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Question 1
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that has been going on for 6 months. He has a BMI of 30 kg/m², a history of hypertension, and has been smoking for 35 years. He reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy.
What is the primary initial test that should be done for this patient's erectile dysfunction?Your Answer: Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c)
Explanation:Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: What to Test For
When a man presents with erectile dysfunction, it is important to test for reversible or modifiable risk factors. One common risk factor is diabetes, so all men should have a HbA1c or fasting blood glucose test. A lipid profile should also be done to calculate cardiovascular risk. Erectile dysfunction can be an early sign of cardiovascular disease, especially in patients with pre-existing risk factors such as hypertension, increased BMI, and smoking history. Additionally, a blood test for morning testosterone should be done.
However, a C-reactive protein test is not useful as a first-line test for erectile dysfunction. An ultrasound abdomen and urea and electrolyte tests are also not helpful in establishing an underlying cause. While an enlarged prostate may be associated with erectile dysfunction, a urine dip is not necessary if the patient has no symptoms of a urinary-tract infection. Overall, testing for diabetes and cardiovascular risk factors is crucial in the initial investigation of erectile dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to his general practitioner after discovering a mass in his scrotum. He reported feeling a heavy, dragging sensation in his scrotum for approximately 2 weeks before noticing the mass during self-examination. Upon examination, the patient had a palpable, non-tender mass on the right side of the scrotum, seemingly associated with the right testicle. Ultrasound of the scrotum revealed dilation of the right pampiniform plexus.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's condition?Your Answer: Increased right renal vein pressure
Correct Answer: Dilation of the superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The dilation of the superior mesenteric artery is unlikely to be related to the patient’s symptoms. A more likely cause is a varicocele, which is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus. This condition often occurs on the left side due to increased pressure in the left testicular vein caused by a 90-degree angle where it drains into the left renal vein. The left renal vein can also be compressed by the superior mesenteric artery, further increasing pressure and leading to a varicocele. Symptoms of a varicocele include a non-tender heaviness or dragging sensation in the scrotum. Other conditions, such as venous insufficiency of the inferior vena cava, increased right renal vein pressure, increased left renal artery pressure, or benign prostatic hyperplasia, are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old postal worker presents with a two-day history of increasing right-sided flank pain that extends to the groin. The patient also reports experiencing frank haematuria. The patient has had a similar episode before and was previously diagnosed with a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan confirms the presence of a renal calculi on the right side. What is the most probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Renal Stones
Renal stones are a common medical condition that can cause significant discomfort and pain. Understanding the risk factors associated with renal stones can help in their prevention and management. Hyperparathyroidism is a known cause of renal stones, and patients presenting with urinary stones should have their calcium, phosphate, and urate levels measured to exclude common medical risk factors. A low sodium diet is recommended as high sodium intake can lead to hypercalcemia and stone formation. Bisoprolol use may cause renal impairment but is less likely to be associated with recurrent renal calculi. Contrary to popular belief, vitamin D excess rather than deficiency is associated with the formation of kidney stones. Finally, gout, rather than osteoarthritis, is a risk factor for renal stones due to the excess uric acid that can be deposited in the kidneys. By understanding these risk factors, patients and healthcare providers can work together to prevent and manage renal stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer: Microscopic haematuria
Explanation:Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic
Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:
– Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
– Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
– A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
– A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
Urine dip shows:
frank haematuria
blood 2+
protein 2+.
He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?Your Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones
Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:
1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.
2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.
3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.
It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is referred to the Outpatient Clinic with raised prostate-specific antigen (PSA), but a normal prostate on physical examination. He is later diagnosed with prostate cancer on biopsy.
What is the most common area of the prostate where this disease develops?Your Answer: The transition zone
Correct Answer: The peripheral zone
Explanation:Anatomy of the Prostate Gland and its Relation to Prostate Cancer
The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located in the male reproductive system. It is divided into several zones, each with its own unique characteristics and potential for developing prostate cancer.
The peripheral zone is the most common site for developing prostate carcinomas. It extends around the gland from the apex to the base and is located posterolaterally.
The central zone surrounds the ejaculatory duct apparatus and makes up the majority of the prostatic base.
