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  • Question 1 - A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of right eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and sickle cell anaemia.

      During the examination, you notice that he seems uneasy with a red right eye and a fixed dilated pupil. You suspect that he may be suffering from acute closed-angle glaucoma and decide to give him pilocarpine eye drops.

      What is the primary mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic antagonist

      Correct Answer: Muscarinic agonist

      Explanation:

      Pilocarpine is a substance that activates muscarinic receptors, which are part of the parasympathetic nervous system. It can be used to treat certain eye conditions, like acute closed-angle glaucoma, by causing the pupil to constrict. It can also help alleviate dry mouth caused by head and neck radiotherapy or Sjogren’s disease.

      On the other hand, alpha agonists work by stimulating alpha adrenoreceptors. Examples of alpha-1 agonists include decongestants, while topical brimonidine is an alpha-2 agonist used in the treatment of glaucoma and acne rosacea.

      Muscarinic antagonists, on the other hand, block the parasympathetic nervous system. Medications with antimuscarinic properties include atropine, ipratropium bromide, and oxybutynin. Unlike muscarinic agonists, these drugs can cause side effects like dry mouth and dilated pupils.

      Finally, beta-1 agonists like dobutamine are inotropes, which means they increase the strength of heart contractions.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A neonatal hearing screening program screened 10,000 newborns by measuring otoacoustic emissions (OAE)....

    Incorrect

    • A neonatal hearing screening program screened 10,000 newborns by measuring otoacoustic emissions (OAE). Out of these, 200 newborns failed the screening test and were invited for a test of brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP), which is considered the gold standard for diagnosing hearing impairment in newborns. Among these 200 newborns, 100 were confirmed to have hearing impairment by BAEP. What is the correct statement regarding this scenario?

      Your Answer: The specificity of the screening test is 50%

      Correct Answer: The accuracy of the screening test cannot be determined

      Explanation:

      Limitations of Screening Test Results

      In the study, 200 out of 10,000 subjects were found to have hearing impairment through a screening test. However, for the 9,800 subjects who tested negative, no further testing was conducted to confirm if they truly did not have hearing impairment. This means that we cannot determine the accuracy of the screening test from the data provided, nor can we calculate the sensitivity, specificity, or negative predictive values. The only value that can be calculated is the positive predictive value, which is 50%. It is important to note the limitations of screening test results and the need for further testing to confirm diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An aging patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to a neurology ward after...

    Incorrect

    • An aging patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to a neurology ward after experiencing a fall. While conducting a cranial nerves examination, the physician observes that the patient is unable to gaze upward when their head is fixed in place. The physician begins to consider other potential diagnoses. What would be the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corticobasal degeneration

      Correct Answer: Progressive supranuclear palsy

      Explanation:

      These are all syndromes that share the main symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, but also have additional specific symptoms:

      – Progressive supranuclear palsy affects the muscles used for looking upwards.
      – Vascular dementia is a type of dementia that usually occurs after several small strokes.
      – Dementia with Lewy bodies is characterized by the buildup of Lewy bodies, which are clumps of a protein called alpha-synuclein, and often includes visual hallucinations.
      – Multiple system atrophy often involves problems with the autonomic nervous system, such as low blood pressure when standing and difficulty emptying the bladder.

      Progressive supranuclear palsy, also known as Steele-Richardson-Olszewski syndrome, is a type of ‘Parkinson Plus’ syndrome. It is characterized by postural instability and falls, as well as a stiff, broad-based gait. Patients with this condition also experience impairment of vertical gaze, with down gaze being worse than up gaze. This can lead to difficulty reading or descending stairs. Parkinsonism is also present, with bradykinesia being a prominent feature. Cognitive impairment is also common, primarily due to frontal lobe dysfunction. Unfortunately, this condition has a poor response to L-dopa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man is set to undergo a surgical procedure to drain an...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is set to undergo a surgical procedure to drain an abscess situated on the medial side of his lower leg. The anaesthetist plans to administer a saphenous nerve block by injecting a local anaesthetic through the adductor canal's roof. What is the muscular structure that the needle for the local anaesthetic must pass through?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents

      The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.

      The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.

      In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to familial adenomatous polyposis coli. What is the most frequent non-colonic manifestation of this condition?

      Your Answer: Duodenal polyps

      Explanation:

      Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.

      MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.

      Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.

      HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old male admitted to the ICU after a car accident has a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male admitted to the ICU after a car accident has a pneumothorax. Using a bedside spirometer, his inspiratory and expiratory volumes were measured. What is the typical tidal volume for a male of his age?

      Your Answer: 500ml

      Explanation:

      The amount of air that is normally breathed in and out without any extra effort is called tidal volume, which is 500ml in males and 350ml in females.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.3
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  • Question 7 - A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion, fever, and photosensitivity....

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion, fever, and photosensitivity. He has a history of HIV and is compliant with his antiretroviral therapy. Over the past month, he has been experiencing watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, fevers, and fatigue.

      Upon examination, his oxygen saturation is 97% on room air, respiratory rate is 18/min, heart rate is 98/min, blood pressure is 110/76 mmHg, and temperature is 38.4ºC. A CT head scan reveals meningeal enhancement and recommends a lumbar puncture.

      The patient is admitted under the medical team and undergoes a lumbar puncture, which is positive for India ink. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of meningitis and a lumbar puncture has revealed the presence of Cryptococcus neoformans, the most common CNS fungal infection in HIV patients. Treatment involves administering IV amphotericin B and flucytosine for two weeks, followed by oral fluconazole for eight weeks. Fluconazole can also be used for relapse prophylaxis until the patient’s immunity recovers. In cases where the patient has high opening pressures on LP, daily LPs may be performed to reduce intracranial pressure during the acute phase.

      AIDS dementia complex is a chronic complication that can occur in late stages of HIV infection, resulting in changes in cognitive function, movement, and learning. CT scans may reveal cortical and subcortical atrophy.

      Herpes simplex encephalitis can be caused by cytomegalovirus infection or the HIV virus itself, and presents with symptoms such as headache, fever, seizures, and confusion. CT scans may show generalised brain oedema, while LPs may reveal the presence of herpes simplex virus on PCR.

      Kaposi sarcoma is a type of cancer that can affect the skin, respiratory system, and GI tract of immunocompromised patients. The lesions of those affected will contain human herpesvirus 8.

      Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.

      Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
      Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
      Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
      Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
      Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 3-year-old male is brought to the clinician for evaluation of recurrent seizures....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old male is brought to the clinician for evaluation of recurrent seizures. He has a history of frequent infections. During chest examination, a heart murmur is detected on the left sternal edge and he presents with abnormal facial features. Laboratory tests show hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and low levels of parathyroid hormone. The diagnosis is DiGeorge syndrome. Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the thymus in this condition?

      Your Answer: Fourth pharyngeal pouch

      Correct Answer: Third pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the thymus. Other structures derived from different pharyngeal pouches include the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum from the 1st pouch, the Palatine tonsils from the 2nd pouch, the superior parathyroid glands from the 4th pouch, and the thyroid C-cells from the 5th pouch which eventually becomes part of the 4th pouch.

      Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches

      During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.

      Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle? ...

    Correct

    • What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle?

