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Question 1
Correct
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You are asked to go and review Sarah, an 82-year-old nursing home resident with pains in her legs.
Sarah has a 40-pack-year smoking history and has recently been diagnosed with mild cognitive impairment.
For the last 48 hours, the staff at the nursing home have noticed Sarah is very uncomfortable when getting out of her bed. The nursing staff mention that she has now started to require assistance to transfer into her chair from the bed as she reports the pain makes her legs 'give way'.
Sarah describes severe pains in her legs, mainly located at the back of her thighs but sometimes moving down into her lower legs and feet. She describes the pain as ‘electric shocks’.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with bilateral sciatica is cauda equina syndrome. This condition may be caused by malignant spread, which is more likely in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, increasing the risk of prostate cancer. Bilateral claudication, Guillain-Barré syndrome, osteoarthritis, and peripheral neuropathy are less likely diagnoses as they do not present acutely with bilateral sciatica symptoms.
Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.
The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.
It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old lady seeks your advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and wants to protect herself against pregnancy. She is in good health, doesn't experience migraines, and is a non-smoker. Her mother had breast cancer a decade ago, but has since been declared cancer-free. The patient has a confirmed BRCA1 gene mutation. Her BMI is 23 and her blood pressure is 124/82. Based on this information, what form of contraception would you recommend for her?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system
Correct Answer: Intrauterine copper coil
Explanation:UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraception
The UK medical eligibility criteria for contraception categorizes contraceptive methods into four categories. Category 1 indicates that there are no restrictions for use, while Category 4 indicates that use poses an unacceptable health risk. For patients with a BRCA gene mutation, the combined contraceptive pill has a UK Category rating of 3 and should definitely not be used. All of the other options are rated a UK Category 2, so will still need careful follow-up. The intrauterine copper coil is the only method that is rated a UK Category 1, making it the safest option to use here. There is no restriction on the use of this method for this condition. It is important to consider the UK medical eligibility criteria when choosing a contraceptive method to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 18 months ago and the result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) with a negative cytology report.
She has now undergone a repeat smear and the result is once again positive for hrHPV with a negative cytology report.
What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat sample in 12 months
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines for cervical cancer screening, if a person’s first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), they should have another smear test 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months after the initial test). If the person remains hrHPV positive but has negative cytology results at 12 and 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy. However, if they become hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can return to routine recall.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Correct
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A 72-year-old man has a painful erythematous vesicular rash over the right side of his face. It extends over his right eye and forehead and over his scalp on that side. The left side is unaffected. It started approximately 24 hours ago. He is feeling unwell and has a slight temperature and his eye is painful and red.
Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.Your Answer: Rash at the tip of the nose is a strong predictor of eye involvement
Explanation:Understanding Ophthalmic Shingles: Eye Involvement and Treatment
Ophthalmic shingles, a type of herpes zoster, can have serious implications for eye health. If a rash appears at the tip of the nose, it is likely that the nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve is involved, which supplies the globe and can lead to eye involvement in at least 75% of cases. However, eye involvement is not a feature in nearly all cases, occurring in about half of cases when the ophthalmic branch is affected. Periorbital edema and keratitis are also common features.
Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the severity and duration of pain, complications, and viral shedding. Systemic antiviral treatment should be started within 72 hours of rash onset and continued for 7-10 days. Urgent ophthalmological referral may be necessary to prevent serious eye damage. Understanding the signs and symptoms of ophthalmic shingles can help ensure timely and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is accompanied by his father who is concerned that his son may have anorexia nervosa.
Select from the list below the single option that is a feature of this condition.Your Answer: Fear of being thin
Correct Answer: Amenorrhoea
Explanation:Understanding Anorexia Nervosa: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder characterized by a fear of weight gain, relentless dietary habits, and a distorted perception of body weight and shape. To diagnose anorexia nervosa, doctors rely on a patient’s medical history and physical symptoms, such as fatigue, loss of muscle mass, and growth impairment. While secondary amenorrhea (cessation of menstruation) was once considered essential for diagnosis, it is no longer required under the DSM-5 criteria. Instead, a patient’s weight must be below 85% of predicted, or a body mass index below 17.5 kg/m2. Binge eating may also be present, leading to purging behaviors and a cycle of guilt and binging. It is important to recognize the signs of anorexia nervosa and seek professional help for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with weight loss and irritability.
Thyroid function tests reveal:
Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
Examination reveals a fine tremor, pulse of 95 beats per minute, a smooth goitre with a bruit and lid lag only without any other eye signs.
What is the most likely cause for these thyroid function test results?Your Answer: Graves' disease
Correct Answer: Hashitoxicosis
Explanation:TFTs and Hyperthyroidism
Thyroid function tests (TFTs) can reveal hyperthyroidism, which can be caused by Graves’ disease, Hashitoxicosis, and Multinodular goitre. However, the distinguishing feature in this case is the presence of a thyroid bruit, which suggests increased vascularity due to stimulation by a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibody, specifically in Graves’ disease. It is important to note that eye signs such as proptosis, chemosis, and exophthalmos are common features of Graves’ disease but may not always be present. Proper diagnosis and management of hyperthyroidism require careful evaluation and monitoring of thyroid function and associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female primip comes in during the 12th week of pregnancy with complaints of ongoing nausea. Her urine dipstick shows no ketones present. She asks for medication to alleviate her symptoms. What is the best drug to recommend?