The transition zone constitutes two small lobules that abut the prostatic urethra and is where benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tends to originate. Carcinomas that originate in the transition zone have been suggested to be of lower malignant potential compared to those in the peripheral zone.
The anterior fibromuscular stroma is the most anterior portion of the gland and is formed by muscle cells intermingled with dense connective tissue. The chance of malignancy occurring in this area is low, but asymmetrical hypertrophy of the anterior fibromuscular stroma can mimic the presence of prostate cancer.
The posterior capsule is made of connective tissue and is usually not the primary origin of prostate cancer. The cancer usually arises in the peripheral zone and may then extend through the capsule as it progresses.
Understanding the anatomy of the prostate gland and its relation to prostate cancer can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular prostate exams and screenings are important for maintaining prostate health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of difficulty maintaining an erection, which has been ongoing for some time and is causing problems in his relationship. He is generally healthy, except for high blood pressure that is managed with amlodipine. He reports still experiencing morning erections and has not noticed any changes in his sex drive. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 145/78 mmHg, and his BMI is 30 kg/m2. His abdominal, genital, and prostate exams are all normal. What is the most crucial test to rule out any organic causes for his difficulty maintaining an erection?
Your Answer: HbA1c
Explanation:Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: Assessing Cardiovascular Risk Factors
Erectile dysfunction can have both psychological and organic causes. In this case, the patient still experiences morning erections, suggesting a functional overlay. However, it is important to screen for cardiovascular risk factors, as they are the most common cause of erectile dysfunction. This includes assessing HbA1c or fasting blood glucose and lipid profile, especially since the patient has a high BMI and is at increased risk of diabetes and high cholesterol. Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring may also be necessary, given the patient’s history of hypertension. While repeat blood pressure checks are important, they would not rule out other organic causes for the patient’s symptoms. It is crucial to investigate for both organic and psychological causes of erectile dysfunction, even if the cause is believed to be functional. Prostate-specific antigen testing is not necessary in this case, as the genital and prostate examination were normal. Testosterone levels may also be assessed, but since the patient reports good libido and morning erections, low testosterone is unlikely to be the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of urinary leakage. He reports that over the past 2 years, he has been experiencing difficulty reaching the toilet on time. He now leaks urine before he can make it to the bathroom, particularly when at rest.
During the examination, the doctor finds that the man's abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there is no palpable bladder. A urine dipstick test shows no nitrites or leukocytes.
The man expresses no interest in surgical intervention. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Oxybutynin
Correct Answer: Bladder retraining
Explanation:Bladder retraining is the appropriate solution for this woman’s overactive bladder, which is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate followed by uncontrollable leakage. Stress urinary incontinence can be ruled out as the cause since the leakage occurs at rest and not during coughing or sneezing. Bladder retraining involves gradually increasing the time between voids and should be attempted for six weeks before considering medication. Duloxetine, which increases the contraction of the urethral striated muscles, is not suitable for urge urinary incontinence. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist, may be used as an alternative to antimuscarinics in frail elderly patients, but bladder retraining should be attempted first. Oxybutynin, an anti-muscarinic, is not recommended for frail elderly women due to the risk of cholinergic burden and resulting confusion and delirium.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals tissue that resembles glomeruli. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Yolk cell tumour
Explanation:Types of Testicular Tumours and Their Characteristics
Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. The following are some of the common types of testicular tumours and their distinguishing features:
1. Yolk Sac Tumour: This is the most common type of testicular tumour in children under the age of 4. It is a mucinous tumour that contains Schiller-Duval bodies, which resemble primitive glomeruli. Alpha fetoprotein is secreted by these tumours.
2. Embryonal Carcinoma: This type of tumour typically occurs in the third decade of life. On microscopy, glands or papules are seen.
3. Leydig Cell Tumour: This is a benign tumour that can cause precocious puberty or gynaecomastia. Reinke crystals are noted on histology.
4. Seminoma: Seminoma is the most common testicular tumour, usually occurring between the ages of 15 and 35. Its features include large cells with a fluid-filled cytoplasm that stain CD117 positive.