      Your Answer: Acetyl-CoA

      Explanation:

      The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrion and involves the conversion of acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate. This cycle produces six NADH, two FADH, and two ATP for each molecule of glucose. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle, and water and carbon dioxide are end products. Acetic acid itself has no role in the cycle, but its acetyl group is used to form acetyl-CoA. Some anaerobic bacteria can convert sugars to acetic acid directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following structures lies posterior to the femoral nerve in...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures lies posterior to the femoral nerve in the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer: Adductor longus

      Correct Answer: Iliacus

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve is located in front of the iliacus muscle within the femoral triangle. Meanwhile, the iliacus and pectineus muscles are situated behind the femoral sheath.

      The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.

      To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?...

    Correct

    • What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Parathyroid Hormone in Regulating Blood Calcium Levels

      Calcium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone support, blood clotting, muscle contraction, nervous transmission, and hormone production. However, excessively high or low levels of calcium in the blood and interstitial fluid can lead to serious health issues such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. This is where parathyroid hormone comes in.

      Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating blood calcium levels. It works directly on the bone, stimulating bone production or resorption depending on the concentration and duration of exposure. It also acts on the kidney, increasing the loss of phosphate in the urine, decreasing the loss of calcium in the urine, and promoting the activity of the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase, which activates vitamin D. Additionally, parathyroid hormone indirectly affects the gut through the action of activated vitamin D.

      Overall, the regulation of blood calcium levels is crucial for maintaining optimal bodily functions. Parathyroid hormone plays a vital role in this process by directly and indirectly affecting various organs and systems in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 49-year-old woman arrives at the day surgery unit for a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy....

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman arrives at the day surgery unit for a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. The surgeon provides her with an explanation of the procedure.

      What ligaments must the surgeon open to reach the fallopian tubes and ovaries?

      Your Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      Within the broad ligament of the uterus, one can locate the ovaries and the fallopian tubes.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      38.1
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old male has been struggling with anger issues for a while. Following...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male has been struggling with anger issues for a while. Following a disagreement with a relative, he vents his frustration by punching the wall, resulting in a cut on his hand. At the hospital, the medical team orders an x-ray to rule out any fractures and discovers a 'boxer's fracture.'

      What bone did this young man break?

      Your Answer: 5th metacarpal

      Explanation:

      A fracture of the 5th metacarpal, known as a ‘Boxer fracture’, is commonly caused by punching a hard surface. This type of fracture is typically minimally displaced. Fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist can lead to avascular necrosis. The 2nd metacarpal is not typically fractured in punching injuries, while the lunate and hamate bones in the wrist are not commonly affected by this type of injury.

      Boxer fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in the fifth metacarpal bone. It is usually caused by punching a hard surface, such as a wall. The fracture is typically minimally displaced, meaning that the bone is still in its proper position but has a small crack or break. This injury is commonly seen in boxers, hence the name, but can also occur in other individuals who engage in activities that involve punching or striking objects. The treatment for a boxer fracture may involve immobilization of the affected hand with a cast or splint, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man was admitted to critical care with urinary sepsis. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man was admitted to critical care with urinary sepsis. He was intubated and ventilated and treated with intravenous fluids and antibiotics. About a week later, he developed an oxygen requirement, and the medical team observed crackles at the right base.

      What are the laboratory characteristics linked with Pseudomonas aeruginosa, as indicated by a sputum culture showing Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer: Beta-haemolysis

      Correct Answer: Non-lactose fermenting

      Explanation:

      Lab findings that suggest the presence of Pseudomonas aeruginosa include a gram-negative rod, non-lactose fermenting, and positive for oxidase. In this case, the patient likely acquired a nosocomial infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which is a common cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia or ventilator-acquired pneumonia. It is important to note that Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not cause haemolysis, unlike Group A Streptococcus, which exhibits beta-haemolysis. Streptococcus pneumoniae, on the other hand, is a gram-positive coccus that causes alpha-haemolysis and is a less likely cause of hospital/ventilator-acquired pneumonia.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the infections it causes include chest infections, skin infections such as burns and wound infections, otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.

      In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. The bacteria produce both an endotoxin and exotoxin A. The endotoxin causes fever and shock, while exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.

      Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins makes it particularly dangerous and difficult to treat. Proper hygiene and infection control measures can help prevent the spread of this bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      48.4
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old female, Mrs Brown, visited the clinic due to a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female, Mrs Brown, visited the clinic due to a lump in her left breast. She did not experience any pain, fever or discharge. Her family has a significant history of cancer, with her sister passing away from a brain tumour at age 30 and her father being diagnosed with lung cancer at age 35. Mrs Brown is worried about the possibility of multiple tumours in her family and wishes to undergo further testing. Genetic testing confirmed that she has Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Which gene abnormality caused this syndrome?

      Your Answer: P53

      Explanation:

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare disorder that greatly increases the risk of developing various types of cancer, and it is caused by the loss of function of the p53 gene, which is a tumour suppressor gene. Similarly, the loss of function of the APC gene is linked to colorectal cancer, while the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are associated with breast and ovarian cancer.

      Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes

      Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. It is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur. Examples of tumour suppressor genes include p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1. Each of these genes is associated with specific types of cancer, and their loss of function can lead to an increased risk of developing these cancers.

      On the other hand, oncogenes are genes that, when they gain function, can also increase the risk of cancer. Unlike tumour suppressor genes, oncogenes promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of cancer. Understanding the role of both tumour suppressor genes and oncogenes is crucial in the development of cancer treatments and prevention strategies. By identifying and targeting these genes, researchers can work towards developing more effective treatments for cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl and her mother come to the doctor's office with concerns about ambiguous genitalia. After gathering information and conducting various tests, the doctor determines that the cause is congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is linked to a deficiency in which specific enzyme?

      Your Answer: 17B-HSD

      Correct Answer: 21-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Insufficient production of cortisol and compensatory adrenal hyperplasia are the consequences of 21-hydroxylase deficiency. This leads to elevated androgen production and ambiguous genitalia. However, enzymes such as 5-a reductase, aromatase, 17B-HSD, and aldosterone synthase are not involved in this disorder. Other enzymes, including 11-beta hydroxylase and 17-hydroxylase, may also be involved.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.

      Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      20.2
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman with an 8-month-old baby is complaining of pain on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with an 8-month-old baby is complaining of pain on the radial side of her wrist. She reports that the pain is most severe when she is using her hand to wring clothes or lift objects. Upon examination, there is no visible swelling, but the Finkelstein's test is positive, leading to a diagnosis of de Quervain's tenosynovitis. Can you identify the nerve that innervates the two muscle tendons affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Hand Nerve Innervation

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, also known as mothers wrist, is a condition with an unknown cause, but some experts believe it may be due to repetitive movements like wringing clothes. The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that provides innervation to the flexor pollicis longus. On the other hand, the recurrent branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar eminence muscles, which are responsible for flexing and opposing the thumb. These muscles include the flexor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis.

      In contrast, the musculocutaneous nerve does not play a role in thumb movement. Instead, it provides motor supply to the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles, which cause flexion at the elbow joint. Lastly, the ulnar nerve innervates the interossei muscles and lateral two lumbricals of the small muscles of the hand. the innervation of the hand nerves is crucial in diagnosing and treating various hand conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which food is a rich source of vitamin D in the diet? ...

