VIII must be replaced. Waiting to find out factor VIII levels prior to administering it could lead to further bleeding. Therefore, immediate administration of factor VIII is the most appropriate option.
While obtaining imaging of the head may be useful, the main objective is to obtain rapid haemostasis. Thus, transferring the patient immediately for a CT scan of the head is not the first action to take.
In a patient with haemophilia, evacuation of a clot may lead to further potentially catastrophic bleeding. If surgery is required, the patient must have adequate levels of factor VIII present to achieve haemostasis. Therefore, transferring the patient to the theatre for evacuation of an intracranial haematoma should not be the first action taken.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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