5. Choriocarcinoma: This tumour secretes β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Due to the similarity between thyroid-stimulating hormone and β-HCG, symptoms of hyperthyroidism may develop. Histology of these tumours shows cells that resemble cytotrophoblasts or syncytiotrophoblastic tissue.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their characteristics can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic for the second time this year with fever, dysuria, dribbling of urine. Previous admissions were for urinary tract infections. He has a history of hypertension and previous myocardial infarction for which he takes ramipril and rosuvastatin. On examination, he is pyrexial (38.5 °C) and has a pulse of 105/min and his blood pressure (BP) is 142/84 mm Hg. His cardiovascular and respiratory examination is normal. There is suprapubic tenderness with dullness, on percussion, indicating a distended bladder. Per rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged prostate.
What is the best next investigation to determine the cause of this patient’s urinary retention?Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)
Correct Answer: Ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests can be used. One of the most common tests is an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume, which can estimate the degree of bladder obstruction.
However, other tests such as CT abdomen and MRI abdomen are not useful for diagnosing benign prostatic hyperplasia. CT abdomen is more useful for diagnosing malignancies of the pelvic-ureteric system, while MRI abdomen is more sensitive for diagnosing lymph-node metastasis in prostate cancer.
Micturating cystourethrogram is also not useful for diagnosing prostatic hypertrophy, as it is used to diagnose fistula, vesicoureteric reflux, and urethral stricture. Similarly, serum alpha-fetoprotein has no role in cancer of the prostate, as it is a tumour marker in hepatocellular carcinoma, non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours, and yolk-sac tumours.
In conclusion, an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume is the most useful diagnostic test for benign prostatic hyperplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden and severe pain in his groin while playing basketball. He has no significant medical history and denies any trauma to the area. During the exam, he experiences persistent pain in his right testicle when it is raised. An ultrasound with Doppler reveals reduced blood flow in the right testicle. Which artery is most likely occluded in this patient?
Your Answer: Internal iliac artery
Correct Answer: Directly from the aorta
Explanation:Understanding the Arteries Involved in Testicular Torsion
Testicular torsion is a condition that causes extreme pain in the groin due to the rotation of the testicle within the scrotum, which occludes flow through the testicular artery. This condition is common in male teenagers during exercise and requires immediate medical attention. In this article, we will discuss the arteries involved in testicular torsion and their functions.
The testicular artery (both left and right) arises from the aorta at the level of L2. Torsion can be diagnosed through colour Doppler ultrasound of the testicle, which shows decreased blood flow. Surgery is required within 6 hours of onset of symptoms to re-establish blood flow and prevent recurrent torsion (orchidopexy). If >6 hours elapse, there is an increased risk for permanent ischaemic damage.
The right and left renal arteries provide branches to the adrenal gland, not the testicles. Both the left and right renal arteries arise from the aorta at the level of L1/2. The internal iliac artery gives off branches to the perineum, but not the testicles. The internal iliac artery branches from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1. The external iliac artery gives off the inferior epigastric artery and becomes the femoral artery when it crosses deep to the inguinal ligament. The external iliac artery bifurcates from the common iliac artery at the level of L5/S1.
In conclusion, understanding the arteries involved in testicular torsion is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment. The testicular artery arising from the aorta at the level of L2 is the primary artery involved in this condition, and surgery within 6 hours of onset of symptoms is necessary to prevent permanent damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 22-year-old man discovered a painless enlargement of his left testicle during his shower. He is sexually active, but he reports no recent sexual encounters. What would be the most suitable serological test to assist in diagnosing his condition?
Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP)
Explanation:Tumor Markers: Common Biomarkers for Cancer Diagnosis
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. These biomarkers can be used to aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and their associated cancers:
– Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP): Elevated levels of aFP may indicate non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis, but biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis.
– Calcitonin: Produced by medullary carcinomas of the thyroid, calcitonin opposes the action of parathyroid hormone.
– Parathyroid-related peptide (PTHrP): Produced in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung, PTHrP can cause a paraneoplastic syndrome.
– Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Elevated in cancers of the stomach, lung, pancreas, and colon, and sometimes in yolk sac tumors.
– CA-125: Elevated in ovarian cancer, but can also be elevated in benign conditions such as endometriosis, uterine fibroids, and ovarian cysts.While tumor markers can provide clues to the diagnosis of cancer, biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis. It is important to note that elevated levels of these biomarkers do not always indicate cancer and can be caused by other conditions. Consultation with a healthcare provider is necessary for proper interpretation of tumor marker results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is recovering from hip surgery on the ward. He has had an indwelling catheter for several days. In the last 24 hours, he has been noted to have some ‘dizzy spells’ by nurses where he becomes confused and agitated. He has been seen talking to himself, mumbling incoherent ideas, and at other times he seems distracted and disorientated, forgetting where he is. He has a new fever and is tachycardic. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. You suspect he is suffering from delirium.
Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer: A frozen and/or mask like facial expression
Correct Answer: Leukocytes and nitrites on mid-stream urine sample dipstick
Explanation:Understanding Delirium: Causes and Symptoms
Delirium is a state of confusion that can be caused by various factors, including acute illnesses, infections, drug adverse reactions, and toxicity. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms of fever and an indwelling catheter increase the likelihood of a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of delirium. Other causes of delirium include drug-related issues, alcohol withdrawal, metabolic imbalances, and head injury or trauma.
Symptoms of delirium include leukocytes and nitrites on a mid-stream urine sample dipstick, which suggest a UTI. However, a frozen or ‘mask-like’ face is commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease, not delirium. Structural changes in the brain are usually associated with dementia, while a progressive decline in cognitive function may indicate a space-occupying lesion or bleed (extradural haematoma).
It is important to note that cognitive changes caused by delirium are often reversible by finding and treating the underlying cause. In contrast, irreversible cognitive changes are commonly seen in dementia. Understanding the causes and symptoms of delirium can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and treatment for patients experiencing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology report reveals the presence of cartilage and columnar epithelial cells. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Seminoma
Correct Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:Types of Testicular Tumours: Teratoma, Seminoma, Hamartoma, Epididymal Cyst, and Choriocarcinoma
Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their histological features and clinical presentation. Here are five types of testicular tumours:
Teratoma: This type of germ cell tumour can be pure or part of a mixed germ cell tumour. It is commonly seen in very young patients and presents with a painless testicular mass. Teratomas are composed of tissues arising from all three germ cell layers and can contain any type of tissue. Radical orchidectomy is the mode of treatment.
Seminoma: Seminoma is a type of germ cell tumour that presents with a painless testicular lump. It is treated with orchidectomy and has a uniform yellow cut surface. Histologically, it is composed of a uniform population of large cells arranged in nests.
Hamartoma: A hamartoma is a benign tumour-like proliferation composed of a mixture of cells normal for the tissue from which it arises. Within the normal testicular tissue, there is no cartilage.
Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is a fluid-filled sac arising usually superoposterior to the testis. It transilluminates on examination and is lined by a single layer of cuboidal to columnar epithelium, with or without Ciliary.
Choriocarcinoma: Choriocarcinomas are malignant germ cell tumours composed of syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, and intermediate trophoblast cells. They are rare and associated with raised serum beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin levels. These tumours are usually haemorrhagic masses and often have metastasis at presentation.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their clinical presentation is crucial for their early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a gradual reduction in urine flow. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is found to be 14.3 ng/ml (normal PSA level: 2.5-4.0 ng/mL).
What is the most important investigation required?Your Answer: Flexible cystoscopy
Correct Answer: Multi-parametic MRI
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Prostate Cancer
Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that are commonly used to detect prostate cancer:
1. Multi-parametric MRI: This scan is recommended for individuals with a risk of prostate cancer. It can help to locate the site of biopsy and avoid unnecessary procedures.
2. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen: This scan can give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
3. Radioisotope bone scan: This scan can reveal the presence of bony metastases that are common in prostate cancer, but it cannot give a definite diagnosis.
4. Flexible cystoscopy: This examination can detect any abnormalities of the prostate or bladder and urethra, but a biopsy is still required for a definite diagnosis.
