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Question 1
Incorrect
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Regarding the structure of the detrusor muscle. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The detrusor is divided into 2 layers consisting of an inner longitudinal smooth muscle layer and outer circular smooth muscle layer
Correct Answer: The detrusor is divided into 3 layers consisting of inner and outer layers of longitudinal smooth muscle with a middle circular smooth muscle layer
Explanation:The urinary bladder is composed of the transitional epithelium, followed by the lamina propria made up of the fibroelastic connective tissue. The muscularis layer covers the lamina propria which is made up of three poorly defined layers of smooth muscles; the inner longitudinal, middle circular and the outer longitudinal layer. The bladder is covered on the superior surface and the lateral surface by the peritoneum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?
Your Answer: Ilioinguinal and pudendal
Explanation:The Pudendal provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior external genitalia via one of its terminal branches called the perineal nerve (this further branches into the posterior labial nerves or posterior scrotal nerve in men). The ilioinguinal nerve provides anterior sensation via the anterior labial nerves (anterior scrotal nerve in men). The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve contributes some fibres to the skin of the mons pubis and labia majora in females. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh sometimes overlaps sensory areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She wants to know the age of her baby. Which of the following methods is considered the most accurate for estimating gestational age?
Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 8 weeks
Explanation:Ultrasound has emerged as the more accurate method of assessing fetal gestational age, especially in the first trimester. Both transvaginal and transabdominal probe assessments are used to obtain a more accurate measurement of gestational age. Transvaginal is more helpful in first trimester pregnancies.
A transvaginal ultrasound exam should not be performed in a pregnant patient with vaginal bleeding and known placenta previa, a pregnant patient with premature rupture of membranes, and a patient who refuses exam despite informed discussion.
Sonographic assessment within the first 13 weeks and 6 days will provide the most accurate estimate of gestational age. Both transvaginal and transabdominal approaches may be used. However, the transvaginal approach may provide a more clear and accurate view of early embryonic structures. Although the gestational sac and yolk sac are the first measurable markers visible on ultrasound, these poorly correlate with gestational age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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Evidence from a panel of experts is what level of evidence
Your Answer: IV
Explanation:Level I: Evidence obtained from at least one properly designed randomized controlled trial. Level II-1: Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trials without randomization. Level II-2: Evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytic studies, preferably from more than one centre or research group. Level II-3: Evidence obtained from multiple time series designs with or without the intervention. Dramatic results in uncontrolled trials might also be regarded as this type of evidence. Level III: Opinions of respected authorities, based on clinical experience, descriptive studies, or reports of expert committees.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding the urinary bladder, what type of epithelium lines it?
Your Answer: Simple columnar
Correct Answer: Transitional
Explanation:The urinary bladder, and most of the urinary structures are lined by epithelium called the urothelium, or the transitional epithelium. This stratified lining is divided into three parts, an apical layer, an intermediate layer and a basal layer. The transitional epithelium is available to stretch to accommodate the increased volume when the bladder is distended, without structural damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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After eating a burger at a local restaurant, a 27-year-old lady comes to your office with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea. She's taking oral contraceptives. Even when she was quite unwell, she did not miss her pills. Which of the following would be the best piece of contraceptive and pill advise you could give her?
Your Answer: She should continue the pills and use condom for 7 days
Explanation:If diarrhoea occurs within 24 hours of taking oral birth control or continues for 24 to 48 hours after taking a pill, an additional dose is not needed.
If diarrhoea lasts more than 48 hours the patient should use backup birth control, such as condoms, or avoid sexual intercourse until pills have been taken for seven diarrhoea-free days.
Options to stop pills are incorrect as it increases risk of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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All of the following organs are involved in oestrogen production except:
Your Answer: Testes
Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary
Explanation:Oestrogen can be produced by variety of organs including the corpus leuteum, placenta, adrenal glands and testes. However it is not produced by the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary produces LH and FSH which in turn causes oestrogen secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland. What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?
Your Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland
Explanation:A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.
So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 6.0 MHz
Correct Answer: 3.0 MHz
Explanation:The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 11
Correct
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The joint between the two pubic bones is called the:
Your Answer: Pubis symphysis
Explanation:The pubic symphysis or symphysis pubis is the midline cartilaginous joint (secondary cartilaginous) uniting the superior rami of the left and right pubic bones. It is located anterior to the urinary bladder and superior to it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Your Answer: Starting HRT in a woman who clearly has advanced AD is of value in reducing the severity of the disease.
Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD.
Explanation:Although there have been some mixed results regarding the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and the prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease (AD), there is little question that HRT started during menopause lowers cognitive decline, which is a common early symptom of AD.
This is in contrast to the effect shown when HRT is started at the age of 60-65, when the risk of Alzheimer’s disease rises.
There are no statistics on the effect of HRT on the incidence of Alzheimer’s disease when it is started before menopause, but it is apparent that it does not slow the progression of the disease or make advanced dementia less severe. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are the most common cause in post-partum haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Uterine atony
Explanation:Uterine atony is the most common cause for postpartum haemorrhage and the conditions like multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnions, macrosomia, prolonged labour and multiparity are the most common risk factor for uterine atony.
Whereas less common causes for postpartum haemorrhage are laceration of genital tract, uterine rupture, uterine inversion and coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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An 20-year-old woman presents to you 6 hours after she was raped on day-12 of her menses which usually lasts for 28 days. You have decided to give her Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 0.75 mg) as a post-intercourse contraceptive. She is requesting information about any potential adverse effects as well as its efficacy. Which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: The treatment fails to prevent pregnancy in 2-3% of women treated.
Explanation:Postinor-2 (levonorgestrel 750pg) is only an emergency contraceptive and is not designed to be a regular form of contraception. If taken within 24 hours, it is estimated to be able to prevent up 97-98% of pregnancies and 58% if given between 48-72 hours post-unprotected intercourse. It can cause vaginal bleeding within a few days of its administration if it is given before day 8-10 of her menstrual cycle. However, if given mid-cycle, it typically doesn’t affect the timing of her next period unless conception occurs. Nausea and vomiting were common when high doses of OCP were used as a post-intercourse contraceptive. Nausea and vomiting still can occur with Postinor-2, but not up to 50% of women. There is currently no evidence to suggest that the levonorgestrel dose would cause a virilising effect on female foetuses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding the vaginal artery is typically TRUE?
Your Answer: It arises from the Ovarian artery
Correct Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The vaginal artery is the homolog to the inferior vesical artery in males. In most of the cases it arises from the internal iliac artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?
Your Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days (so none of the above). Breastfeeding may intensify pain due to stimulation of Oxytocin which causes uterine contractions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 17
Correct
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A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?
Your Answer: Secondary
Explanation:Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.
Stages of Syphilis:
– Primary 3-90 days
Chancre and lymphadenopathy
– Secondary 4-10 weeks
Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
– Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
– Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
Asymptomatic
– Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
Gummas or
Neurosyphilis or
Cardiovascular syphilis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?
Your Answer: CA 125
Correct Answer:
Explanation:CA-125 has found application as a tumour marker or biomarker that may be elevated in the blood of some patients with specific types of cancers, or other conditions that are benign. Increased level of CA125 appears in fifty percent of stage 1 ovarian cancer patients and more than 90% with stages 2-4 ovarian cancer. CA-125 is therefore a useful tool for detecting ovarian cancer after the onset of symptoms as well as monitoring response to treatment and for predicting a patient’s prognosis after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Immediate Caesarean section
Correct Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen
Explanation:This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.
This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
→ Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
→ Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She complains of migraine two to three times a month for the last 6 months. What should be best appropriate advice to her?
Your Answer: Stop combined oral contraceptive pills and prescribe progestogen only pills
Explanation:While on combination oral contraceptive tablets, this patient had a migraine. After a conversation about adverse effects, stop the combo medications and prescribe her progestogen-only pills.
The following are reasons why progestogen-only pills should be your first choice:
1-Age of 45 or more years
2-Smokers who are 45 years old or older
3-Oestrogen contraindications
4-Melitus Diabetes
5-A headache (combined oral contraceptive pills have absolute contraindication)
6-Hypertension under control
7-Lactation
8-Chloasma.Pregnancy, undetected genital tract bleeding, and concurrent use of enzyme-inducing medications are all contraindications to using progestogen-only pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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Normal physiological gut herniation occurs at how many weeks gestation?
