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Question 1
Correct
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A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has since entered into a new relationship, but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship, but it is troubled by her frequent outbursts of anger. These symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by intense and rapidly changing emotions, difficulties with relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder, dependent personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder are not likely diagnoses based on the information provided.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman is brought to your clinic by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss (her BMI has dropped from 21 to 18.5 in the past year). You have seen her before and have ruled out any physical causes for her weight loss. When you inquire about purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, she becomes defensive, but you notice that her tooth enamel is eroded. She admits to feeling overweight and has been experiencing low mood for several months, finding little pleasure in anything except for when she indulges in too much chocolate and bread. However, she feels even more disgusted with herself afterwards. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Understanding Eating Disorders: Bulimia Nervosa and Anorexia Nervosa
Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and emotional consequences. Two common types of eating disorders are bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of binge eating, followed by purging behaviors such as vomiting, laxative abuse, or excessive exercise. People with bulimia often feel a loss of control during binge episodes and experience intense guilt afterwards. They may also engage in periods of dietary restraint and have a preoccupation with body weight and shape. Bulimia is more common in women and can cause dental problems, electrolyte imbalances, and other medical complications.
Anorexia nervosa involves deliberate weight loss to a low weight, often through restricted eating and excessive exercise. People with anorexia have a fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to a preoccupation with food and weight. Anorexia can cause severe malnutrition and medical complications such as osteoporosis, heart problems, and hormonal imbalances.
It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling to address the physical and psychological aspects of the condition. With proper care, recovery from an eating disorder is possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 3 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated the urinary retention?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Urinary retention may be a side effect of tricyclic antidepressants, particularly with the use of Amitriptyline due to its anticholinergic properties. This can lead to symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, and mydriasis. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are less likely to cause urinary retention and dry mouth. Benzodiazepines like diazepam do not have anticholinergic effects.
Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.
Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of the mental health act for suspected first-episode psychosis. During his mental state examination, burns are observed on his arms and he claims that insects are burrowing into his skin. He suggests that the burns are caused by bleach. The evaluating psychiatrist could not detect any insects, and when questioned, the patient became agitated and insisted that his skin was infested. What is the most probable disorder being described?
Your Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The patient in the scenario is experiencing delusional parasitosis, a psychiatric disorder characterized by a fixed, false belief that one is infested by parasites or ‘bugs’. This delusion can lead to extreme measures to try to eradicate the perceived infestation. Delusional parasitosis is also known as Ekbom syndrome. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s delusion, and formication are not applicable in this case.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.
In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male comes to the GP with concerns about his difficulty falling asleep. He believes that he may be suffering from chronic insomnia, which he has read about online.
The patient reports that he has attempted various methods to help him sleep, such as meditation and taking a warm bath before bed. However, he feels that he has too many thoughts racing through his mind and cannot seem to turn them off. This occurs at least three times a week and has persisted for the past month.
What indication would suggest that this individual has misdiagnosed himself?Your Answer: Chronic insomnia can only be diagnosed in patients below 50
Correct Answer: The duration of insomnia is too brief; it must be over 3 months
Explanation:If a person experiences difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep for at least three nights per week, they may be diagnosed with chronic insomnia after three months. This form of insomnia can occur alone or together with other sleep disturbances. The diagnosis of chronic insomnia is not limited by age and can be made in patients of any age.
Insomnia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Insomnia is a common problem reported in primary care, often associated with other physical and mental health complaints. It is defined as difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep, or early-morning awakening that leads to dissatisfaction with sleep quantity or quality, despite adequate time and opportunity for sleep, resulting in impaired daytime functioning. Insomnia may be acute or chronic, with chronic insomnia diagnosed if a person has trouble falling asleep or staying asleep at least three nights per week for 3 months or longer.
Patients with insomnia typically present with decreased daytime functioning, decreased periods of sleep, or increased accidents due to poor concentration. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia, as management can differ. Risk factors for insomnia include female gender, increased age, lower educational attainment, unemployment, economic inactivity, widowed/divorced/separated status, alcohol and substance abuse, stimulant usage, poor sleep hygiene, chronic pain, chronic illness, and psychiatric illness.