5. Ultrasound scan of the renal tract: This scan can also give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
In conclusion, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose prostate cancer, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the Emergency Department with severe scrotal pain that has been ongoing for the past 3 hours. During the examination, he is visibly distressed and his scrotum appears red and tender. He cries out in agony when you try to touch or lift his left testicle. The right testicle appears normal. What test should you perform next?
Your Answer: Ultrasound
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Testicular Torsion: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. It is characterized by excruciating pain and tenderness in one testicle, which worsens when the testicle is raised. This condition typically affects young teenagers and is caused by an anatomical variant that allows the spermatic cord to wind around itself and cut off blood flow to the testicle. If left untreated for more than 4-6 hours, testicular necrosis can occur.
While orchitis and epididymitis can also cause testicular pain, they are much milder and can be differentiated from testicular torsion by the response to raising the testicle. MRI and X-ray are not helpful in diagnosing this condition, and ultrasound should not delay surgical intervention. Routine blood tests, such as CRP and WCC, may be performed, but surgery should not be delayed while awaiting results.
In summary, testicular torsion is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and surgical intervention to prevent testicular necrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no prior history of urinary issues. The physician used a gloved index finger to examine the patient's prostate gland, most likely by palpating it through the wall of which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Rectum
Explanation:Anatomy and Digital Rectal Examination of the Prostate Gland
The prostate gland is commonly examined through a digital rectal examination, where a gloved index finger is inserted through the anus until it reaches the rectum. The anterior wall of the rectum is then palpated to examine the size and shape of the prostate gland, which lies deep to it. The sigmoid colon, which is proximal to the recto-sigmoid junction, cannot be palpated through this method and requires a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. The urinary bladder sits superior to the prostate and is surrounded by a prostatic capsule. The anus, which is the most distal part of the gastrointestinal tract, does not allow palpation of the prostate gland. The caecum, which is an outpouching of the ascending colon, is anatomically distant from the prostate gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 79-year-old woman complains of difficulty urinating, weak stream, feeling of incomplete bladder emptying, and urinary leakage. Urodynamic testing reveals a detrusor pressure of 90 cm H2O during voiding (normal range < 70 cm H2O) and a peak flow rate of 5 mL/second (normal range > 15 mL/second). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Overflow incontinence
Explanation:Bladder outlet obstruction can be indicated by a high voiding detrusor pressure and low peak flow rate, leading to overflow incontinence. Voiding symptoms such as poor flow and incomplete emptying may also suggest this condition.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 27-year-old trans female patient contacts her GP for a telephone consultation to discuss contraception options. She was assigned male at birth and is currently receiving treatment from the gender identity clinic, taking oestradiol and goserelin. Although she plans to undergo surgery in the future, she has not done so yet. She is currently in a relationship with a female partner and engages in penetrative sexual intercourse. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications apart from those prescribed by the GIC. What advice should she receive regarding contraception?
Your Answer: The patient should use condoms
Explanation:While patients assigned male at birth who are undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone may experience a decrease or cessation in sperm production, it is not a reliable method of contraception. Therefore, it is important to advise the use of condoms as a suitable option for contraception. It is incorrect to suggest that a vasectomy is the only option, as condoms are also a viable choice. Additionally, recommending that the patient’s partner use hormonal contraception is not appropriate, as advice should be given directly to the patient.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.
For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.
For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.
In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.
Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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You have organized a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for the past year. The results are as follows:
- Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
- pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
- Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
- Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
- Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
- Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
- Normal forms 5% (4% or more)
His partner is also undergoing investigations, and you plan on referring him to fertility services. What steps should be taken based on these semen analysis results?Your Answer: Repeat test in 3 months
Explanation:If a semen sample shows abnormal results, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. Immediate retesting should only be considered if there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa, such as azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml. In this case, the man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia and a confirmatory test should be arranged after 3 months.
Understanding Semen Analysis
Semen analysis is a test that measures the quality and quantity of semen in a man’s ejaculate. To ensure accurate results, it is recommended that the sample be collected after a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 5 days of abstinence. It is also important to deliver the sample to the lab within 1 hour of collection.