    Correct

    • Which food is a rich source of vitamin D in the diet?

      Your Answer: Oily fish

      Explanation:

      Sources of Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that can be found in certain foods such as cheese, butter, eggs, and oily fish. However, vegetable sources of vitamin D are limited, although some foods are fortified with this vitamin. For instance, 100 grams of sundried shiitake mushrooms contain 1600 IU of vitamin D, while one egg contains 20 IU. Wild salmon is also a good source of vitamin D, with 100 grams containing 800 IU, while farmed salmon contains 200 IU.

      Aside from food sources, sunlight is also a good source of vitamin D. Exposure of arms and legs to sunlight for 10-15 minutes can provide 3000 IU of vitamin D. However, it is difficult to obtain the daily requirement of 25-50 IU of vitamin D through sunlight alone, especially for people living in temperate climates. As a result, many people may have insufficient vitamin D levels. It is important to ensure that we get enough vitamin D through a combination of food sources and sunlight exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      21.2
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  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with fever, vomiting, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with fever, vomiting, and abdominal pain. During the abdominal examination, the right lower quadrant is tender upon palpation of the left lower quadrant. What is the term for this sign?

      Your Answer: Murphy's sign

      Correct Answer: Rovsing's sign

      Explanation:

      Rovsing’s sign is a sign that may indicate the presence of appendicitis. It is considered positive when pressure applied to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen causes pain in the right lower quadrant.

      Murphy’s sign is a sign that may indicate inflammation of the gallbladder. It is considered positive when pressure applied to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, just below the rib cage, causes pain when the patient inhales.

      Cullen’s sign is a sign that may indicate ectopic pregnancy or acute pancreatitis. It is characterized by bruising around the belly button.

      Tinel’s sign is a sign that may indicate carpal tunnel syndrome. It is considered positive when tapping the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum causes tingling or numbness in the distribution of the median nerve.

      Battles sign is a sign that may indicate a basal skull fracture of the posterior cranial fossa. It is characterized by bruising behind the ear.

      Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.

      The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.

      Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman comes to see her doctor with complaints of muscle cramps...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to see her doctor with complaints of muscle cramps and facial twitching that have been going on for two weeks. During the examination, the doctor notes that she has paraesthesia in her upper limbs and a positive Trousseau's sign. Her blood tests show that she has low levels of calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D, so the doctor prescribes calcium supplements and calcitriol.

      What is the mechanism of action of the new medication?

      Your Answer: Increased renal reabsorption of phosphate

      Explanation:

      The renal reabsorption of phosphate is increased by calcitriol.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 21 - A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 40kg/m² presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 40kg/m² presents to the GP describing apnoeic episodes during sleep. He is referred to the hospital's respiratory team where he receives an initial spirometry test which is shown below.

      Forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1) 2.00 48% of predicted
      Vital capacity (VC) 2.35 43% of predicted
      Total lung capacity (TLC) 4.09 51% of predicted
      Residual volume (RV) 1.74 75% of predicted
      Total lung coefficient (TLCO) 5.37 47% of predicted
      Transfer coefficient (KCO) 1.83 120% of predicted

      What type of lung disease pattern is shown in a patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 30kg/m² who presents to the GP with similar symptoms?

      Your Answer: Obstructive

      Correct Answer: Extrapulmonary

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      45.2
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised by the nursing staff regarding her altered bowel habits. The patient has been experiencing bowel movements approximately 12 times a day for the past two days and is experiencing crampy abdominal pain.

      The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 124 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelet count of 175 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count of 16.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)

      Upon reviewing her medication chart, it is noted that she recently finished a course of ceftriaxone for meningitis.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the most probable finding on stool microscopy?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is a Clostridium difficile infection, which is a gram-positive bacillus bacteria. This infection is triggered by recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use, as seen in this patient who was prescribed ceftriaxone for meningitis. The patient’s symptoms of crampy abdominal pain and sudden onset diffuse diarrhoea, along with a marked rise in white blood cells, are consistent with this diagnosis. Gram-negative bacilli, gram-negative cocci, and gram-negative spirillum bacteria are unlikely causes of this patient’s symptoms.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      65.6
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  • Question 23 - You are working on a pediatric ward. The mother of a young patient...

    Correct

    • You are working on a pediatric ward. The mother of a young patient has recently had some blood tests performed in hospital. She says that her child was referred to a pediatrician by their general practitioner. She is anxious to find out the results.

      Whilst you are sitting at the nurses' station doing some paperwork she asks if you would mind looking up the results for her on the hospital reporting system.

      What should you do next?

      Your Answer: Apologise that you cannot look up the results as you are not involved in her care and do not have the information and knowledge needed to interpret the results

      Explanation:

      Why Checking a Colleague’s Medical Test Results Could Do More Harm Than Good

      Whilst it may seem helpful to check a colleague’s medical test results and reassure them that everything is normal, there are several potential risks involved. Firstly, without specialist knowledge and access to the patient’s medical history, it may be difficult to accurately interpret the results. Additionally, if the results are reported as normal, there may still be pending results that you are not aware of, which could falsely reassure the patient.

      Furthermore, checking a colleague’s medical test results without a legitimate interest in their care could breach their confidentiality. This could result in inadvertently learning more about their medical history than they were willing to disclose.

      Therefore, the best course of action would be to politely decline the request and encourage the colleague to liaise with their consultant about the results. It is important to prioritize patient confidentiality and avoid potentially causing more harm than good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Law
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  • Question 24 - You are on call for the pediatric ward at night and are urgently...

    Correct

    • You are on call for the pediatric ward at night and are urgently called to a child who is choking on a piece of hot dog visible in their oropharynx. The child is in extremis with saturations of 87% and there is no effective cough.

      What is the most appropriate immediate management for this pediatric patient?

      Your Answer: Back blows

      Explanation:

      Resuscitation Council (UK) Recommendations for Choking Emergencies

      When faced with a choking emergency, the Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a specific course of action. If the patient is able to cough effectively, encourage them to do so. If not, but they are conscious, try five back blows followed by five abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoeuvre) and repeat if necessary. However, if the patient becomes unconscious, begin CPR immediately. It is important to note that a finger sweep is no longer recommended as it can push the obstruction further into the airway. Additionally, high flow oxygen is necessary for breathing, but nasopharyngeal airways will not help in this situation. Removal with forceps is also not recommended as it can be hazardous. If the Heimlich manoeuvre fails, a cricothyroidotomy should be considered. While this procedure is recommended in the US and UK, it is not encouraged in some countries like Australia due to the risk of internal injury from over-vigorous use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by his mother because he...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by his mother because he has been experiencing a runny nose for the past two months. The discharge is clear and he reports sneezing frequently when playing outside. During the examination, you observe a skin crease across the bridge of his nose, which is indicative of an 'allergic salute'. The patient's mother had asthma in the past, and given the family history of atopy and the patient's symptoms, you suspect he may have hay fever. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is most commonly associated with atopy?

      Your Answer: Ig E

      Explanation:

      Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE.

