-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 54-year-old man visits the GP clinic with concerns about his inability to sustain an erection during sexual activity. He has no known medical conditions and reports no stress or relationship issues. Upon examination, he exhibits bilateral toe proprioception loss. Cardiovascular and respiratory evaluations are normal. There are no notable findings on physical examination, including genital examination. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted for this patient?
Your Answer: Fasting blood sugar
Explanation:Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: Understanding the Role of Different Tests
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that can have a significant impact on a man’s quality of life. It is also considered an independent risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can be a presenting symptom of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to identify any underlying causes of ED. Here, we will discuss the role of different tests in the evaluation of ED.
Fasting Blood Sugar Test
As mentioned earlier, diabetes mellitus is a common cause of ED. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with ED undergo a fasting blood sugar test to rule out diabetes.
Ultrasound of Testes
Testicular pathology does not lead to ED. Therefore, an ultrasound of the testes is not indicated unless there are specific indications for it.
Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) Test
ED is not a presentation of prostate cancer. However, treatment of prostate cancer, such as radical prostatectomy, can lead to ED. Therefore, a PSA test is not indicated for the evaluation of ED.
Semen Analysis
Semen analysis is performed when couples present with infertility. It does not have a role in the evaluation of ED unless there are specific indications for it.
Serum Hormone Levels
Serum oestrogen and progesterone levels are hormones that are found abundantly in women. They are assayed, along with LH and FSH levels, to pursue the cause of hypogonadism when it is suspected. However, in the case of ED, hypogonadism must be ruled out with serum testosterone level.
In conclusion, appropriate investigations are necessary to identify any underlying causes of ED. A fasting blood sugar test and serum testosterone level are the most important tests to perform in the evaluation of ED.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 68-year-old man presents to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of difficulty initiating micturition and poor flow when passing urine. He reports waking up 2-3 times a night to urinate and has not experienced any changes in bowel habits. He denies any visible blood in his urine and is generally feeling well. There is no family history of prostate cancer. During digital rectal examination (DRE), a slightly enlarged and smooth prostate is detected. Urinalysis shows protein + but is negative for blood, ketones, glucose, nitrites, and leukocytes. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests all come back normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.3 ng/ml. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Commence an a-1-antagonist
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that presents with obstructive lower urinary symptoms. Over time, irritative lower urinary tract symptoms can develop due to bladder outflow obstruction, detrusor hypertrophy, and a resulting overactive bladder. The examination typically reveals a smooth and symmetrically enlarged prostate gland, and a PSA level >1.5 indicates significant risk of progression of prostate enlargement.
There are several treatment options for BPH, depending on the severity of symptoms and prostate enlargement. Lifestyle adaptation, such as sensible fluid intake, reduction of caffeine and alcohol, and management of constipation, can often be effective. If symptoms are troublesome, treatment with an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin can be tried. If the prostate is significantly enlarged or PSA is >1.5, then finasteride, a 5a-reductase inhibitor that will shrink the prostate over time, can be added.
Anticholinergic medications like oxybutynin can be used to relieve urinary and bladder difficulties, but these are not typically used first line. Prostate biopsy is not always necessary, and contraindications include the surgical absence of a rectum or the presence of a rectal fistula.
Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this symptom throughout the day and has noticed that her urine flow is weak when she does manage to go voluntarily. During the examination, the GP detects a distended bladder despite the patient having just urinated before the appointment. What is the probable diagnosis for this woman's condition?