The normal semen results include a volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of more than 7.2, a sperm concentration of more than 15 million per ml, morphology of more than 4% normal forms, motility of more than 32% progressive motility, and vitality of more than 58% live spermatozoa. However, it is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, and these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.
Overall, semen analysis is an important tool in assessing male fertility and can provide valuable information for couples trying to conceive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are asked to place a catheter in a pediatric patient for urinary retention. You select a 6-Fr catheter.
Which of the following is the most accurate description of the size of this catheter?Your Answer: The length of the catheter is approximately 24 mm
Correct Answer: The external circumference of the catheter is approximately 24mm
Explanation:Understanding Catheter Sizes: A Guide to the French Gauge System
Catheters are medical devices used to drain urine from the bladder when a patient is unable to do so naturally. The size of a catheter is an important factor in ensuring proper placement and function. The French gauge system is commonly used to describe catheter sizes, with the size in French units roughly equal to the circumference of the catheter in millimetres.
It is important to note that the French size only describes the external circumference of the catheter, not its length or internal diameter. A catheter that is too large can cause discomfort and irritation, while one that is too small can lead to kinking and leakage.
For male urethral catheterisation, a size 14-Fr or 16-Fr catheter is typically appropriate. Larger sizes may be recommended for patients with haematuria or clots. Paediatric sizes range from 3 to 14-Fr.
In summary, understanding the French gauge system is crucial in selecting the appropriate catheter size for each patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower abdominal pain. The patient has a distended abdomen and has not passed urine for eight hours. He is very uncomfortable and has a large palpable bladder extending above the pubic symphysis. A digital rectal examination is performed, which reveals an enlarged, smooth prostate. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and he remains systemically well. He describes increasing difficulty with voiding and poor stream over the past six months, but no other symptoms.
What is the most likely underlying cause for his urinary retention?Your Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
Explanation:Causes of Urinary Retention in Men
Urinary retention, the inability to empty the bladder completely, can have various underlying causes. In men, some common conditions that can lead to urinary retention are benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), renal calculi, prostate carcinoma, urinary tract infection, and bladder cancer.
BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that often occurs with aging. It can compress the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine, causing symptoms such as difficulty starting urination, weak stream, dribbling, and frequent urination. Immediate treatment for acute urinary retention due to BPH may involve inserting a urinary catheter to relieve the pressure and drain the bladder.
Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause urinary retention if they get stuck in the ureter or bladder neck. The pain from passing a stone can be severe and radiate from the back to the groin. Blood in the urine may also be present.
Prostate carcinoma, or prostate cancer, can also cause urinary retention if the tumour grows large enough to block the urethra. However, this is not a common presentation of prostate cancer, which usually manifests with other symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, pain, or blood in the semen.
Urinary tract infection (UTI) can result from incomplete voiding due to BPH or other causes. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning, urgency, frequency, cloudy or foul-smelling urine, and fever. However, not all cases of urinary retention are associated with UTI.
Bladder cancer is a rare cause of urinary retention, but it can occur if the tumour obstructs the bladder outlet. Bladder cancer may also cause painless hematuria, urinary urgency, or pelvic discomfort.
In summary, urinary retention in men can have multiple etiologies, and the diagnosis depends on the patient’s history, physical examination, and additional tests such as imaging, urinalysis, or prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing. Prompt evaluation and management of urinary retention are essential to prevent complications such as urinary tract infection, bladder damage, or renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits the GP clinic with concerns about his inability to sustain an erection during sexual activity. He has no known medical conditions and reports no stress or relationship issues. Upon examination, he exhibits bilateral toe proprioception loss. Cardiovascular and respiratory evaluations are normal. There are no notable findings on physical examination, including genital examination. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted for this patient?
Your Answer: Fasting blood sugar
Explanation:Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: Understanding the Role of Different Tests
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that can have a significant impact on a man’s quality of life. It is also considered an independent risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can be a presenting symptom of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to identify any underlying causes of ED. Here, we will discuss the role of different tests in the evaluation of ED.