      Examples of type 1 hypersensitivity reactions include atopy, hay fever, and asthma, all of which are mediated by IgE. The act of rubbing or wiping the nose in response to allergies is sometimes referred to as an allergic salute, which can cause a crease to form across the bridge of the nose.

      The table below shows the mediators of various hypersensitivity reactions.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.1
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  • Question 26 - A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her father. She complains...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with her father. She complains of a headache followed by seeing flashing lights and floaters. Her father also noticed her eyes moving from side to side. What type of seizure is likely to be associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Occipital lobe seizure

      Explanation:

      Visual changes like floaters and flashes are common symptoms of occipital lobe seizures, while hallucinations and automatisms are associated with temporal lobe seizures. Head and leg movements, as well as postictal weakness, are typical of frontal lobe seizures, while paraesthesia is a common symptom of parietal lobe seizures.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      24.4
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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old male, with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, visits the doctor with...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male, with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, visits the doctor with complaints of left ankle pain and tingling sensation in his lower leg. The pain worsens after prolonged standing and improves with rest. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling in the left ankle and foot. The doctor suspects tarsal tunnel syndrome, which may be compressing the patient's tibial nerve. Can you identify which muscles this nerve innervates?

      Your Answer: Flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The tibial nerve provides innervation to the flexor hallucis longus, which is responsible for flexing the big toe, as well as the flexor digitorum brevis, which flexes the four smaller toes. Meanwhile, the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus brevis, which aids in plantar flexion of the ankle joint, while the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum longus, which extends the four smaller toes and dorsiflexes the ankle joint. Additionally, the deep peroneal nerve innervates the tibialis anterior, which dorsiflexes the ankle joint and inverts the foot, while the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus longus, which everts the foot and assists in plantar flexion.

      The Tibial Nerve: Muscles Innervated and Termination

      The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that begins at the upper border of the popliteal fossa. It has root values of L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3. This nerve innervates several muscles, including the popliteus, gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and flexor digitorum brevis. These muscles are responsible for various movements in the lower leg and foot, such as plantar flexion, inversion, and flexion of the toes.

      The tibial nerve terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves continue to innervate muscles in the foot, such as the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and quadratus plantae. The tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the movement and function of the lower leg and foot, and any damage or injury to this nerve can result in significant impairments in mobility and sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 48-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of feeling unwell....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of feeling unwell. She reports having a headache and a stiff, painful neck. She is sensitive to light, feels nauseated, and has vomited twice. She experiences alternating sensations of hot and cold and is sweating. During the examination, her temperature is elevated, and Kernig's sign is positive. You decide to perform a lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). In which ventricle is the choroid plexus, the structure responsible for producing the majority of CSF?

      Your Answer: Third ventricle

      Correct Answer: All four of the ventricles

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus is a branching structure resembling sea coral, consisting of specialized ependymal cells that produce and release cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It is present in all four ventricles of the brain, with the largest portion located in the lateral ventricles. The choroid plexus is also involved in removing waste products from the CSF.

      The patient described in the previous question displays symptoms and signs indicative of meningitis, including a positive Kernig’s sign. This test involves flexing the thigh and hip to 90 degrees, followed by extending the knee to elicit pain. Analysis of the CSF obtained through lumbar puncture can help identify the cause of meningitis and guide appropriate treatment.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      35.5
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  • Question 29 - A pharmaceutical company is conducting tests on a new insulin formulation. As part...

    Correct

    • A pharmaceutical company is conducting tests on a new insulin formulation. As part of their analysis, they have verified that tyrosine kinase receptors are activated by insulin. What is the impact of these receptors on the target molecules?

      Your Answer: Target molecule phosphorylation

      Explanation:

      Activation of tyrosine kinase receptors leads to the phosphorylation of target molecules, which can result in various effects such as cell growth and differentiation. Insulin is an example of a drug that acts through tyrosine kinase receptors. It is important to note that target molecule oxidation, lysis, and reduction are not processes typically associated with tyrosine kinase receptor activation.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      36.9
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: K-ras

      Correct Answer: src

      Explanation:

      Additional genes implicated include MCC, DCC, c-yes, and bcl-2.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.8
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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects an underlying psychiatric condition and conducts a screening for psychiatric symptoms. During the screening, the patient reports experiencing symptoms for the past two years, such as feeling low, fatigue, and loss of interest in her hobbies. Based on this, the doctor diagnoses her with major depressive disorder. What clinical feature would warrant a reevaluation of her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Persecutory delusions

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia can be indicated by the presence of persecutory delusions, while the symptoms of depression align with the diagnosis. Guilty delusions, specifically, are a symptom commonly seen in cases of psychotic depression.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 32 - A 70-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Preoperatively, he was taking aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin. Intraoperatively, he received 5000 units of unfractionated heparin before the application of the aortic cross clamp. Upon admission to the critical care unit, his blood results are as follows:

      Full blood count
      Hb 8 g/dl
      Platelets 40 * 109/l
      WBC 7.1 * 109/l

      His fibrin degradation products are measured and found to be markedly elevated. What is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer: Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

      Explanation:

      DIC is the most probable diagnosis due to the presence of low platelet counts and elevated FDP in this scenario.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Under normal conditions, the coagulation and fibrinolysis processes work together to maintain hemostasis. However, in cases of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One of the critical factors in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. TF is normally not in contact with the circulation but is exposed after vascular damage or in response to cytokines and endotoxins. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, leading to the activation of the intrinsic pathway and the formation of clots.

      DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy. Diagnosis of DIC typically involves a blood test that shows decreased platelet count and fibrinogen levels, prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia may also be present, leading to the formation of schistocytes.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology and diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective management of this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 33 - Mrs. Johnson is a 54-year-old woman who underwent a left hemicolectomy for bowel...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Johnson is a 54-year-old woman who underwent a left hemicolectomy for bowel cancer 5 days ago and is currently recovering on the surgical ward. The nurse is concerned as she has been complaining of constant left-sided chest pain, cough, and shortness of breath. The following are her recent observations and blood tests:

      Blood pressure: 100/90 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.5oC
      SpO2: 91%
      Respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min
      Heart rate: 100 beats/min
      Hb: 130 g/L
      Platelets: 480 × 109/L
      WCC: 14.5 x 109/L
      CRP: 170 mg/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Lobar pneumonia

      Explanation:

      The question is asking for the possible causes of postoperative fever, including Wind, Water, Wound, and What did we do? The patient in this scenario has an infection indicated by an elevated white blood cell count and CRP levels due to tissue damage during surgery. Basal atelectasis is not a likely cause as it occurs within the first 48 hours and does not result in a raised white cell count. Lobar pneumonia is the correct answer as it fits with the timing of the fever and the patient’s infective blood test results. Pulmonary embolism is not a suitable answer as it does not explain the raised white cell count and typically occurs 5-7 days post-op. Myocardial infarction is also not a suitable answer as it is a complication that can occur during or after surgery due to stress and does not explain the raised white cell count.

      Understanding postoperative Pyrexia

      postoperative pyrexia, or fever, can occur after surgery and may be caused by various factors. Early causes of post-op pyrexia, which typically occur within the first five days after surgery, include blood transfusion, cellulitis, urinary tract infection, physiological systemic inflammatory reaction, and pulmonary atelectasis. However, the evidence to support the link between pyrexia and pulmonary atelectasis is limited.