Your Answer: 8 weeks
Explanation:At about 8-12 weeks gestation, normal physiological herniation of the fetal bowel occurs. The midgut protrudes into the base of the umbilicus, and undergoes a 90-degree anticlockwise rotation. When the abdominal cavity enlarges enough to fit the developing midgut, the intestines undergo another 180-degree rotation before returning to the abdominal cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of the pelvis?
Your Answer: Bi-ischial diameter
Correct Answer: Shape of the pubic arch
Explanation:During pelvimetry, the shape of the pubic arch is usually examined. It helps in determining the outcome of the type of fetal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history of deep vein thrombosis. She was on progesterone-only tablets (POP) until fivemonths ago, when she decided to get pregnant. However, the pregnancy turned out to be ectopic. Thankfully, she made it through. She doesn't want to get pregnant again and asks if she may resume taking the tablets. Which of the following is the best piece of advise you could give?
Your Answer: She should use combined oral contraceptive pills
Correct Answer: She cannot take progesterone only pills
Explanation:Oestrogen-containing contraceptives are not recommended for this woman since she has a history of DVT. This is most likely why she was started on POP instead of standard combination tablets prior. Progesterone is also contraindicated with a history of ectopic pregnancy and should never be used again. Barrier approaches, for example, could be applied in this woman’s case.
The following are absolute contraindications to taking just progesterone pills:
– Pregnancy
– Breast cancer
– Vaginal bleeding that hasn’t been diagnosed
– Ectopic pregnancy history or a high risk of ectopic pregnancyProgesterone-only pills have the following relative contraindications:
– Active viral hepatitis
– Severe chronic liver disease
– Malabsorption syndrome
– Severe arterial disease
– Successfully treated breast cancer more than 5 years ago
– Concomitant use of hepatic enzyme inducing medications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You have been asked to perform a pudendal nerve block on a patient by your consultant. The pudendal nerve is formed from which spinal segments?
Your Answer: S3,S4 and S5
Correct Answer: S2,S3 and S4
Explanation:The pudendal nerve has its origins form S2, S3 and S4 spinal segments. It provides sensation to the clitoris and labia along with the ilioinguinal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Correct
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Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation?
Your Answer: Ampullary tubal
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancies can quickly become a gynaecological emergency if left untreated. The majority of ectopic pregnancies (95-97%) are tubal occurring in the fallopian tube as opposed to the abdomen, ovary or cervix. In tubal ectopics, the most common site of occurrence is in the ampulla (70%), followed by the isthmus, fimbria, and the cornua.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the prevalence of antiphospholipid syndrome in patients with recurrent miscarriage?
Your Answer: 7.50%
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Anti phospholipid syndrome is an autoimmune disorder in which abnormal antibodies are formed which increases the risk of blood clots to develop in vessels and leads to recurrent miscarriages to occurs. The changes of recurrent miscarriage in a previously known case of APL is 15%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Incorrect
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From which germ layer does the myenteric plexus of the GI tract developed:
Your Answer: Endoderm
Correct Answer: Neural crest of Ectoderm
Explanation:During the 5th week, the neural crest cells migrate along each side of the spinal cord where they form ganglions located dorsolateral to the aorta. Some of these cells migrate ventrally and form neurons in the preaortic ganglia as the celiac and mesenteric ganglia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 28
Correct
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A44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago revealingInvasive squamous cell carcinoma. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist at tertiary hospital
Explanation:If a cervical screening test reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, refer the patient to a gynaecologist at a tertiary hospital right once for further treatment.
Colposcopy at a GP practice is not appropriate in these situations. When it comes to the prospect of cancer, reassurance isn’t enough. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher. More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.All of the other choices are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old gravida 6, para 5 woman at 36 weeks of gestation arrives in the ED via ambulance and precipitously delivers a male child. The child coughs and has a strong cry. He is very active. Acrocyanosis is noted. Heart rate is 98 bpm and breathing is strong. What is this child’s Apgar score?
Your Answer: 8
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The Apgar test scores appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration and is generally done at 1 and 5 minutes after birth but may be repeated if the child continues to score low (Table). This child’s score is as follows: Appearance, 1; Pulse, 1; Grimace, 2; Activity, 2; Respiration, 2 (APGAR score = 8). A score of 3 or less is generally regarded as critically low, 4 to 6 is fairly low, and 7 to 10 is generally normal. Contrary to common belief, the Apgar score is not used to decide if a neonate requires resuscitation. Decisions about resuscitation are based on emergency assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation.5,6
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and excessive vaginal bleeding at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following investigations should be done?