Fasting Blood Sugar Test
As mentioned earlier, diabetes mellitus is a common cause of ED. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with ED undergo a fasting blood sugar test to rule out diabetes.
Ultrasound of Testes
Testicular pathology does not lead to ED. Therefore, an ultrasound of the testes is not indicated unless there are specific indications for it.
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) Test
ED is not a presentation of prostate cancer. However, treatment of prostate cancer, such as radical prostatectomy, can lead to ED. Therefore, a PSA test is not indicated for the evaluation of ED.
Semen Analysis
Semen analysis is performed when couples present with infertility. It does not have a role in the evaluation of ED unless there are specific indications for it.
Serum Hormone Levels
Serum oestrogen and progesterone levels are hormones that are found abundantly in women. They are assayed, along with LH and FSH levels, to pursue the cause of hypogonadism when it is suspected. However, in the case of ED, hypogonadism must be ruled out with serum testosterone level.
In conclusion, appropriate investigations are necessary to identify any underlying causes of ED. A fasting blood sugar test and serum testosterone level are the most important tests to perform in the evaluation of ED.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up appointment regarding their difficulty in conceiving. The couple has been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The wife has a regular menstrual cycle and no previous gynaecological issues. An ovulation test measuring her progesterone level showed normal ovulation. The GP advises the couple that the husband needs to undergo tests to determine if there is any cause on his side contributing to the infertility. Both the man and the woman have no history of sexually transmitted infections. The man has been smoking one to two cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. What is the best next investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Semen analysis
Explanation:Investigations for Male Infertility: Semen Analysis, Testicular Biopsy, Hormone and Genetic Testing
When a couple experiences fertility problems, a semen analysis is typically the first investigation for the man. This test measures semen volume, pH, sperm concentration, total sperm number, total motility, vitality, and sperm morphology, using World Health Organization reference values for interpretation. If the semen analysis reveals azoospermia (no sperm present), a testicular biopsy may be performed to collect spermatozoa for in-vitro fertilization treatment.
If the semen analysis does not explain the infertility, follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone levels may be measured, but these are not first-line investigations. Genetic testing may also be considered to identify genetic abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which can cause male infertility. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and treat male infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation due to left flank pain indicative of renal colic. During the physical examination, a significant midline abdominal scar is observed, which is consistent with a previous small bowel resection. An abdominal X-ray without contrast shows several kidney stones.
What kind of kidney stones are most likely present in this scenario?Your Answer: Calcium oxalate stones
Explanation:Types of Kidney Stones and Their Causes
Kidney stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause severe pain when they pass through the urinary tract. There are different types of kidney stones, each with their own causes and treatment options.
Calcium Oxalate Stones
Increased urinary oxalate can be genetic, idiopathic, or enteric. Calcium citrate supplementation is the preferred therapy to reduce stone formation. Pain relief and infection prevention are important during the acute period of renal colic. Lithotripsy can be used to break up larger stones.Uric Acid Stones
Uric acid stones are not visible on X-rays.Cystine Stones
Cystine stones are also not visible on X-rays.Calcium Carbonate Stones
These stones are linked to high levels of calcium in the body, either from diet or conditions like hyperparathyroidism.Magnesium Carbonate Stones
Also known as struvite stones, these are made from magnesium, ammonia, and phosphate and are associated with urinary tract infections.Understanding the different types of kidney stones and their causes can help with prevention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this symptom throughout the day and has noticed that her urine flow is weak when she does manage to go voluntarily. During the examination, the GP detects a distended bladder despite the patient having just urinated before the appointment. What is the probable diagnosis for this woman's condition?
Your Answer: Urinary overflow incontinence
Explanation:The patient, an elderly woman, is experiencing urinary incontinence as evidenced by the palpable bladder even after urination. While prostate problems are a common cause of urinary overflow incontinence, this is not applicable in this case as the patient is a woman. Other possible causes include nerve damage resulting in a neurogenic bladder, which can be a complication of diabetes, chronic alcoholism, or pelvic surgery. The absence of a sudden urge to urinate rules out urge incontinence, while overactive bladder syndrome, a type of urge incontinence, is characterized by incontinence, frequent urination, and nocturia, which are not present in this case. Stress incontinence, which is associated with increased intraabdominal pressure, is also not observed. Therefore, a diagnosis of mixed incontinence is not warranted.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man tells his general practitioner that, for the past two months, he has been passing urine more often than usual and getting up at night to urinate. Given the man’s age, you suspect he might have symptoms related to an enlarged prostate.