      Late causes of post-op pyrexia, which occur more than five days after surgery, include venous thromboembolism, pneumonia, wound infection, and anastomotic leak. To remember the possible causes of post-op pyrexia, the memory aid of ‘the 4 W’s’ can be used, which stands for wind, water, wound, and what did we do? (iatrogenic).

      It is important to identify the cause of post-op pyrexia to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in monitoring patients for signs of fever and investigating the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 34 - A 65-year-old male presents with a six-month history of progressive weakness in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents with a six-month history of progressive weakness in the lower limbs associated with numbness. He also complains of feeling tired and lightheaded lately. He has had recent investigation for this and showed macrocytic anaemia with vitamin B12 deficiency. He is currently awaiting to commence on B12 replacement. Otherwise, he is normally fit and well and is not on any regular medication.

      Neurological examination of the lower limb shows the following:

      Left Right
      Power 4/5 4/5
      Sensation to coarse touch, pain, temperature and pressure normal normal
      Sensation to fine touch and vibration reduced reduced
      Proprioception reduced reduced
      Ankle reflex absent absent
      Babinski response upgoing upgoing

      Which of the following area of the spinal cord is most likely affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anterior and lateral columns

      Correct Answer: Dorsal and lateral columns

      Explanation:

      Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord affects both the dorsal and lateral columns. This condition is often caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 and can result in reduced power in the lower limbs, as well as a loss of sensation to fine touch and proprioception. The dorsal columns are primarily affected, leading to issues with proprioception and vibration sense, while the lateral columns contain the corticospinal tracts, which are responsible for motor function. The anterior column contains the spinothalamic tracts, which are responsible for pain, temperature, coarse touch, and pressure sensations. The lateral horns of the spinal cord contain the neuronal cell bodies of the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in Horner syndrome. The ventral horns of the spinal cord contain motor neurons for skeletal muscles and are associated with conditions such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease, and progressive muscular atrophy.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      58.2
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  • Question 35 - An 80-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical ward after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted to the acute medical ward after experiencing a myocardial infarction. During examination, it is discovered that his heart rate is 40 beats per minute. The consultant explains that this is due to damage to the conduction pathways between the sinoatrial and atrioventricular (AV) node, resulting in the AV node pacing his ventricles exclusively.

      In most patients, what is the blood supply to the AV node?

      Your Answer: Right marginal artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The AV node is typically supplied by the right coronary artery in right-dominant hearts, while in left-dominant hearts it is supplied by the left circumflex artery. The left circumflex artery also supplies the left atrium and some of the left ventricle, while the right marginal artery supplies the right ventricle, the posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum, and the left anterior descending artery supplies the left ventricle.

      The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 67-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department after his daughter found...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department after his daughter found him unconscious next to a bottle of pills. She suspects he may have overdosed on his medication for Parkinson's disease.

      Upon assessment, he is observed to be sweating profusely, excessively drooling, his pupils are constricted, and he seems disoriented.

      What is the appropriate antidote for this situation?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Atropine, an anticholinergic, is used to treat overdose of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors which are commonly used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis. Overdosing on these inhibitors can cause an abnormal increase in acetylcholine concentration in the synaptic cleft, leading to stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system and potentially resulting in bradycardia and respiratory arrest. Atropine works by reducing parasympathetic nervous system firing, thereby increasing heart rate. However, it cannot reverse respiratory arrest as the brain communicates with the diaphragm using nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. In cases of respiratory arrest, intubation and mechanical ventilation are necessary.

      In cases of acidaemia caused by overdoses of salicylates and tricyclic antidepressants, IV bicarbonate is administered.

      Varenicline, an agonist for nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, would worsen symptoms in cases of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor overdose. It is typically used for smoking cessation.

      N-acetyl cysteine is used to treat paracetamol overdose by replenishing glutathione stores, which aids in the conjugation of the toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine and facilitates excretion.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For example, in cases of paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal may be given if ingested within an hour, and N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation may be necessary. Salicylate overdose may require urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose may require flumazenil, although this is only used in severe cases due to the risk of seizures. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, while lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose may require protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be treated with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning may require the same treatment or haemodialysis. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose may require digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose may require desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning may require dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning may require hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      128.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What is the average stroke volume in a resting 75 Kg man? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average stroke volume in a resting 75 Kg man?

      Your Answer: 70ml

      Explanation:

      The range of stroke volumes is between 55 and 100 milliliters.

      The stroke volume refers to the amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricle during each cycle of cardiac contraction. This volume is usually the same for both ventricles and is approximately 70ml for a man weighing 70Kg. To calculate the stroke volume, the end systolic volume is subtracted from the end diastolic volume. Several factors can affect the stroke volume, including the size of the heart, its contractility, preload, and afterload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 74-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with slurred speech and a...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with slurred speech and a drooping left side of his face. During cranial nerve examination, he is unable to smile on the left side but can close both eyes, raise both eyebrows symmetrically, and wrinkle his forehead. What is the location of the lesion responsible for this facial nerve palsy?

      Your Answer: Right upper motor neuron

      Explanation:

      When there is weakness on one side of the face but the forehead remains unaffected (meaning the person can still raise their eyebrows and wrinkle their forehead), it is likely caused by an upper motor neuron lesion in the facial nerve on the opposite side of the weakness. This type of lesion is often the result of a stroke, brain tumor, or brain bleed. It is important to note that lower motor neuron lesions, such as those found in Bell’s palsy, do not spare the forehead and only affect one side of the face. A left upper motor neuron lesion would cause weakness on the right side of the face with forehead sparing. Damage to the zygomatic branch of the facial nerve does not result in forehead sparing.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A premature baby is born and the anaesthetists are struggling to ventilate the...

    Incorrect

    • A premature baby is born and the anaesthetists are struggling to ventilate the lungs because of insufficient surfactant. How does Laplace's law explain the force pushing inwards on the walls of the alveolus caused by surface tension between two static fluids, such as air and water in the alveolus?

      Your Answer: Directly proportional to the radius of the alveolus

      Correct Answer: Inversely proportional to the radius of the alveolus

      Explanation:

      The Relationship between Alveolar Size and Surface Tension in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, the alveolus is often represented as a perfect sphere to apply Laplace’s law. According to this law, there is an inverse relationship between the size of the alveolus and the surface tension. This means that smaller alveoli experience greater force than larger alveoli for a given surface tension, causing them to collapse first. This phenomenon is similar to what happens when two balloons of different sizes are attached together, with the smaller balloon emptying into the larger one.