Diagnosis is primarily made through patient interview, looking for the presence of risk factors. Sleep diaries and actigraphy may aid diagnosis, while polysomnography is not routinely indicated. Short-term management of insomnia involves identifying potential causes, advising good sleep hygiene, and considering the use of hypnotic drugs only if daytime impairment is severe. The recommended hypnotics for treating insomnia are short-acting benzodiazepines or non-benzodiazepines, with the lowest effective dose used for the shortest period possible. Diazepam may be useful if insomnia is linked to daytime anxiety. It is important to review after 2 weeks and consider referral for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). Other sedative drugs are not recommended for managing insomnia.
In summary, insomnia is a common problem that can significantly impact a person’s daily functioning. It is important to identify the cause of insomnia and manage it appropriately, with short-term management involving good sleep hygiene and the cautious use of hypnotic drugs. Referral for CBT may also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is seeking help at the Psychiatry Clinic upon referral from her General Practitioner. The patient is experiencing persistent low mood for the past two months and finds it difficult to get out of bed to go to work at times. She used to enjoy playing tennis, but now she does not find pleasure in any sports. Additionally, she has lost interest in food and lacks the motivation to go out and meet her friends. The patient also reports waking up early in the morning and having difficulty falling back asleep. She lives alone and has been divorced for two years. She smokes and drinks moderate amounts of alcohol.
What is the most affected aspect of pleasure in this patient?Your Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Neurotransmitters and Depression: Understanding the Role of Dopamine
Depression is a complex mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While the exact causes of depression are not fully understood, research has shown that neurotransmitters play a crucial role in its pathophysiology. One of the main neurotransmitters involved in depression is dopamine.
Dopamine is primarily involved in the reward system of the brain, which is responsible for feelings of pleasure and motivation. Anhedonia, the lack of pleasure in doing pleasurable activities, is a major symptom of depression. Studies have shown that the reward system, which works primarily via the action of dopamine, is affected in depression.
While most antidepressants work by increasing the concentration of serotonin or norepinephrine in the neuronal synaptic cleft, anhedonia has been a symptom that is hard to treat. This is because dopamine is the main neurotransmitter involved in the reward system, and increasing its concentration is crucial in relieving anhedonia.
Other neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, serotonin, noradrenaline, and GABA, also play a role in depression, but they are not primarily involved in the reward system and anhedonia symptoms. Understanding the role of dopamine in depression can help in the development of more effective treatments for this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is receiving electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his treatment-resistant depression. What is the most probable side effect he may encounter?
Your Answer: Retrograde amnesia
Explanation:ECT has the potential to cause memory impairment, which is its most significant side effect. The NICE guidelines recommend that memory should be evaluated before and after each treatment course. Retrograde amnesia, which is the inability to recall events before the treatment, is more common than anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories after the treatment.
Immediate side effects of ECT include drowsiness, confusion, headache, nausea, aching muscles, and loss of appetite. On the other hand, long-term side effects may include apathy, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, loss of emotional responses, and difficulty learning new information.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presented to the hospital, accompanied by the police after having had a fight in a casino. The casino manager called the police when the man refused to leave after he had spent almost 24 hours gambling. The patient ran out of money and was harassing other clients, trying to borrow money from them and telling them that he will return it after he had won and invested the prize money. The patient has no known next of kin and refuses to engage with the attending doctor. He threatens to assault the medical staff and is eventually put under urgent mental health Section 4. A review of his medical notes reveals that the only medication on which he has been is lithium for a known psychiatric illness, but he has not been in touch with his general practitioner for the past two months.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Check the lithium levels and consider adding olanzapine
Explanation:Management of Bipolar Depression with Mania or Hypomania
According to the latest NICE guideline CG85, patients with bipolar depression presenting with mania or hypomania should have their lithium levels checked and consider adding an antipsychotic such as haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine or risperidone. Therefore, checking the lithium levels and considering adding olanzapine is the correct answer in this case.