Your Answer: Ondansetron
Correct Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:Antihistamines are the preferred initial treatment for vomiting during pregnancy.
Specific Points for Antenatal Care
Antenatal care is an essential aspect of pregnancy, and NICE has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. Some specific points to consider during antenatal care include nausea and vomiting, vitamin D, and alcohol consumption.
For nausea and vomiting, natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point are recommended by NICE. However, antihistamines such as promethazine are suggested as first-line treatment in the BNF.
Vitamin D is crucial for the health of both the mother and the baby. NICE recommends that all women should be informed about the importance of maintaining adequate vitamin D stores during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Women may choose to take 10 micrograms of vitamin D per day, as found in the Healthy Start multivitamin supplement. Women at risk, such as those who are Asian, obese, or have a poor diet, should take particular care.
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to long-term harm to the baby. In 2016, the Chief Medical Officer proposed new guidelines recommending that pregnant women should not drink alcohol at all. The official advice is to keep risks to the baby to a minimum, and the more alcohol consumed, the greater the risk.
In summary, antenatal care should include specific points such as managing nausea and vomiting, maintaining adequate vitamin D levels, and avoiding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. These guidelines aim to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man has recently attended a well-man clinic. He is in good health and reports no symptoms. His body mass index is 22 kg/m2. He takes no regular medication. He is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 3 units of alcohol per week. He presents to you for review of his blood tests, as shown below:
- eGFR 92 mL/min/1.73m2
- HBA1c 38 mmol/mol
- Bilirubin 12 umol/l (3 - 17 umol/l)
- Alanine transferase (ALT) 70 iu/l (3 - 40 iu/l)
- Aspartate transaminase (AST) 30 iu/l (3 - 30 iu/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 umol/l (30 - 100 umol/l)
- Gamma glutamyl transferase (yGT) 55 u/l (8 - 60 u/l)
- Total protein 72 g/l (60 - 80 g/l)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Repeat the liver function tests in 12-months
Correct Answer: Arrange a liver screen including a liver ultrasound and blood tests, and review the patient with the results
Explanation:It is common for incidental raised liver function tests to persist even after a month, and normalised liver function tests do not necessarily indicate the absence or resolution of chronic liver diseases. Standard liver screen blood tests include Antinuclear antibody, anti-smooth muscle antibody, serum immunoglobulins, anti-mitochondrial antibody, ferritin, transferrin saturation, and a viral hepatitis screen.
Given that the patient is currently well, there is no need for immediate hepatology review. Urgent hepatology referral within two weeks is also unnecessary as the patient is not exhibiting any concerning symptoms.
Since the patient is consuming alcohol within recommended limits, there is no need for a referral for FibroScan (transient elastography).
According to current guidelines, repeating liver function tests after an initial abnormal result is not recommended as they are unlikely to normalise unless an acute cause has been identified. Waiting for 12 months to repeat the bloods is also inappropriate.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient who is well known to you and is a minor has applied for Disability Living Allowance (DLA). The Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) contact you requesting an associated medical report to be completed.
What would be the next most appropriate step?Your Answer: Complete the report from your medical records and knowledge of the patient
Explanation:ESA113 Medical Report for Employment and Support Allowance
When a person applies for Employment and Support Allowance (ESA), the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) may request additional information from the patient’s doctor through an ESA113 medical report. This report is used to determine if the patient is unwell enough to receive ESA benefits.
It is important to note that the doctor is not required to interview or examine the patient in order to complete the report. Instead, they can provide a computer printout of the patient’s medical history, but any unanswered sections on the form must still be completed.
To assist doctors in completing the ESA113 report, the DWP has provided helpful guidance. This ensures that the report is accurate and provides the necessary information to determine the patient’s eligibility for ESA benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl has recently arrived from Lithuania and registered with your practice. Lithuania is a country with an incidence of more than 40 per 100000 of tuberculosis. Mantoux testing has been carried out to screen for latent tuberculosis. It is unclear if she has ever had BCG immunisation and there are no scars suggestive of this. After 3 days the diameter of induration is 10 mm.
Select from the list the single most correct management option.Your Answer: Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Interferon γ (IGT) blood test
Explanation:Detecting latent tuberculosis is crucial in controlling the disease, as up to 15% of adults with latent tuberculosis may develop active disease, and the risk may be even higher in children. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those who are HIV positive, the chance of developing active disease within 5 years of latent infection is up to 50%. The Mantoux test is a method of detecting previous exposure to the tuberculosis organism or BCG vaccination by causing a cell-mediated immune reaction. The interpretation of the test depends on factors such as BCG vaccination history, immune status, and concurrent viral infection. While a negative test in HIV-positive patients doesn’t exclude tuberculosis, a positive test at certain thresholds can indicate the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis. Indeterminate results may require further evaluation by a specialist. The use of IGT as a surrogate marker of infection can be useful in evaluating latent tuberculosis in BCG-vaccinated individuals, but it cannot distinguish between latent infection and active disease. NICE recommends different testing strategies based on age and risk factors, but the benefits of IGT over the Mantoux test in determining the need for treatment of latent tuberculosis are not certain. In children under 5 years, a positive test requires referral to a specialist to exclude active disease and consideration of treatment of latent tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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