      In the lungs, this collapse of smaller alveoli can lead to atelectasis and collapse if surfactant is not present. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension, making it easier to expand the alveoli and preventing smaller alveoli from collapsing. this relationship between alveolar size and surface tension is crucial in respiratory physiology, as it helps explain the importance of surfactant in maintaining proper lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a shoulder injury sustained...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a shoulder injury sustained during a football game. He reports experiencing sudden pain after colliding with another player. Upon examination, there is no evidence of neurovascular impairment, but an x-ray reveals anterior displacement of the humeral head. To alleviate the patient's discomfort during the relocation procedure, ketamine is administered as an analgesic. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: NMDA antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ketamine’s mechanism of action is as an NMDA antagonist, blocking NMDA receptors. It is commonly used as an anaesthetic agent for short-term procedures, inducing a dissociative state rather than a full loss of consciousness. Ketamine is not an opioid drug and does not act on opioid receptors. It also does not inhibit the reuptake of GABA or potentiate the effect of GABA. Muscarinic antagonist is an incorrect answer as it is a class of drugs used for various conditions through their actions on the parasympathetic nervous system.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. They can be administered through inhalation or intravenous injection. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3. These drugs can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and increased pressure in gas-filled body compartments. Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, also act on receptors in the brain, but through different mechanisms. These drugs can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, and hallucinations. Each drug has its own unique properties and is chosen based on the patient’s medical history and the type of surgery being performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A teenager comes to the clinic with an inability to flex his arm...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager comes to the clinic with an inability to flex his arm at the elbow and reduced sensation in the deltoid region after falling down the stairs. The diagnosis reveals axillary nerve palsy. What could be the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Axillary trauma

      Correct Answer: Shoulder dislocation or fracture

      Explanation:

      Axillary nerve palsy is most commonly caused by dislocation or fracture near the shoulder, rather than trauma to the axilla or chest wall. Medial epicondyle fractures do not typically result in axillary nerve palsy, but it is possible for trauma to the humerus to lead to this condition.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 40-year-old male is admitted to a neurology ward with a diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male is admitted to a neurology ward with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. During examination, it is observed that there is paralysis of big toe extension.

      Which myotome is affected by this paralysis?

      Your Answer: S1

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The L5 myotome is responsible for extending the big toe, while S1 is responsible for ankle plantar-flexion, ankle eversion, and knee flexion. L4 is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion, and T12 is responsible for abdominal muscle contraction.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 29-year-old woman is a few minutes into receiving a blood transfusion after...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman is a few minutes into receiving a blood transfusion after experiencing a postpartum haemorrhage when she experiences intense chest and abdominal pain. Her temperature has risen to 38.1ºC, and her BP is 80/60 mmHg. The medical team suspects that she is having an acute reaction to the blood product transfusion.

      What is the underlying mechanism of the probable transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer: Host IgM antibody destruction of ABO-incompatible red blood cells (RBCs)

      Explanation:

      The correct mechanism of acute haemolytic transfusion reactions is the destruction of ABO-incompatible red blood cells (RBCs) by host IgM antibodies. These reactions typically occur due to human error in giving patients ABO-incompatible blood products. Symptoms include hypotension, fever, and abdominal and/or chest pain.

      Fluid overload, host anti-IgA antibodies reacting against donor IgA, and host antibodies reacting with donor white cell fragments are all incorrect mechanisms for acute haemolytic transfusion reactions. These mechanisms are associated with transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), anaphylaxis to blood products in patients with IgA deficiency, and non-haemolytic febrile reactions, respectively. These conditions present with different symptoms and are not associated with the rapid onset of hypotension and abdominal pain seen in acute haemolytic transfusion reactions.

      Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.

      TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A patient in his late 50s presents with megaloblastic, macrocytic anaemia due to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in his late 50s presents with megaloblastic, macrocytic anaemia due to folate deficiency. Prior to treatment, he undergoes testing for Vitamin B12 deficiency. What is the relationship between these two vitamins?

      Your Answer: Both are recommended as supplements during the first trimester of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 regenerates folic acid in the body

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 and folate have a close relationship in terms of their function in the body. Vitamin B12 plays a crucial role in regenerating folic acid, which is the active form of folate. Folic acid is then used in a metabolic process that eventually produces heme.

      It is important to test for vitamin B12 deficiency as treating a folate deficiency with folic acid may mask potential symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency. If left untreated, vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to peripheral neuropathy.

      While folic acid can be found in green, leafy vegetables, vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal products.

      Crohn’s disease is a common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, but it does not typically cause folate deficiency.

      During the first trimester of pregnancy, only folic acid is supplemented to prevent neural tube defects.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      32.8
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  • Question 45 - A 58-year-old patient is having a planned hysterectomy. While the surgery is ongoing,...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old patient is having a planned hysterectomy. While the surgery is ongoing, her blood pressure suddenly decreases to 60/40 mmHg and her heart rate increases to 102 bpm. The anaesthetist decides to give phenylephrine. After a few minutes, the patient's blood pressure returns to 100/80 mmHg and her heart rate drops to 85 bpm.

      What is the mechanism of action of phenylephrine in this scenario?

      Your Answer: α₁ agonist

      Explanation:

      Smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels is mediated by α1 adrenergic receptors, which can be activated by α1 agonists such as phenylephrine. This causes an increase in peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure. β₁ agonists affect the heart rate and contractility, β₂ agonists affect the airways in the lungs, and M₂ antagonists affect heart rate by blocking the vagus nerve.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      29.5
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  • Question 46 - A 79-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing severe dizziness, vertigo,...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing severe dizziness, vertigo, slurred speech, and nausea with vomiting. The diagnosis reveals a basilar artery stroke. Which blood vessels combine to form the affected artery?

      Your Answer: Vertebral arteries

      Explanation:

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Mr. Johnson is a 72-year-old man who was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia...

    Incorrect

    • Mr. Johnson is a 72-year-old man who was diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) 18 months ago. His disease has been stable, however he has now presented with fatigue and splenomegaly. His blood results are shown below.

      Hb 85 g/dL
      WCC 41 x 109 cells/L
      Plts 210 x 109 cells/L
      MCV 88 fl
      Haptoglobin 115 mg/dL (30-200 mg/dL)
      Direct Coombs test Positive

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

      Explanation:

      CLL is linked to warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      Complications of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It can lead to various complications, including anaemia, hypogammaglobulinaemia, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Patients with CLL may also experience recurrent infections due to their weakened immune system. However, one of the most severe complications of CLL is Richter’s transformation.

      Richter’s transformation occurs when CLL cells transform into a high-grade, fast-growing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. This transformation can happen when the leukaemia cells enter the lymph nodes. Patients with Richter’s transformation often become unwell very suddenly and may experience symptoms such as lymph node swelling, fever without infection, weight loss, night sweats, nausea, and abdominal pain.

      It is essential for patients with CLL to be aware of the potential complications and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Regular check-ups and monitoring can also help detect any changes in the condition early on, allowing for prompt treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes presents to the emergency department with dull chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea. He is promptly administered oxygen, aspirin, morphine, metoclopramide, atenolol, and nitrates.

      Upon examination, angiography reveals significant blockage in all four coronary vessels. As a result, he is scheduled for an urgent coronary artery bypass graft, which will necessitate the removal of a vein from his lower limb.

      Which nerve is most frequently affected during a vein harvest for CABG?

      Your Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      During a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), the great saphenous vein is often harvested. However, this procedure can lead to damage of the saphenous nerve, which runs closely alongside the vein in the medial aspect of the leg. Saphenous neuralgia, characterized by numbness, heightened sensitivity, and pain in the saphenous nerve distribution area, can result from such injury. Other nerves are not typically affected during a vein harvest for CABG.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      48.4
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  • Question 49 - Ms. Johnson is a 72-year-old patient who has been visiting your clinic with...