Your Answer: US abdomen
Explanation:Ultrasound of abdomen should be done to rule out the cause of the excessive bleeding in this patient, this could confirm the very high suspicion of rupture of the placenta in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately
Your Answer: 300ml/min
Correct Answer: 750ml/min
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.
E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Question 35
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding the Vaginal artery is typically TRUE?
Your Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The Vaginal artery, like the Uterine artery is typically a branch of the Internal Iliac artery. It can sometimes arise as a branch of the Uterine artery so it is important to read the question (if the stem stated it CAN arise from the Uterine artery then that would be true)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 36
Correct
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The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?
Your Answer: Ilium
Explanation:The arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium just inferior to the iliac fossa. It forms the boundary of the pelvic inlet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit. She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain). She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country. On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min. Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation. What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?
Your Answer: Umbilical artery waveforms (Doppler).
Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination.
Explanation:In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.
The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.
If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.
Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.
If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.
If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 38
Correct
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Which of the following studies is most appropriate to assess the efficacy of a new medication to reduce pain caused by endometriosis?
Your Answer: Randomised Control Trial
Explanation:Randomized control trials are the gold standard when it comes to assessing the treatment options or interventions in medicine. Since its introduction, RCT has questioned the validity of treatments such as oral hypoglycaemic agents, myocardial infarction hospitalization, varicose veins, toxicity and applicability of many preventive and therapeutic procedures. The basic steps include drawing up the protocol, selecting a study population, randomization, intervention, follow up and assessment of the outcome. Note if assessing prognosis or diagnostic tests Cohort and Cross Sectional Analysis are best.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 39
Correct
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Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?
Your Answer: 6-12 weeks
Explanation:Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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During normal pregnancy, the renal glomerular filtrate rate (GFR) can increase as much as:
Your Answer: 100%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is admitted in the hospital for severe abdominal pain. She notes that also has been having vaginal bleeding of about one litre and uterine contractions are present. Her previous pregnancy was a vaginal, without any complications. Her current blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min. On physical examination, the uterus is palpable at the level of the xiphisternum and is firm. It is acutely tender to palpation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard on auscultation or with Doppler assessment. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and fully effaced. Immediate resuscitative measures are taken. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
Your Answer: A Caesarean section.
Correct Answer: Amniotomy
Explanation:This patient is presenting with a severe placental abruption causing fetal death and shock in the mother. The most appropriate initial management for the patient is to treat her shock with blood transfusions and exclude or treat any coagulation disorder resulting from the abruption. Delivery also needs to be expedited to remove the dead foetus. An amniotomy is usually all that is required to induce spontaneous labour as the uterus is usually very irritable. Spontaneous labour is likely to occur in this case, where the cervix is already 4 cm dilated and fully effaced.
Caesarean section is rarely needed to be done when the foetus is already dead.
Vaginal prostaglandin and an oxytocin (Syntocin®) infusion are not needed and unlikely to be required.
Ultrasound examination to confirm the diagnosis and fetal death is also unnecessary given the clinical and Doppler findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 75 percent
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 43
Correct
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You see a patient on the ward who is acutely short of breath and perform an ABG. The results are as follows
Your Answer: Respiratory Acidosis
Explanation:This patient has acidosis as the pH is low <7.35 The pO2 is irrelevant. The pCO2 is raised i.e. the respiratory system is causing acidosis. The patient is acidotic so this is a respiratory acidosis The Base Excess is normal. You would typically expect the base excess to rise but metabolic compensation is slower than respiratory compensation so this picture may be seen acutely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 44
Correct
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With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of urine. It started to happen with exercising recently. She denies having experienced recent life pressures. Which of the following best characterizes the incontinence she's dealing with?
Your Answer: Stress incontinence
Explanation:Overflow incontinence typically presents with continuous urinary leakage or dribbling in the setting of incomplete bladder emptying. Associated symptoms can include weak or intermittent urinary stream, hesitancy, frequency, and nocturia. When the bladder is very full, stress leakage can occur or low-amplitude bladder contractions can be triggered resulting in symptoms similar to stress or urgency incontinence.