Your Answer: Urinary overflow incontinence
Explanation:The patient, an elderly woman, is experiencing urinary incontinence as evidenced by the palpable bladder even after urination. While prostate problems are a common cause of urinary overflow incontinence, this is not applicable in this case as the patient is a woman. Other possible causes include nerve damage resulting in a neurogenic bladder, which can be a complication of diabetes, chronic alcoholism, or pelvic surgery. The absence of a sudden urge to urinate rules out urge incontinence, while overactive bladder syndrome, a type of urge incontinence, is characterized by incontinence, frequent urination, and nocturia, which are not present in this case. Stress incontinence, which is associated with increased intraabdominal pressure, is also not observed. Therefore, a diagnosis of mixed incontinence is not warranted.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology report reveals the presence of cartilage and columnar epithelial cells. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Teratoma
Explanation:Types of Testicular Tumours: Teratoma, Seminoma, Hamartoma, Epididymal Cyst, and Choriocarcinoma
Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their histological features and clinical presentation. Here are five types of testicular tumours:
Teratoma: This type of germ cell tumour can be pure or part of a mixed germ cell tumour. It is commonly seen in very young patients and presents with a painless testicular mass. Teratomas are composed of tissues arising from all three germ cell layers and can contain any type of tissue. Radical orchidectomy is the mode of treatment.
Seminoma: Seminoma is a type of germ cell tumour that presents with a painless testicular lump. It is treated with orchidectomy and has a uniform yellow cut surface. Histologically, it is composed of a uniform population of large cells arranged in nests.
Hamartoma: A hamartoma is a benign tumour-like proliferation composed of a mixture of cells normal for the tissue from which it arises. Within the normal testicular tissue, there is no cartilage.
Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is a fluid-filled sac arising usually superoposterior to the testis. It transilluminates on examination and is lined by a single layer of cuboidal to columnar epithelium, with or without Ciliary.
Choriocarcinoma: Choriocarcinomas are malignant germ cell tumours composed of syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, and intermediate trophoblast cells. They are rare and associated with raised serum beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin levels. These tumours are usually haemorrhagic masses and often have metastasis at presentation.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their clinical presentation is crucial for their early detection and appropriate management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
Urine dip shows:
frank haematuria
blood 2+
protein 2+.
He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?Your Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones
Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:
1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.
2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.
3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.
It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower abdominal pain. The patient has a distended abdomen and has not passed urine for eight hours. He is very uncomfortable and has a large palpable bladder extending above the pubic symphysis. A digital rectal examination is performed, which reveals an enlarged, smooth prostate. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and he remains systemically well. He describes increasing difficulty with voiding and poor stream over the past six months, but no other symptoms.
What is the most likely underlying cause for his urinary retention?Your Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
Explanation:Causes of Urinary Retention in Men
Urinary retention, the inability to empty the bladder completely, can have various underlying causes. In men, some common conditions that can lead to urinary retention are benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), renal calculi, prostate carcinoma, urinary tract infection, and bladder cancer.
BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that often occurs with aging. It can compress the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine, causing symptoms such as difficulty starting urination, weak stream, dribbling, and frequent urination. Immediate treatment for acute urinary retention due to BPH may involve inserting a urinary catheter to relieve the pressure and drain the bladder.
Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause urinary retention if they get stuck in the ureter or bladder neck. The pain from passing a stone can be severe and radiate from the back to the groin. Blood in the urine may also be present.
Prostate carcinoma, or prostate cancer, can also cause urinary retention if the tumour grows large enough to block the urethra. However, this is not a common presentation of prostate cancer, which usually manifests with other symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, pain, or blood in the semen.
Urinary tract infection (UTI) can result from incomplete voiding due to BPH or other causes. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning, urgency, frequency, cloudy or foul-smelling urine, and fever. However, not all cases of urinary retention are associated with UTI.
Bladder cancer is a rare cause of urinary retention, but it can occur if the tumour obstructs the bladder outlet. Bladder cancer may also cause painless hematuria, urinary urgency, or pelvic discomfort.
In summary, urinary retention in men can have multiple etiologies, and the diagnosis depends on the patient’s history, physical examination, and additional tests such as imaging, urinalysis, or prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing. Prompt evaluation and management of urinary retention are essential to prevent complications such as urinary tract infection, bladder damage, or renal impairment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation due to left flank pain indicative of renal colic. During the physical examination, a significant midline abdominal scar is observed, which is consistent with a previous small bowel resection. An abdominal X-ray without contrast shows several kidney stones.