    Correct

    • Ms. Johnson is a 72-year-old patient who has been visiting your clinic with ankle swelling and breathlessness following a recent hospitalization due to acute respiratory distress. You have received the results of her tests, which indicate a significantly reduced ejection fraction on echocardiography and a high serum B-type natriuretic peptide, leading to a diagnosis of heart failure. She is currently taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, beta-blocker, and diuretic to manage her symptoms.

      However, Ms. Johnson's family has requested that you do not discuss the specific diagnosis of heart failure with her, as they believe it will cause her undue stress. You recently read an article in a medical journal that suggests patients with similar echocardiography findings and symptoms have a poor prognosis, with an average life expectancy of less than a year.

      Ms. Johnson is scheduled to meet with you to discuss her test results. How should you approach this consultation, taking into account her family's wishes and the potentially difficult prognosis?

      Your Answer: Find out how much Mrs Rogers wants to know about her condition and tailor your discussion appropriately, including a discussion about prognosis if she wishes

      Explanation:

      Autonomy in Medical Decision Making

      In medical decision making, the issue of autonomy arises when considering the patient’s right to information and the family’s right to make decisions on their behalf. In the case of a mentally competent adult like Mrs Rogers, it is important to consider both perspectives. While the family’s views should be taken into account, the patient’s information requirements must also be considered. Withholding information may damage the trust between doctor and patient and deprive the patient of the ability to plan for the future. However, informing the patient of their diagnosis and prognosis may also cause unnecessary distress.

      It is important for doctors to take a patient-centred and non-paternalistic approach in such situations. The doctor should attempt to discover the patient’s information requirements and balance the need to avoid harm with the potential positive outcomes of informing the patient. By doing so, the patient may be more likely to comply with treatment and make the most of their remaining time. In summary, autonomy in medical decision making requires a delicate balance between respecting the patient’s wishes and ensuring their well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Law
      61.4
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  • Question 50 - A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a complaint of waking...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a complaint of waking up with a severe headache for the past three days. He has been feeling increasingly nauseated and has vomited three times in the last 24 hours. During the examination, it was found that he has reduced power in his left upper limb and bilateral papilloedema. A CT scan of his head revealed a mass on the right side, close to the midline in the posterior frontal lobe. The mass is blocking the drainage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) into the third ventricle, causing enlargement of the lateral ventricle on the right side. Can you identify the structure through which CSF from the lateral ventricle drains into the third ventricle?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Correct Answer: Interventricular foramen

      Explanation:

      The interventricular foramina allow the two lateral ventricles to drain into the third ventricle, which is located in the midline between the thalami of the two hemispheres. The third ventricle is connected to the fourth ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius). CSF flows from the third ventricle into the fourth ventricle and exits through one of four openings: the median aperture (foramen of Magendie), either of the two lateral apertures (foramina of Luschka), or the central canal at the obex.

      The patient described in the question is exhibiting symptoms and signs that suggest an increase in intracranial pressure, which can be caused by various factors such as mass lesions and neoplasms. In this case, a mass is obstructing the normal flow of CSF through the ventricular system, leading to an increase in intracranial pressure and resulting in a motor deficit on the opposite side of the body. Symptoms of raised ICP may include vomiting, headaches that worsen when lying down or upon waking, changes in mental state, and papilloedema.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 51 - Which of the following hepatobiliary conditions is commonly linked with ulcerative colitis, typically...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hepatobiliary conditions is commonly linked with ulcerative colitis, typically seen in adult patients?

      Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The risk of developing liver cancer is higher in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and ulcerative colitis. However, the risk of malignant transformation is not increased in patients with Crohn’s disease. Impaired entero-hepatic circulation in Crohn’s disease is linked to the development of gallstones. Unlike PSC, ulcerative colitis does not elevate the risk of other liver lesions.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 52 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman attends her 20-week anomaly scan. She has had two...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman attends her 20-week anomaly scan. She has had two previous pregnancies resulting in two sons. The pregnancy has been uneventful so far. During the scan, the sonographer observes that the foetus is below the 10th percentile for size, indicating that it is small for gestational age.

      What potential risk factors could have played a role in this outcome?

      Your Answer: Male foetus

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking while pregnant is associated with a higher likelihood of having a baby that is small for gestational age. The increased risk is thought to be due to exposure to nicotine and carbon monoxide. Diabetes mellitus, previous pregnancy, and maternal obesity are not linked to small for gestational age babies, but rather to large for gestational age babies.

      Small for Gestational Age (SGA) is a statistical definition used to describe babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age. Although there is no universally agreed percentile, the 10th percentile is often used, meaning that 10% of normal babies will be below this threshold. SGA can be determined either antenatally or postnatally. There are two types of SGA: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical SGA occurs when the fetal head circumference and abdominal circumference are equally small, while asymmetrical SGA occurs when the abdominal circumference slows relative to the increase in head circumference.

      There are various causes of SGA, including incorrect dating, constitutionally small (normal) babies, and abnormal fetuses. Symmetrical SGA is more common and can be caused by idiopathic factors, race, sex, placental insufficiency, pre-eclampsia, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, toxins such as smoking and heroin, and infections such as CMV, parvovirus, rubella, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis. Asymmetrical SGA is less common and can be caused by toxins such as alcohol, cigarettes, and heroin, chromosomal and congenital abnormalities, and infections.

      The management of SGA depends on the type and cause. For symmetrical SGA, most cases represent the lower limits of the normal range and require fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments to demonstrate normal growth rates. Pathological causes should be ruled out by checking maternal blood for infections and searching the fetus carefully with ultrasound for markers of chromosomal abnormality. Asymmetrical SGA also requires fortnightly ultrasound growth assessments, as well as biophysical profiles and Doppler waveforms from umbilical circulation to look for absent end-diastolic flow. If results are sub-optimal, delivery may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      63.5
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  • Question 53 - A 72-year-old female presents to her local physician complaining of general fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old female presents to her local physician complaining of general fatigue and tiredness. She reports no fever, night sweats, or weight loss. She maintains an active lifestyle and attends fitness classes weekly. Her medical history includes hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, constipation, and depression.

      The physician orders blood tests, and the results are as follows:

      - Hb: 113 g/l
      - Platelets: 239 * 109/l
      - WBC: 6 * 109/l
      - Neuts: 2 * 109/l
      - Lymphs: 2 * 109/l
      - Eosin: 0.3 * 109/l
      - Na+: 142 mmol/l
      - K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      - Bilirubin: 12 µmol/l
      - ALP: 23 u/l
      - ALT: 10 u/l
      - γGT: 23 u/l
      - Urea: 4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 50 µmol/l
      - Albumin: 30 g/l

      Which medication is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Correct Answer: Senna

      Explanation:

      Prolonged use of senna increases the risk of hypokalemia, which is evident in the patient’s blood results. The symptoms of mild hypokalemia are non-specific and include fatigue, muscle weakness, constipation, and rhabdomyolysis. Given the patient’s medical history of constipation, it is likely that she has been taking a laxative, which could be either osmotic or a stimulant. Both types of laxatives are known to cause hypokalemia, and in this case, senna is the likely culprit.