Stopping lithium without checking the levels first is not recommended as it is a mood stabiliser and may be required for the patient. Starting haloperidol or risperidone without checking the lithium levels is also not recommended as the doctor must consider the patient’s lithium levels before adding an antipsychotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a backache that has persisted for the last two weeks. The doctor diagnoses her with a muscle strain and recommends rest with paracetamol for pain as needed. The patient requested narcotic pain medicine, but the doctor refused to prescribe the drug because she thought a medicine of that strength was unnecessary. The patient left the examination room angrily and yelled at the reception staff on her way out.
Which of the following defence mechanisms was the patient demonstrating?Your Answer: Displacement
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms in Psychology
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations or emotions. These mechanisms can be conscious or unconscious and can be adaptive or maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms:
Displacement: This occurs when a person redirects their emotions or impulses from the original source to a neutral or innocent person or object.
Projection: This is when a person attributes their own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to someone else.
Denial: This is when a person refuses to accept reality or a diagnosis, often to avoid the pain or discomfort associated with it.
Fixation: This is when a person becomes overly focused on a particular thought, idea, or object as a way of coping with stress.
Splitting: This is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder, where a person sees others as either all good or all bad, and may switch between these views rapidly.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize when they are using them and work towards more adaptive coping strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant. Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a proton pump inhibitor as a precaution?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:When prescribing an SSRI such as citalopram for depression, it is important to consider the potential risk of GI bleeding, especially if the patient is already taking an NSAID. This is because SSRIs can deplete platelet serotonin, which can reduce clot formation and increase the risk of bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a PPI should also be prescribed.
TCAs like amitriptyline are also used to treat depression and pain syndromes, but they are not commonly associated with GI bleeds. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, and selegiline, a MAOI, are rarely used for depression and are not typically associated with GI bleeds either.
St John’s Wort, a plant commonly used in alternative medicine for depression, has not been associated with an increased risk of GI bleeding, but it can interfere with other medications and increase the risk of serotonin syndrome when used with other antidepressants.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells, dizziness, palpitations and pressure in his chest. He experiences these symptoms for 5-10 minutes during which he becomes anxious about fainting and dying. He takes a longer route to work to avoid crossing busy streets as he fears getting hit by a car if he faints. He avoids public speaking and works late into the night from home, which exacerbates his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Panic disorder with agoraphobia
Explanation:Differentiating Panic Disorder from Other Conditions
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by intense anxiety episodes with somatic symptoms and an exaggerated sense of danger. However, it can be challenging to distinguish panic disorder from other conditions that share similar symptoms. Here are some examples:
Panic Disorder vs. Somatisation Disorder
Patients with somatisation disorder also experience physical symptoms, but they fall into four different clusters: pain, gastrointestinal, urogenital, and neurological dysfunction. In contrast, panic disorder symptoms are more generalized and not limited to specific bodily functions.
Panic Disorder vs. Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia rarely induces severe panic or anticipatory anxiety, except in cases of insulin reactions. Patients with hypoglycemia typically experience symptoms such as sweating and hunger, which are not necessarily associated with panic disorder.
Panic Disorder vs. Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia
Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is a heart condition that causes a doubling of the pulse rate and requires electrocardiographic evidence for diagnosis. While it may cause some anxiety, it is not typically accompanied by the intense subjective anxiety seen in panic disorder.
Panic Disorder vs. Specific Phobia
Specific phobias involve reactions to limited cues or situations, such as spiders, blood, or needles. While they may trigger panic attacks and avoidance, they are not as generalized as panic disorder and are limited to specific feared situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia has been taking clozapine for five years and has been stable during that time. During his latest check-up, it was discovered that his clozapine levels were higher than recommended, resulting in a reduction in his dosage.
What is the most probable cause of an increase in clozapine blood levels?Your Answer: Omitting doses
Correct Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:Stopping smoking can increase clozapine levels, while starting or increasing smoking can decrease them. Alcohol binges can also increase levels, while omitting doses can decrease them. Stress and weight gain have minimal effects on clozapine levels. It is important to discuss smoking cessation with a psychiatrist before making any changes.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man, with a history of severe depression, is admitted unconscious to the hospital, following a suicide attempt where he stabbed himself with a knife, with significant intent of causing death. His past psychiatric history suggests that this is his fifth suicide attempt, with the four previous attempts involving taking an overdose of his antidepressants and paracetamol. During this admission, he needed surgery for bowel repair. He is now three days post-operation on the Surgical Ward and is having one-to-one nursing due to recurrent suicidal thoughts after his surgery. The consulting surgeon thinks he is not fit enough to be discharged, and a referral is made to liaison psychiatry. After assessing the patient, the psychiatrist reports that the patient’s current severe depression is affecting his capacity and that the patient’s mental health puts himself at risk of harm. The psychiatrist decides to detain him on the ward for at least three days. The patient insists on leaving and maintains that he has no interest to be alive.