Women with urgency incontinence experience the urge to void immediately preceding or accompanied by involuntary leakage of urine
Individuals with stress incontinence have involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increases in intraabdominal pressure (e.g., with exertion, sneezing, coughing, laughing) in the absence of a bladder contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed. She is a known to the case of multiple uterine fibroids. Her past surgical history is significant for tubal ligation and dilation and curettage without any definite diagnosis or any improvement in her symptoms. Examination reveals an enlarged uterus of about 12-week gravid size. A complete blood picture shows anaemia (Hb 80g/L). What should be the next step in the management of such a patient?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pills
Correct Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy
Explanation:Fibroids (uterine leiomyomas) are benign uterine tumours. Asymptomatic uterine leiomyomas merely require follow-up without any specific intervention because histological confirmation of the clinical diagnosis is not required in most cases.
Symptoms and consequences necessitate treatment. The definitive therapy is hysterectomy. Other options include various types of myomectomy, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis.
The following situations call for a hysterectomy:Women suffering from an acute haemorrhage who have failed to react to various treatments
Women who are finished having children who are at risk for other disorders (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, endometriosis, adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia, or greater risk of uterine or ovarian cancer) that a hysterectomy might eliminate or reduce.Women who have had previous attempts at minimally invasive therapy for leiomyomas failed.
Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a desire for a permanent cure.If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the procedure of choice.
A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to keep their capacity to bear children.Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have further children, has had her tubes tied, and is experiencing painful symptoms and anaemia.
Hysterectomy is superior to endometrial ablation.Amenorrhea is achieved after endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas remain untreated.
Women who have previously failed minimally invasive treatment for leiomyomas
Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a strong desire for a cure.
If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the preferred technique.
A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to maintain their capacity to bear children.
Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have any more children and has had her tubal ligation removed. She also has troublesome symptoms and anaemia.
Hysterectomy is better than endometrial ablation.Amenorrhea can be accomplished with endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas are not.
Myomectomy is not recommended unless you want to increase your fertility. There is a chance of recurrence, which would demand additional procedures. It will also be difficult to remove all of the leiomyomas if the uterus is enlarged with several leiomyomas. Remaining leiomyomas might grow and cause symptoms again over time.
Hormonal therapies such as combination contraceptive tablets, progesterone-only approaches, danazol, and others have been used with anecdotal results on symptoms like menorrhagia. Some have dubious efficacy, while others with confirmed efficacy have unfavourable side effects, restricting their use.
In leiomyomas-related menorrhagia, NSAIDs have not been widely researched. Although NSAIDs do not appear to diminish blood loss in women with leiomyomas, they do lower painful menses and may be effective for this. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?
Your Answer: Does not necessitate giving Anti-D for Rh-negative mother
Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort
Explanation:Threatened abortion:
– Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
– Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
– 50% survival
More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 47
Correct
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A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?
Your Answer: 40%
Explanation:The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Renal failure
Correct Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?
Your Answer: 2nd Meiotic Division
Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions
Explanation:Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 50
Correct
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Among the below given options, which is NOT associated with an increased risk for preeclampsia?
Your Answer: Age between 18 and 40 years
Explanation:Any new onset of hypertension associated with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman is referred to as Preeclampsia.
Most commonly found risk factors for pre-eclampsia are:
– Preeclampsia in a previous pregnancy
– Family history of preeclampsia
– a prior pregnancy with poor outcome like placental abruption, IUGR, fetal death in utero, etc
– An interdelivery interval greater than 10 years
– Nulliparity, increases risk by 8 times
– Pre-existing chronic medical conditions or chronic hypertension
– pre-existing or gestational Diabetes
– chronic Renal disease
– Thrombophilias g. protein C and S deficiency, antithrombin Ill deficiency, or Factor V Leiden mutation
– Antiphospholipid syndrome
– Systemic lupus erythematous
– Maternal age greater than or equal to 40 years
– Body Mass Index (BMI) greater than 30 kg/m2
– Multiple pregnancy
– Raised blood pressure at booking
– Gestational trophoblastic disease
– Fetal triploidyMaternal age between 18 and 40 years is found to be associated with a decreased risk for developing preeclampsia, and not an increased risk.