      Heparin can cause hyperkalemia, especially when used in conjunction with spironolactone, ACE inhibitors, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and trimethoprim. Heparin inhibits aldosterone synthesis, leading to increased potassium retention and sodium excretion. This effect is more pronounced in elderly individuals, diabetics, and those with renal failure. The risk of hyperkalemia increases with higher doses, prolonged use, and unfractionated heparin therapy.

      Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. It promotes the loss of sodium and water from the body without depleting potassium. Amiloride causes hyperkalemia by inhibiting sodium reabsorption at various points in the kidneys, which reduces potassium and hydrogen secretion and subsequent excretion.

      Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that is known to cause hyperkalemia and is therefore not the cause of the patient’s hypokalemia.

      Understanding Laxatives

      Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.

      Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.

      Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.

      In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 54 - A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a typical physiological response to increase calcium levels? In the kidney, where does parathyroid hormone act to enhance calcium reabsorption?

      Your Answer: Loop of Henle

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      4.6
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  • Question 55 - A 17-year-old female is seeking a termination and she is currently 16 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female is seeking a termination and she is currently 16 weeks pregnant.
      At what point in the pregnancy does the law impose more restrictions on obtaining a termination?

      Your Answer: 21 weeks

      Correct Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Abortion Law in the UK

      The Abortion Act 1967, which was amended by the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990, governs the law on abortion in the UK. According to this law, an abortion can be carried out until 24 weeks of pregnancy if two doctors agree that continuing with the pregnancy would pose a risk to the physical or psychological health of the mother or her existing children.

      If the pregnancy has progressed beyond 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if two doctors agree that the woman’s health is gravely threatened by the pregnancy or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities. It is important to note that there is no time limit on procuring an abortion if these criteria are met.

      In summary, the law on abortion in the UK allows for abortions to be carried out up to 24 weeks if there is a risk to the mother’s health or the health of her existing children. After 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if the woman’s health is at risk or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11
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  • Question 56 - A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot initiate shoulder abduction. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be dysfunctional?

      Your Answer: Medial pectoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The Suprascapular Nerve and its Function

      The suprascapular nerve is a nerve that originates from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. It is located superior to the trunks of the brachial plexus and runs parallel to them. The nerve passes through the scapular notch, which is located deep to the trapezius muscle. Its main function is to innervate both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are responsible for initiating abduction of the shoulder.

      If the suprascapular nerve is damaged, patients may experience difficulty in initiating abduction of the shoulder. However, they may still be able to abduct the shoulder by leaning over the affected side, as the deltoid muscle can then continue to abduct the shoulder. Overall, the suprascapular nerve plays an important role in the movement and function of the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 57 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She has been experiencing increased breathlessness, particularly at night. Her medical history includes long-standing COPD, heart failure, and previous breast cancer that was treated with a mastectomy and radiotherapy. She used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day for 22 years but has since quit.

      During the examination, her respiratory rate is 23/min, oxygen saturation is 93%, blood pressure is 124/98mmHg, and temperature is 37.2ºC. A gas transfer test is performed, and her transfer factor is found to be low.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      TLCO, also known as transfer factor, is a measurement of how quickly gas can move from a person’s lungs into their bloodstream. To test TLCO, a patient inhales a mixture of carbon monoxide and a tracer gas, holds their breath for 10 seconds, and then exhales forcefully. The exhaled gas is analyzed to determine how much tracer gas was absorbed during the 10-second period.

      A high TLCO value is associated with conditions such as asthma, pulmonary hemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, and exercise. Conversely, most other conditions result in a low TLCO value, including pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary edema, emphysema, and anemia.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 58 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal bloating, diarrhoea, and fatigue for the past 6 months. She experiences severe cramps after most meals and struggles to focus on her work at the office.

      After conducting investigations, it is found that her tissue transglutaminases (TTG) are positive. What is a potential complication of the suspected underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Correct Answer: Hyposplenism

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism is a possible complication of coeliac disease. The patient’s symptoms and positive tissue transglutaminases support the diagnosis of coeliac disease, which can lead to malabsorption of important nutrients like iron, folate, and vitamin B12. Hyposplenism may occur due to autoimmune processes and loss of lymphocyte recirculation caused by inflammation in the colon. However, hepatomegaly, pancreatitis, and polycythaemia are not associated with coeliac disease.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 59 - Sophie is a 2-year-old child being cared for in a neonatal intensive care...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 2-year-old child being cared for in a neonatal intensive care unit for multi-system organ failure, she is unlikely to see her fourth birthday.

      Her older brother, Jack, is a 9-year-old child who is healthy and doing well in school, except his PE teacher has noticed that Jack has mild difficulties with balance and coordination.

      Genetic testing identified both Sophie and Jack have the same disease affecting their mitochondria, which they inherited from their mother but not from their father.

      What is the most probable biological reason for why Sophie's condition is significantly more severe than Jack's?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive condition

      Correct Answer: Mitochondrial heteroplasmy

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial heteroplasmy is the presence of multiple types of mitochondrial DNA within an individual, which can result in variable expression of mitochondrial disease. It is likely that Tom and Emily’s mother has mitochondrial heteroplasmy, which caused her to produce eggs with mitochondria containing different genomes. If a mitochondrion contains unhealthy DNA, it may be poorly functional and result in symptoms such as poor balance and coordination, as seen in Emily. Tom, on the other hand, likely developed from an egg with a high proportion of unhealthy mitochondria, leading to multi-system organ failure and a short life expectancy.

      The condition cannot be autosomal recessive as Tom would need to inherit the condition from both parents, not just his mother. Genetic mosaicism is also unlikely as the question states that the condition was inherited from their mother. X-linked dominant inheritance is also ruled out as it only requires one affected chromosome to cause disease.

      It is important to note that mitochondrial disease severity can be influenced by various factors, including mitochondrial heteroplasmy, genetic mosaicism, and autosomal recessive mutations.

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 60 - A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of whitish discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of whitish discharge from the urethra and a burning sensation during urination. He reports having multiple unprotected sexual encounters. gonorrhoeae is diagnosed after appropriate testing and he is treated with ceftriaxone intramuscularly. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cell wall formation

      Explanation:

      The main treatment for gonorrhoeae is a single dose of IM ceftriaxone, which belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation. Azithromycin may also be prescribed to treat co-infection with Chlamydia. Quinolones, which inhibit DNA synthesis, are not recommended due to increased resistance. Sulphonamides work by inhibiting folic acid formation, while macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogramins, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines work by inhibiting protein synthesis. Although azithromycin may be used as an add-on therapy for co-infection with Chlamydia, it is not the primary treatment for gonorrhoeae and is administered orally. Rifampicin, on the other hand, works by inhibiting RNA synthesis.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Principles (9/15) 60%
Clinical Sciences (2/3) 67%
Neurological System (3/9) 33%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (2/4) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (4/8) 50%
Respiratory System (4/5) 80%
Basic Sciences (2/3) 67%
Reproductive System (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System (1/2) 50%
Ethics And Law (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular System (2/3) 67%
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