What kind of kidney stones are most likely present in this scenario?Your Answer: Calcium carbonate stones
Correct Answer: Calcium oxalate stones
Explanation:Types of Kidney Stones and Their Causes
Kidney stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause severe pain when they pass through the urinary tract. There are different types of kidney stones, each with their own causes and treatment options.
Calcium Oxalate Stones
Increased urinary oxalate can be genetic, idiopathic, or enteric. Calcium citrate supplementation is the preferred therapy to reduce stone formation. Pain relief and infection prevention are important during the acute period of renal colic. Lithotripsy can be used to break up larger stones.Uric Acid Stones
Uric acid stones are not visible on X-rays.Cystine Stones
Cystine stones are also not visible on X-rays.Calcium Carbonate Stones
These stones are linked to high levels of calcium in the body, either from diet or conditions like hyperparathyroidism.Magnesium Carbonate Stones
Also known as struvite stones, these are made from magnesium, ammonia, and phosphate and are associated with urinary tract infections.Understanding the different types of kidney stones and their causes can help with prevention and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 15-year-old presents with a tender, pea-sized lump in the upper pole of his left testis. He says it has developed gradually over the last 24 hours. His mum states that his grandfather died of testicular cancer at just 45 years of age. Other than pain from the lump, he says he feels generally well in himself. On examination, the lump does not transilluminate and feels regular. There is no associated oedema or erythema.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Torsion of the testicular appendage
Explanation:Common Testicular Conditions and Their Characteristics
Testicular conditions can cause discomfort and pain in men. Here are some common conditions and their characteristics:
1. Torsion of the Testicular Appendage: This condition develops over 24 hours and results in a tender, pea-sized nodule in the upper pole of the testis. Oedema and associated symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting, are rare. An ultrasound scan (USS) is done to ensure that the man is not suffering from torsion. Surgical intervention is only necessary if there is a lot of pain.
2. Testicular Torsion: This condition is characterised by sudden-onset, severe pain. On examination, the cremasteric reflex will be absent, and there may be associated scrotal oedema. Patients often suffer from nausea and vomiting. It requires surgical exploration within 6 hours.
3. Varicocele: Although a varicocele is most common in teenagers and young men, it rarely causes pain. Characteristically, it feels like a ‘bag of worms’ and may cause mild discomfort.
4. Testicular Teratoma: This condition typically presents as a firm, tethered irregular mass, which increases in size gradually, rather than appearing over 24 hours. It is the more common testicular malignancy in the 20- to 30-year-old age group.
5. Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is more common in older men, typically in the 40- to 50-year old age group. The cyst transilluminates and is palpable separately from the testis.
Knowing the characteristics of these common testicular conditions can help men identify and seek treatment for any discomfort or pain they may experience.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man presents with blood in his ejaculate. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms and no abdominal pain and is generally healthy. He has been in a long-term monogamous relationship and denies any history of trauma. Examination of his scrotum and penis is unremarkable, and his prostate is normal and non-tender upon digital rectal examination. Urinalysis results are within normal limits, and there is no family history of cancer.
What is the most appropriate next step, in addition to obtaining a urine sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivities?Your Answer: Reassure him that this symptom is not a sign of anything serious and advise him that no follow-up is required
Correct Answer: Reassure him that this symptom is not a sign of anything serious but ask him to return if he has >3 episodes or the problem persists for over a month
Explanation:Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually not a cause for concern in men under 40 years old. The most common causes are trauma, urinary tract infection (especially prostatitis), and sexually transmitted infection. However, it is important to rule out cancer through appropriate physical examination. If the symptom persists for over a month or there are more than three episodes, referral is recommended, especially for men over 40 years old. While reassurance is appropriate, patients should be encouraged to seek medical attention if the problem persists. Antibiotics may be prescribed if a urinary tract infection is suspected, but this is unlikely in cases with normal urinalysis. Urgent referral is necessary for men with signs and symptoms suggestive of prostate or urological malignancies, or if the underlying cause of haematospermia may be cysts or calculi of the prostate or seminal vesicles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain which started about six hours ago. She claims the pain is in the lower abdomen and has been worsening gradually. She has not been able to pass urine since before the pain started.
