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Question 1
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You are managing a 62-year-old male patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia. Despite multiple administrations of atropine, there has been no improvement in the patient's condition. Which two medications would be the most suitable options to consider next for treating this rhythm?
Your Answer: Adrenaline/Isoprenaline
Explanation:Adrenaline and isoprenaline are considered as second-line medications for the treatment of bradycardia. If atropine fails to improve the condition, transcutaneous pacing is recommended. However, if pacing is not available, the administration of second-line drugs becomes necessary. Adrenaline is typically given intravenously at a dosage of 2-10 mcg/minute, while isoprenaline is given at a dosage of 5 mcg/minute. It is important to note that glucagon is not mentioned as a treatment option for this patient’s bradycardia, as the cause of the condition is not specified as a beta-blocker overdose.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) presents with a condition associated with IBD.
Which of the following conditions is associated with ulcerative colitis?Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis
Explanation:Cholelithiasis is a common occurrence in individuals with Crohn’s disease. There are several other conditions that are known to be associated with Crohn’s disease. These include a higher prevalence in smokers, with approximately 50-60% of patients being smokers. Additionally, individuals with Crohn’s disease may experience aphthous ulcers, uveitis, episcleritis, seronegative spondyloarthropathies, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, finger clubbing, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and osteoporosis. However, it is important to note that primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and chronic active hepatitis are associations commonly seen in ulcerative colitis rather than Crohn’s disease. Lastly, dermatitis herpetiformis is a condition that is associated with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 3
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A 68-year-old individual reports feeling unwell after having their dislocated shoulder reduced while under sedation. You decide to prescribe ondansetron. What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?
Your Answer: 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Ondansetron is a medication that works by blocking serotonin receptors in the body. It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV), which can occur after procedures done under sedation or anesthesia.
Further Reading:
postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is a common occurrence following procedures performed under sedation or anesthesia. It can be highly distressing for patients. Several risk factors have been identified for PONV, including female gender, a history of PONV or motion sickness, non-smoking status, patient age, use of volatile anesthetics, longer duration of anesthesia, perioperative opioid use, use of nitrous oxide, and certain types of surgery such as abdominal and gynecological procedures.
To manage PONV, antiemetics are commonly used. These medications work by targeting different receptors in the body. Cyclizine and promethazine are histamine H1-receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine and help reduce nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of serotonin and is effective in preventing and treating PONV. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of dopamine and helps alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide is also a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist and a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, providing dual action against PONV. It is also a 5-HT4 receptor agonist, which helps improve gastric emptying and reduces the risk of PONV.
Assessment and management of PONV involves a comprehensive approach. Healthcare professionals need to assess the patient’s risk factors for PONV and take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. This may include selecting the appropriate anesthesia technique, using antiemetics prophylactically, and providing adequate pain control. In cases where PONV does occur, prompt treatment with antiemetics should be initiated to alleviate symptoms and provide relief to the patient. Close monitoring of the patient’s condition and response to treatment is essential to ensure effective management of PONV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has been present for the past three weeks. The cough occurs in short bursts with an inspiration followed by a series of hacking coughs. She occasionally vomits after coughing. She mentions that the cough is worse at night and that she has fainted once during a coughing fit. She is otherwise healthy, and her vaccinations are up-to-date.
Upon examination, her chest is clear, but there are three small subconjunctival hemorrhages and some petechiae on her face. A complete blood count reveals a lymphocyte count of 22 x 109/l (1.3-3.5 x 109/l).
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pertussis
Explanation:This presentation strongly indicates a diagnosis of whooping cough, also known as pertussis. Whooping cough is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of about 7-21 days. The disease is highly contagious and can be transmitted to around 90% of close household contacts.
The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage is called the catarrhal stage, which resembles a mild respiratory infection with low-grade fever and symptoms similar to a cold. A cough may be present, but it is usually mild and not as severe as in the second stage. The catarrhal stage typically lasts for about a week.
The second stage is known as the paroxysmal stage. During this stage, the characteristic paroxysmal cough develops as the symptoms from the catarrhal stage start to improve. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound, followed by a series of rapid coughs. Vomiting may occur, and patients may develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Patients generally feel well between coughing spasms, and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over this period. The later stages of this stage are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.
Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures. It is important to note that a history of vaccination does not guarantee immunity, as it only provides about 95% protection.
The presence of marked lymphocytosis in this case also supports a diagnosis of pertussis, as it is a common finding. A lymphocyte count greater than 20 x 109/l is highly suggestive of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45 year old presents to the emergency department due to increasing fatigue and occasional confusion over the past few days. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus. A capillary blood glucose is taken at triage and reads 'hi'. Bloods are collected and sent for analysis. The results are as follows:
Na+ 146 mmol/l
K+ 5.7 mmol/l
Urea 21 mmol/l
Creatinine 138 µmol/l
Glucose 38 mmol/l
pH 7.35
Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
What is the calculated plasma osmolality for this patient?Your Answer: 330 mOsm/kg
Correct Answer: 351 mOsm/kg
Explanation:The plasma osmolality for this patient can be calculated by multiplying the sodium concentration by 2, adding the glucose concentration, and then adding the urea concentration. In this case, the calculation would be (2 x 146) + 38 + 21.