Which is the most appropriate section for the doctor to use to keep this patient in hospital?Your Answer: Section 2
Correct Answer: Section 5(2)
Explanation:The Mental Health Act has several sections that allow doctors and mental health professionals to keep patients in hospital for assessment or treatment. Section 5(2) can be used by doctors to keep a patient in hospital for at least 72 hours if they have a history of severe depression, previous suicide attempts, or recurrent suicidal thoughts. Section 2 is used by approved mental health professionals for assessment and allows for a maximum stay of 28 days. Section 4 is used in emergencies and allows for a 72-hour stay. Section 5(4) can be used by mental health or learning disability nurses for a maximum of six hours. Section 3 can be used for treatment for up to six months, with the possibility of extensions and treatment against the patient’s will in the first three months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman who is well known to the community mental health team is brought into the psychiatric hospital by her worried friends. She has not been eating more than a few mouthfuls of food a day for the last two weeks and refuses to speak more than a few words. She remains awake all night and rocks in her chair. She even refuses to drink more than a cupful of water per day despite numerous attempts by her friends, doctors and psychiatrists. She is refusing all oral medications. After a brief conversation, you feel she has capacity to make decisions. You learn she has a long history of depression which has been very severe at times.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
Explanation:The best treatment for a patient with severe depression who is refusing to eat or drink is electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT involves 12 sessions and can be effective for patients with a high risk of suicide, psychotic features, catatonic stupor, food refusal, severe weight loss or dehydration, and those who have not responded to antidepressants. If the patient is unable to consent, their capacity must be assessed and treatment may be given under the Mental Health Act. NG tube insertion, emergency antidepressants, lithium, and cognitive behavioural therapy are not appropriate options for this acute situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman with a history of manic-depressive psychosis, diagnosed at the age of 23, presents to her General Practitioner with polydipsia and polyuria. Current medication includes lithium and a steroid inhaler for bronchial asthma. Examination reveals a blood pressure (BP) of 110/75 mmHg, with a pulse of 80 bpm and regular. There are normal fasting sugar levels and there is no postural drop on standing.
What are the investigation findings most likely to help diagnose this condition?Your Answer: Low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality
Explanation:There are various medical conditions that can cause changes in urine and serum osmolality levels. Lithium is a common cause of acquired nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone secretion or poor kidney response to ADH. On the other hand, high blood sugar levels are associated with polyuria and polydipsia, which can be indicative of diabetes mellitus. Elevated serum calcium levels may be caused by hyperparathyroidism or vitamin D excess, which can also lead to polyuria and polydipsia. However, if the patient has a history of psychosis, psychogenic polydipsia may be the more likely cause. This condition is characterized by low urine and serum osmolality due to excessive water intake, often seen in middle-aged women with psychiatric comorbidities or after lesions in the hypothalamus affecting thirst centers. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is another disorder that can cause changes in urine and serum osmolality levels, characterized by high urine osmolality and low serum osmolality due to excessive ADH production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman returns to your clinic complaining of constant feelings of sadness, loss of appetite, insomnia, and a lack of enjoyment in anything. Despite making lifestyle changes and setting small goals, she still feels hopeless and requests medication. You decide to prescribe sertraline. What drug should be avoided in patients taking an SSRI?
Your Answer: Sumatriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic with concerns that her husband is cheating on her. They have been married for 10 years and have always been faithful to each other. She is a stay-at-home mom and her husband works long hours. You wonder about the likelihood of her claims being true.
What is the medical term for this type of delusional jealousy?Your Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where individuals believe that their partner is being unfaithful. This belief can stem from a variety of underlying conditions, including affective states, schizophrenia, or personality disorders. Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, even when none exists. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
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Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.
Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.
What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient with a history of bipolar disorder visits your GP clinic for routine blood tests. Despite feeling completely fine, he wants to check his health status. Upon clinical examination, there are no signs of splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy.
The following are the results:
- Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Na+ 144 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 114 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 5.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
- Free thyroxine (T4) 9.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
- Lithium level 0.75 mmol/L (0.6 - 1.2)
What advice would you give to this patient?Your Answer: Safety net to return if symptoms develop, arrange repeat blood tests as per usual, under the normal monitoring schedule
Explanation:Lithium, a mood-stabilizing drug commonly used in bipolar disorder, can lead to various health complications such as thyroid, cardiac, renal, and neurological issues. One of the common side effects of lithium is benign leucocytosis, which is also associated with other drugs like corticosteroids and beta-blockers. In this case, it is appropriate to continue with the normal monitoring schedule and safety netting for any signs of infection or malignancy, as there are no indications of either. Antibiotics would not be necessary. Malignant leucocytosis is unlikely as there are no accompanying symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, bleeding, lymphadenopathy, or bone pain. Withholding lithium would not be advisable as it is effectively managing the patient’s condition. The psychiatric team should be consulted before making any decisions regarding the medication.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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A 42-year-old male has arrived at the emergency department after experiencing a witnessed seizure. According to the witness, the seizure lasted around 10 minutes and the patient was drowsy for 15 minutes afterward. The patient is now alert and conversing with the medical staff. They have a history of schizophrenia and have reported several seizures since beginning a new medication five weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this incident?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is the only atypical antipsychotic drug that reduces seizure threshold, increasing the likelihood of seizures. While effective, it has serious side effects such as agranulocytosis, neutropenia, reduced seizure threshold, and myocarditis. Aripiprazole has a favorable side effect profile and is less likely to cause hyperprolactinemia or other side effects. Olanzapine is known for causing dyslipidemia, weight gain, diabetes, and sedation, but may be prescribed to underweight patients who have trouble sleeping. Quetiapine is associated with weight gain, dyslipidemia, and postural hypotension.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol per day. His liver function is normal.
After 12 hours of admission, he suddenly becomes unwell. His vital signs are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/minute
- Oxygen saturations: 96%
- Blood pressure: 123/76 mmHg
- Heart rate: 106 bpm
- Capillary blood glucose: 4.1 mmol/L
An ECG shows sinus tachycardia at a rate of 103 bpm. Upon examination, he appears tremulous and sweaty and complains of feeling anxious.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide regimen and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement
Explanation:The administration of glucose IV is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing hypoglycemia. Simply providing regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement is insufficient as the patient also requires a benzodiazepine regimen for alcohol withdrawal. A stat dose of bisoprolol is not appropriate as the patient’s sinus tachycardia is a result of alcohol withdrawal and will not be effectively treated with bisoprolol.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 17-year-old male student spontaneously disrobed while watching a film. He saw wavy lines on the screen and then reported a brief episode of mental blankness, followed soon after by a headache and extreme fatigue.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Partial complex seizure or Focal Impaired Awareness epilepsy
Explanation:Neuropsychiatric Syndromes and Seizure Disorders: Understanding the Differences
Seizure disorders can be complex and varied, with different symptoms and causes. One type of seizure disorder is the partial complex seizure (PCS), which is confined to the limbic structures of the brain. Symptoms of PCS can include visual distortions and disruptions of cognitive function. Patients may also experience intense dysphoria, anxiety, or rage during or after a seizure. However, organised, directed violent behaviour is not typical of a seizure.
Another type of seizure disorder is the generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy, which can cause a loss of consciousness and convulsions. Inhibition-type behaviour is not typical of this disorder, and there is no history of tonic-clonic seizure activity.
Schizophreniform disorder is a condition that involves schizophrenic symptoms of short duration. Patients with repeated focal seizures may exhibit personality changes that closely resemble chronic schizophrenia, such as passivity, unusual sexual behaviour, anhedonia, obsessiveness, religiosity, and psychosis.