Upon examination, vital signs are stable and suprapubic tenderness is present. There is no rebound tenderness, and the examining doctor does not find any signs of peritonitis. In addition, the doctor finds a large solid abdominal mass in the right lower quadrant. The patient said this mass had been there for a few years and has made it difficult to get pregnant. The patient also claims that she has heavy periods. She is due to have an operation for it in two months. A serum pregnancy test is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis requiring immediate treatment and admission?Your Answer: Ovarian cyst
Correct Answer: Acute urinary retention
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Acute Urinary Retention and an Abdominal Mass
During this admission, the patient presents with symptoms consistent with acute urinary retention, including sudden onset of symptoms and suprapubic tenderness. The presence of an abdominal mass suggests a possible gynecological cause, such as a uterine fibroid. However, it is important to note that if cancer is suspected, the patient would be referred for investigation under the 2-week cancer protocol, but the acute admission is required for urinary retention and catheterization.
Other possible diagnoses, such as ovarian cyst, appendicitis, and caecal tumor, are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms and presentation. While a uterine fibroid may be a contributing factor to the urinary retention, it is not the primary reason for the admission. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents with a gradual reduction in urine flow. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is found to be 14.3 ng/ml (normal PSA level: 2.5-4.0 ng/mL).
What is the most important investigation required?Your Answer: Flexible cystoscopy
Correct Answer: Multi-parametic MRI
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Prostate Cancer
Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that are commonly used to detect prostate cancer:
1. Multi-parametric MRI: This scan is recommended for individuals with a risk of prostate cancer. It can help to locate the site of biopsy and avoid unnecessary procedures.
2. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen: This scan can give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
3. Radioisotope bone scan: This scan can reveal the presence of bony metastases that are common in prostate cancer, but it cannot give a definite diagnosis.
4. Flexible cystoscopy: This examination can detect any abnormalities of the prostate or bladder and urethra, but a biopsy is still required for a definite diagnosis.
5. Ultrasound scan of the renal tract: This scan can also give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.
In conclusion, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose prostate cancer, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He also reports that he has noticed galactorrhoea and is experiencing headaches, usually upon waking in the morning. He has no significant past medical history. His blood test results are as follows:
Investigation(s) Result Normal range
Haemoglobin (Hb) 142 g/l 130–180 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 3.5–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.8 mU/l 0.27-4.2 mU/l
Prolactin 5234 mU/l 86-324 mU/l
Which of the following further investigations should be requested?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pituitary
Explanation:For a patient with symptoms and blood tests indicating prolactinaemia, further tests are needed to measure other pituitary hormones. An MRI scan of the pituitary gland is necessary to diagnose a macroprolactinoma, which is likely due to significantly elevated prolactin levels and early-morning headaches. A CT of the adrenal glands is useful in diagnosing phaeochromocytoma, which presents with symptoms such as headaches, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea and vomiting, anxiety, and tremors. A 24-hour urinary 5HIAA test is used to diagnose a serotonin-secreting carcinoid tumor, which presents with symptoms such as flushing, diarrhea, and tachycardia. A chest X-ray is not useful in diagnosing a prolactinoma, which is an adenoma of the pituitary gland. For imaging of prolactinomas, MRI is the preferred method as it is more sensitive in detecting small tumors (microprolactinomas).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding that has been progressively worsening over the past year. She also complains of severe period pain that typically starts a few days before each menstrual cycle. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 28 days. Lila states she has not been sexually active for the past year and is not taking any regular medications. She has two children, both born via vaginal delivery without any complications. Upon abdominal examination, no abnormalities are noted, and a speculum examination reveals a normal cervix. You decide to order a full blood count. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Request a transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:If a patient presents with menorrhagia along with pelvic pain, abnormal exam findings, or intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, it is recommended to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound. According to the NICE guidelines, a transvaginal ultrasound should be preferred over a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI for women with significant dysmenorrhoea or a bulky, tender uterus on examination that suggests adenomyosis.