Further Reading:
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a syndrome that occurs in people with type 2 diabetes and is characterized by extremely high blood glucose levels, dehydration, and hyperosmolarity without significant ketosis. It can develop over days or weeks and has a mortality rate of 5-20%, which is higher than that of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). HHS is often precipitated by factors such as infection, inadequate diabetic treatment, physiological stress, or certain medications.
Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, signs of dehydration (hypotension, tachycardia, poor skin turgor), lethargy, confusion, and weakness. Initial investigations for HHS include measuring capillary blood glucose, venous blood gas, urinalysis, and an ECG to assess for any potential complications such as myocardial infarction. Osmolality should also be calculated to monitor the severity of the condition.
The management of HHS aims to correct dehydration, hyperglycaemia, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte disturbances, as well as identify and treat any underlying causes. Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride solution is the principal fluid used to restore circulating volume and reverse dehydration. If the osmolality does not decline despite adequate fluid balance, a switch to 0.45% sodium chloride solution may be considered. Care must be taken in correcting plasma sodium and osmolality to avoid complications such as cerebral edema and osmotic demyelination syndrome.
The rate of fall of plasma sodium should not exceed 10 mmol/L in 24 hours, and the fall in blood glucose should be no more than 5 mmol/L per hour. Low-dose intravenous insulin may be initiated if the blood glucose is not falling with fluids alone or if there is significant ketonaemia. Potassium replacement should be guided by the potassium level, and the patient should be encouraged to drink as soon as it is safe to do so.
Complications of treatment, such as fluid overload, cerebral edema, or central pontine myelinolysis, should be assessed for, and underlying precipitating factors should be identified and treated. Prophylactic anticoagulation is required in most patients, and all patients should be assumed to be at high risk of foot ulceration, necessitating appropriate foot protection and daily foot checks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
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A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is seeking admission for 'inpatient detox' and expresses a desire for medication to alleviate his discomfort.
Which ONE of the following medications will you administer to alleviate his symptoms during his stay in the Emergency Department?Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed in the UK to help manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been approved for this purpose. If you would like to learn more about the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal or the RCEM syllabus reference, please refer to the provided links. Additionally, information on alcohol and substance misuse can be found in the MHC1 section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
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a 49-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presenting with sepsis, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice is diagnosed with ascending cholangitis. Which SINGLE statement regarding this condition is true?
Your Answer: It occurs when the common bile duct becomes infected
Explanation:Ascending cholangitis occurs when there is an infection in the common bile duct, often caused by a stone that has led to a blockage of bile flow. This condition is characterized by the presence of Charcot’s triad, which includes jaundice, fever with rigors, and pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. It is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening, with some patients also experiencing altered mental status and low blood pressure due to septic shock, known as Reynold’s pentad. Urgent biliary drainage is the recommended treatment for ascending cholangitis.
In acute cholecystitis, Murphy’s sign is typically positive, indicating tenderness in the right upper quadrant when the gallbladder is palpated. However, it is negative in cases of biliary colic and ascending cholangitis. The white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated in ascending cholangitis, along with the presence of jaundice and significantly increased levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and bilirubin.
To differentiate between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis, the following can be helpful:
Biliary colic:
– Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
– Fever: Absent
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Normal
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
– Bilirubin: NormalAcute cholecystitis:
– Pain duration: More than 12 hours
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Positive
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
– Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevatedAscending cholangitis:
– Pain duration: Variable
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated
– Bilirubin: Elevated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring. Some of the lesions have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing general malaise, joint pain, and a feverish feeling. You take his temperature and it is currently 39°C.
What is the MOST appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer for hospital admission
Explanation:Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.
The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:
– Sudden and abrupt onset
– Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
– Often painful lesions
– Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
– Severe acne scarring
– Fluctuating fever
– Painful joints and arthropathy
– General feeling of illness (malaise)
– Loss of appetite and weight loss
– Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father with a reported high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures her temperature again as part of her initial assessment.
Which of the following is suggested by NICE as being an acceptable method of measuring body temperature in this age group?Your Answer: Oral glass mercury thermometer
Correct Answer: Infra-red tympanic thermometer
Explanation:In infants who are less than 4 weeks old, it is recommended to measure their body temperature using an electronic thermometer placed in the armpit.
For children between the ages of 4 weeks and 5 years, there are several methods that can be used to measure body temperature. These include using an electronic thermometer in the armpit, a chemical dot thermometer in the armpit, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.
It is important to note that measuring temperature orally or rectally should be avoided in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car accident. She was hit by a truck while crossing the road and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
According to the ATLS guidelines, what other medication should be administered?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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