Which of the following should be done first to confirm the first impression?Your Answer: Rectal examination of the prostate
Correct Answer: Full urological history
Explanation:Assessing Prostate Enlargement: Diagnostic Tests and Treatment Options
To determine the presence and severity of prostate enlargement, a full urological history should be taken, with attention paid to obstructive and irritation symptoms. If enlargement is suspected, a blood test for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) should be done before rectal examination, as the latter can increase PSA levels. Tamsulosin may be prescribed as a first-line drug for mild cases, but a thorough history should be obtained before starting pharmacological treatment. Abdominal examination is not typically necessary for initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of intense left flank pain that extends to his groin. A urinalysis reveals the presence of blood in his urine. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that he may have a kidney stone. An ultrasound scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB) confirms the presence of a likely stone in his left ureter. What imaging technique is best suited for visualizing a renal stone in the ureter?
Your Answer: Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB
Explanation:Imaging Tests for Urological Conditions
Non-contrast computed tomography (CT) KUB is recommended by the European Urology Association as a follow-up to initial ultrasound assessment for diagnosing stones, with a 99% identification rate. Micturating cystourethrogram is commonly used in children to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) KUB is not beneficial for renal stone patients due to its high cost. Plain radiography KUB may be useful in monitoring patients with a radio-opaque calculus. Intravenous urography (IVU) is less superior to non-contrast CT scan due to the need for contrast medium injection and increased radiation dosage to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left testis is found to be normal in size and position, but the right testis cannot be palpated in the scrotum. An ultrasound confirms that the inguinal mass is a cryptorchid testis.
What is the best course of action for addressing this patient's testicular anomaly?Your Answer: Perform a chromosome analysis
Correct Answer: Remove it (orchidectomy)
Explanation:Options for Managing Cryptorchidism
Cryptorchidism, or undescended testis, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. Here are some options for managing this condition:
1. Orchidectomy: This involves removing the undescended testis, which eliminates the risk of developing seminoma. If the patient is 30 years old or older, the undescended testis is unlikely to be capable of spermatogenesis, so removal should not affect fertility.
2. Bilateral orchidectomy: This involves removing both testes, but it is not necessary if only one testis is undescended. The opposite testis is not affected by the undescended testis and should be left intact.
3. Orchidopexy: This is a surgical procedure to place the undescended testis in the scrotum. It is most effective when done before the age of 2, but it does not reduce the risk of developing testicular cancer.
4. Testosterone therapy: This is not necessary for patients with cryptorchidism, as the Leydig cells in the testicular interstitium continue to produce testosterone.
5. Chromosome analysis: This is indicated if there is a suspicion of a chromosomal defect, such as testicular feminisation or Klinefelter syndrome.
In summary, the management of cryptorchidism depends on the individual case and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of sudden-onset pain in his left scrotum that makes walking difficult. On examination, his left testicle is firm and diffusely tender.
What is the most urgent management option?Your Answer: Scrotal exploration
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Testicular Torsion
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. One of the main differential diagnoses to consider in a patient with scrotal pain is testicular torsion. If there is a high suspicion of torsion, emergency exploration surgery should not be delayed by investigations.
During scrotal exploration, the affected testicle is inspected for viability. If viable, detorsion and orchidopexy are performed. However, if the testicle is non-viable, it must be removed. The salvage rate for detorsion within 6 hours of symptom onset is >95%, but this drops to <10% after 24 hours. While antibiotics and analgesia are appropriate for epididymo-orchitis, ruling out testicular torsion is the priority. Urinalysis may be helpful in borderline cases, but an abnormal result does not exclude testicular torsion. Doppler ultrasound scan of the testes may also be useful, but if there is a high suspicion of torsion, scrotal exploration must not be delayed by investigations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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