In the case of Lila, who is experiencing new menorrhagia and significant dysmenorrhoea, a transvaginal ultrasound is necessary. If a transvaginal ultrasound is not possible, a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI can be considered, but the limitations of these techniques should be explained.
For women without identified pathology, fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, the first-line treatment recommended by the guideline is a levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS). While this may be an appropriate treatment for Lila, the initial next step should be to arrange for a transvaginal ultrasound to investigate further. At this stage, there are no red flags in Lila’s history or examination that warrant an urgent referral to gynaecology.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 19-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful swelling in the area of his glans penis that has been present for 6 hours. Upon examination, the glans penis is red, oedematous, and extremely tender. The foreskin is pulled back, but there is no evidence of scrotal or penile necrosis or redness.
What is the best course of action for treatment?Your Answer: Soak the foreskin and glans penis in a hypertonic solution and attempt to manually replace the foreskin by using gentle, but sustained, distal traction
Explanation:Management of Penile Conditions: Differentiating Paraphimosis and Balanitis
Penile conditions such as paraphimosis and balanitis require prompt and appropriate management. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted but cannot be replaced, leading to swelling of the glans penis. This is a urological emergency that requires immediate intervention. Treatment involves attempting to manually reduce the foreskin, aided by a hypertonic solution to draw out fluid from the swollen area. Referral to Urology is necessary if reduction is not successful.
Balanitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the foreskin usually caused by dermatitis or infection with Candida, Gardnerella, or staphylococcal organisms. Symptoms include tenderness and erythema of the glans penis, itching, penile discharge, difficulty with retraction of the foreskin, and difficulty urinating or controlling urine stream. Treatment involves prescribing a 7-day course of hydrocortisone and clotrimazole cream or flucloxacillin if caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
It is important to differentiate between these two conditions and provide appropriate management to prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man is recovering from hip surgery on the ward. He has had an indwelling catheter for several days. In the last 24 hours, he has been noted to have some ‘dizzy spells’ by nurses where he becomes confused and agitated. He has been seen talking to himself, mumbling incoherent ideas, and at other times he seems distracted and disorientated, forgetting where he is. He has a new fever and is tachycardic. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. You suspect he is suffering from delirium.
Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer: Leukocytes and nitrites on mid-stream urine sample dipstick
Explanation:Understanding Delirium: Causes and Symptoms
Delirium is a state of confusion that can be caused by various factors, including acute illnesses, infections, drug adverse reactions, and toxicity. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms of fever and an indwelling catheter increase the likelihood of a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of delirium. Other causes of delirium include drug-related issues, alcohol withdrawal, metabolic imbalances, and head injury or trauma.
Symptoms of delirium include leukocytes and nitrites on a mid-stream urine sample dipstick, which suggest a UTI. However, a frozen or ‘mask-like’ face is commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease, not delirium. Structural changes in the brain are usually associated with dementia, while a progressive decline in cognitive function may indicate a space-occupying lesion or bleed (extradural haematoma).
It is important to note that cognitive changes caused by delirium are often reversible by finding and treating the underlying cause. In contrast, irreversible cognitive changes are commonly seen in dementia. Understanding the causes and symptoms of delirium can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and treatment for patients experiencing this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 58-year-old man with long-standing multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted due to increasing problems with his care in the community. He is bed-bound with a spastic paraparesis. He is noted to have a permanent 14-gauge urinary catheter in situ and has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The family informs the nursing staff that this has not been changed for some time. Your senior colleague wishes for the catheter to be replaced due to recurrent UTIs.