Migraine behavioural syndrome can involve visual auras, but it is unlikely to involve bizarre behaviour such as inappropriate disrobing. Finally, exhibitionism involves attracting attention to oneself, such as compulsive exposure of genitals in public.
Understanding the differences between these neuropsychiatric syndromes and seizure disorders is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down for the past 4 months. She reports having trouble sleeping and losing interest in activities she used to enjoy. Additionally, she has been experiencing excessive worry about the future. The patient has a history of dysmenorrhoea, which is managed with mefenamic acid. The GP recommends cognitive behavioural therapy and prescribes sertraline. What other medication should be considered given the patient's medical history?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:To reduce the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding when taking both an SSRI and an NSAID like mefenamic acid, it is recommended to prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not appropriate in this case as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid for dysmenorrhoea. Duloxetine, an SNRI, should not be prescribed as the patient has not yet tried an SSRI. Naproxen, another NSAID, is also not recommended as the patient is already taking mefenamic acid.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
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A 20-year old man with suspected schizophrenia is reviewed in clinic. During the consultation the patient informs you that there is a plot to destroy the world and that he has been chosen as a saviour.
Which of the following terms most appropriately describes this patient's belief?Your Answer: Delusion
Explanation:Understanding Psychotic Symptoms: Delusions, Illusions, Perseveration, and Hallucinations
Psychotic symptoms are not simply exaggerations of normal experiences like anxiety or depression. They include hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorder. Delusions are false beliefs that are not shared by others in a cultural group and can be characteristic of different psychiatric disorders. Persecutory delusions are the most common form in schizophrenia and delusional disorder. Schizophrenia is characterized by episodes of delusions, hallucinations, bizarre behavior, incoherent thought processes, and flat or inappropriate affect. Illusions, on the other hand, are misinterpretations of existing sensory stimuli and suggest delirium or intoxication. Perseveration is the persistent repetition of words, phrases, or simple motor behavior and can occur in delirium, dementia, or psychosis. Hallucinations are perceptions of stimuli that are not there and are less common than delusions in schizophrenia. Mood-congruent delusions are consistent with the reported or observed mood and may be markers of the severity of mood disturbance, while mood-incongruent delusions are less easily explained but are commonly associated with a worse prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to see the General Practitioner (GP) by her father, who is concerned about her behaviour at home and school. Over the past 18 months, her father has noted problems with inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivity. Teachers have also been raising similar issues about her behaviour in school. Her symptoms are affecting her performance in school and her relationship at home with her parents and siblings.
Which one of the following conditions is she most likely to be diagnosed with?Your Answer: Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting signs of ADHD, which is characterized by persistent patterns of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that interfere with functioning or development. These symptoms must have been present before the age of 12 and evident in multiple settings for at least six months. However, there are no indications of autism spectrum disorder, learning difficulty, or learning disability. Additionally, the patient does not display any symptoms of oppositional defiance disorder, which is characterized by angry or irritable mood, argumentative behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least six months and causing distress or impairment in social, educational, or occupational functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Tourette’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Tourette’s syndrome is a neurological disorder that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. It is characterized by the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics, which may not occur concurrently. The vocal tics can be throat-clearing, grunting, or other sounds that are not complete words or phrases. In some cases, there may also be associated gestural echopraxia, which can be of an obscene nature.
Schizophrenia, on the other hand, does not typically present with involuntary movements or tics. Conduct disorder is a mental disorder that is diagnosed before or after the age of 10 and is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Malingering is the fabrication of symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, while dissocial personality disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others.
Treatment options for Tourette’s syndrome include anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride, which have been shown to be effective. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Tourette’s syndrome to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old divorced man gives a history of moderately heavy drinking for 10 years. In the 2 years since his divorce, he has experienced disrupted sleep, fatigue, irritability and cynicism. He typically drinks excessively. For example, he consumes a case of beer in a weekend and now drinks before work.