NOTE– Previously, age 16 years or younger was thought to be a risk factor for developing preeclampsia; however, recent studies conducted had failed to establish any meaningful relationship between the two. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A woman comes to your office two weeks after undergoing a total vaginal hysterectomy with anterior colporrhaphy and the Burch surgery for uterine prolapse and stress urine incontinence. Throughout the day, she complains of a continual loss of urine. She denies having any dysuria or urgency. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
Your Answer: Failure of the procedure
Correct Answer: Vesicovaginal fistula
Explanation:Vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) is a subtype of female urogenital fistula (UGF). VVF is an abnormal fistulous tract extending between the bladder and the vagina that allows the continuous involuntary discharge of urine into the vaginal vault. The uncontrolled leakage of urine into the vagina is the hallmark symptom of patients with UGFs. Patients may complain of urinary incontinence or an increase in vaginal discharge following pelvic surgery or pelvic radiotherapy with or without antecedent surgery. The drainage may be continuous; however, in the presence of a very small UGF, it may be intermittent. Increased postoperative abdominal, pelvic, or flank pain; prolonged ileus; and fever should alert the physician to possible urinoma or urine ascites and mandates expeditious evaluation. Recurrent cystitis or pyelonephritis, abnormal urinary stream, and haematuria also should initiate a workup for UGF.
Urinary trace infection presents with dysuria and urgency.
Detrusor instability causes urge incontinence.
Neurogenic bladder from diabetic neuropathy would also have urgency. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are FALSE?
Your Answer: It is the primary vessel responsible for arterial blood supply to the uterus
Correct Answer: It crosses the Ureter posteriorly
Explanation:The Uterine artery typically arises from the anterior branch of the internal iliac artery. It crosses the ureter ANTERIORLY. It is the primary source of arterial supply to the uterus and its branches anastomose with branches of the ovarian and vaginal arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 53
Incorrect
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What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the WHO criteria?
Your Answer: 1.5 million spermatozoa per ml
Correct Answer: 15 million spermatozoa per ml
Explanation:WHO guidelines
Semen volume: Greater than or equal to 1.5 ml
pH: Greater than or equal to 7.2
Sperm concentration: Greater than or equal to 15 million spermatozoa per ml
Total sperm number: 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more
Total motility (% of progressive motility and nonprogressive motility): 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility
Vitality: 58% or more live spermatozoa
Sperm morphology (percentage of normal forms): 4% or more -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 54
Correct
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The yolk sac reaches its maximum diameter at what week of gestation?
Your Answer: 10 weeks
Explanation:The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 55
Correct
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Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE?
Your Answer: It arises from the internal iliac artery
Explanation:The uterine artery arises from the internal iliac artery, in particular the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. Some older texts refer to the internal iliac as the hypogastric artery. The vaginal artery typically arises as its own branch of the internal iliac artery. The ovarian arteries are branches of the aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Regarding the biophysical profile:
Your Answer: Includes tone, movement & breathing
Correct Answer: Includes fetal movement, fetal tone, fetal breathing, fetal heart rate & amniotic fluid
Explanation:The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a non-stress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 57
Incorrect
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During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?
Your Answer: Mentum
Correct Answer: Occiput
Explanation:A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 58
Correct
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Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?
Your Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Passes through the Foramen Rotundum
Correct Answer: It is surrounded by the sella turcica
Explanation:The Sella turcica is composed of three parts:
1. The tuberculum sellae (horn of saddle): a variable slight to prominent median elevation forming the posterior
boundary of the prechiasmatic sulcus and the anterior boundary of the hypophysial fossa.
2. The hypophysial fossa (pituitary fossa): a median depression (seat of saddle) in the body of the sphenoid that accommodates the pituitary gland (L. hypophysis).
3. The dorsum sellae (back of saddle): a square plate of bone projecting superiorly from the body of the sphenoid.
It forms the posterior boundary of the Sella turcica, and its prominent superolateral angles make up the posterior clinoid processes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 26 year old primigravida woman attends A&E due to worsening vomiting. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant. For the past 4 weeks she has had morning sickness but for the last 4 days she has been unable to tolerate any oral fluids without vomiting and thinks she has lost weight. On questioning she has no significant past medical history prior to this pregnancy. She is currently taking the following medication:
Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:This patient has severe nausea and vomiting with ketosis and evidence of dehydration (low BP and tachycardia) in the early part of pregnancy. There is no history of diabetes and the blood glucose doesn’t indicate hyperglycaemia. This is consistent with hyperemesis gravidarum (HG)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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