Which one of the following statements is the most accurate?Your Answer: A single dose of prophylactic gentamicin is advisable
Explanation:Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters
Introduction:
Permanent indwelling urinary catheters are commonly used in patients with urinary retention or incontinence. However, they can pose a risk of infection and other complications. Therefore, it is important to follow best practices when placing and maintaining these catheters.Prophylactic Gentamicin:
When replacing a permanent catheter, it is recommended to administer a single dose of prophylactic gentamicin to prevent infection.Regular Replacement:
It is essential to have measures in place for regular routine replacement of permanent catheters. This is because they are a foreign body and can be a portal of entry for infection. Urinary sepsis in these patients can be devastating and fatal.Same-Sized Catheter:
When replacing a catheter, it is not necessary to change the size unless there are symptoms of catheter bypass. Increasing the size can cause pain and trauma.Local Anaesthetic Gel:
Even if a patient has paraparesis, local anaesthetic gel must be used during catheter insertion to prevent pain.Chaperone:
It is good practice to offer a chaperone during any intimate examination/procedure. The patient may accept or decline a chaperone. If a chaperone is required, they do not have to be a man as long as there is consent from the patient.Regular Replacement Schedule:
Long-term catheters require changing every 12 weeks due to the design of the catheter and the risk of infection. This can be done in the community by district nurses.Best Practices for Permanent Indwelling Urinary Catheters
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic for the second time this year with fever, dysuria, dribbling of urine. Previous admissions were for urinary tract infections. He has a history of hypertension and previous myocardial infarction for which he takes ramipril and rosuvastatin. On examination, he is pyrexial (38.5 °C) and has a pulse of 105/min and his blood pressure (BP) is 142/84 mm Hg. His cardiovascular and respiratory examination is normal. There is suprapubic tenderness with dullness, on percussion, indicating a distended bladder. Per rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged prostate.
What is the best next investigation to determine the cause of this patient’s urinary retention?Your Answer: Ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests can be used. One of the most common tests is an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume, which can estimate the degree of bladder obstruction.
However, other tests such as CT abdomen and MRI abdomen are not useful for diagnosing benign prostatic hyperplasia. CT abdomen is more useful for diagnosing malignancies of the pelvic-ureteric system, while MRI abdomen is more sensitive for diagnosing lymph-node metastasis in prostate cancer.
Micturating cystourethrogram is also not useful for diagnosing prostatic hypertrophy, as it is used to diagnose fistula, vesicoureteric reflux, and urethral stricture. Similarly, serum alpha-fetoprotein has no role in cancer of the prostate, as it is a tumour marker in hepatocellular carcinoma, non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours, and yolk-sac tumours.
In conclusion, an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume is the most useful diagnostic test for benign prostatic hyperplasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During the examination, the doctor notices an abnormality on the right side of the scrotum that feels like a bag of worms. The patient mentions that this has only been present for the past two months and there is no change in the examination when he lies down. What is the recommended next step?
Your Answer: Reassure
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters and bladder
Explanation:Medical Imaging Recommendations for Suspected Left Renal Malignancy
Introduction:
When a patient presents with a left-sided varicocele, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying left renal malignancy. In this scenario, we will discuss the appropriate medical imaging recommendations for this suspected condition.Ultrasound of the Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder:
A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of the spermatic cord, which is dependent on the spermatic vein. In some cases, a left-sided varicocele can be associated with a left renal malignancy. This occurs when a large left renal tumor compresses or invades the left renal vein, causing an obstruction to venous return and resulting in a varicocele. Therefore, an ultrasound of the kidneys is recommended to assess for any potential malignancy.Ultrasound of the Liver:
In this scenario, an ultrasound of the kidneys would be more useful than an ultrasound of the liver, as renal malignancy is suspected.Ultrasound of the Left Groin:
Signs and symptoms of an inguinal hernia include a bulge in the area on either side of the pubic bone, which becomes more obvious when the patient is upright, especially when coughing or straining. However, there are no signs of hernias on clinical examination in this case.Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the Whole Spine:
MRI of the whole spine is recommended in cases of potential cord compression. However, this is not clinically suspected in this scenario.Reassure:
If a left-sided varicocele does not drain when lying supine, it should be referred for ultrasound to rule out underlying malignancy. The new onset of the varicocele makes this more likely and therefore should be further investigated. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer: Microscopic haematuria
Explanation:Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic
Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:
– Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
– Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
– A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
– A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?Your Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary
Explanation:Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man
Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)