Which is the most appropriate initial form of psychotherapy?Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
Correct Answer: Self-help group
Explanation:Different Forms of Therapy for Alcohol Dependence: Pros and Cons
Alcohol dependence is a serious issue that requires professional intervention. There are various forms of therapy available for individuals struggling with alcohol abuse. Here are some of the most common types of therapy and their pros and cons:
1. Self-help group: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) and similar self-help programs are free, widely available, and confidential. The diversity of membership, vast experience with alcohol among participants, and flexibility of meeting times provide therapeutic advantages. However, the lack of accountability and wide variation in quality among different groups can be a disadvantage.
2. Interpersonal psychotherapy and antidepressants: Interpersonal psychotherapy deals with specific circumstances thought to contribute to depression, including losses, social transitions, role disputes, and unsatisfactory interpersonal relations. Antidepressants are only considered after a month of abstinence. However, this form of therapy may not be suitable for everyone.
3. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT): CBT may be useful for addressing underlying reasons for alcohol abuse in the long run. However, first-line support for patients with addiction is self-help groups such as AA.
4. Structural family therapy: This form of treatment is developed for helping families in which a child shows psychiatric symptoms, behaviour problems, or unstable chronic illness. However, it may not be suitable for patients with isolated alcoholism or fractured families.
5. Psychoanalytic psychotherapy: This therapy posits that therapeutic change requires making early experiences conscious and their influence explicit. However, it may not be suitable for everyone and may require a longer time commitment.
In conclusion, there are various forms of therapy available for individuals struggling with alcohol dependence. It is important to consider the pros and cons of each type of therapy and choose the one that is most suitable for the individual’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP for a follow-up on her depression. She is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of low mood, anhedonia, poor appetite, and poor sleep, despite completing a full course of cognitive behavioural therapy. Her therapist has recommended medication, and the patient is open to this option. What is the appropriate first-line treatment for her depression?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressant Medications: Recommended Use and Precautions
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for moderate to severe depression or mild depression that has not responded to initial interventions. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are not recommended as first-line treatment due to their toxicity in overdose. Dosulepin, in particular, has been linked to cardiac conduction defects and other arrhythmias. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), like phenelzine, may be prescribed by a specialist in refractory cases but are not recommended as first-line treatment. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor, is also not recommended as first-line treatment due to the risk of hypertension, arrhythmias, and potential toxicity in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the most appropriate medication for individual cases of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A teenager has been referred because of bizarre behaviour at school. His teachers have reported that he alternates between very passive and very aggressive behaviours. At times, he cries and withdraws from sight when he thinks he is being slighted in some manner. At other times, he yells wildly and fights over the smallest of infractions. Upon further examination, you discover that the patient has been the victim of significant abuse at home.
Which one of the following defence mechanisms is he likely employing?Your Answer: Sublimation
Correct Answer: Dissociation
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defense Mechanisms: Dissociation, Sublimation, Identification, Reaction Formation, and Splitting
Ego defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations. These mechanisms can be either mature or immature, depending on their effectiveness and adaptability. Here are some examples of common ego defense mechanisms and how they manifest in individuals:
Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person temporarily modifies their personal identity to avoid distress. For instance, a victim of abuse may develop multiple personalities to cope with the trauma.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person takes an unacceptable personality trait and channels it into a respectable work that aligns with their values. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.
Identification: This is when a person models the behavior of a more powerful figure. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.
Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.
Splitting: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person is unable to reconcile both good and bad traits in a given person and sees people as either all good or all bad.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address maladaptive coping strategies and work towards healthier ways of dealing with stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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As a healthcare professional, you are asked to evaluate a patient in their early 30s who is experiencing chest pain and is awaiting assessment by the psychiatry team. Upon examination and investigations, no abnormalities are found. However, you observe that the patient is exhibiting unusual behavior, avoiding eye contact and being hesitant to answer questions. After building a rapport with the patient, they reveal that they have never been in a romantic relationship and prefer to be alone to avoid embarrassment. They have no friends and do not communicate with their family due to constant criticism. What type of personality disorder is the patient likely experiencing?
Your Answer: Avoidant
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder exhibit a strong fear of criticism, rejection, ridicule, and being disliked. This fear often leads to social isolation and avoidance of activities that may result in embarrassment or negative judgment from others. It is important to note that this disorder is distinct from other personality disorders such as antisocial, borderline, and histrionic, which have their own unique symptoms and characteristics.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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