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Question 1
Correct
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A 47 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound that shows a partially echogenic mass with posterior sound attenuation owing to sebaceous material and hair within the cyst cavity. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mature teratoma
Explanation:These are the most common ovarian tumours in young women. The most common form is the mature dermoid cyst (cystic teratoma). It can consist of a combination of all the type of tissues (mesenchymal, stromal and epithelial). Any mature tissue type can be present such as muscle, cartilage, bone, teeth and often hair. Treatment is cystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Continue current treatment for further 6 months
Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins
Explanation:Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months. The second line options are Gonadotrophins or ovarian drilling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Correct
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You are called to assist in an initially midwife led delivery. Upon delivering a female baby you notice the baby has partial fusion of the labioscrotal folds. You suspect congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which of the following genes is most likely to be mutated?
Your Answer: CYP21A
Explanation:CAH leads to virilization of the female foetus. It occurs to an enzyme deficiency (21-hydroxylase). This results in a reduced levels of corticosteroids from being circulated resulting in hyperplasia of the adrenal glands and increased progesterone production. The CYP21A gene has been implicated in causes this deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows invasion of the inguinal lymph nodes. What is this patients 5-year survival?
Your Answer: 15%
Explanation:Lymph node involvement means that the carcinoma is stage 4. The 5 year survival of stage 4 endometrial carcinoma is 16%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Correct
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Malpresentation is one of the main factors leading to increase incidence of C/S
Correct Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum
Explanation:Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation. On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation. Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Ultrasound of uterus
Correct Answer: Amniotomy
Explanation:Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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In pregnancy, the following lung function value remains unchanged:
Your Answer: FEV1
Explanation:The biochemical and mechanical effects of progesterone and the enlarging uterus are responsible for some changes in lung function during pregnancy.
Progesterone increases the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to arterial carbon dioxide while also causing hyperaemia in the airway leading to nasal obstruction. As a result, minute ventilation and tidal volume increase by 50% to allow greater arterial oxygen saturation.
The enlarging uterus displaces the diaphragm upwards, and also limits the movement of the thoracic cage, thereby decreasing the functional residual capacity (FRC) and the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) by 20%.
Functional Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) and Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) remain unchanged in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the results of her recent DEXA scan are. You note her hip BMD hip T-score is -1.4. You note she has a history of olecranon fracture 4 years ago. What is her classification according to WHO criteria?
Your Answer: Osteopenia
Explanation:Her T-score puts her in the osteopenic range. The presence of fragility fractures is more important in the osteoporotic patient. Olecranon fracture is not a typical fragility fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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Question 11
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer: Amniocentesis is associated with 1 in 200 risk of miscarriage
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman presents to the local hospital clinic for her first antenatal visit. She is primigravid at 39 weeks of gestation (exact dates uncertain). She has just arrived from overseas, and no antenatal care had been available in her origin country. On examination, BP is 120/80 mmHg. The fundal height is 30cm above the pubic symphysis. Fetal heart sounds are present at a rate of 144/min. Pelvic examination indicates a long, closed cervix. The baby is noted to be in cephalic presentation. What is the appropriate choice for initial management of this woman?
Your Answer: Ultrasound examination.
Explanation:In this case, the fundus height appears to be smaller than the suggested dates of gestation. However, this is uncertain as the exact gestation dates are not known. Head-sparing intrauterine growth restriction needs to be excluded or managed appropriately if detected.
The best initial management step would be to perform an ultrasound examination (correct answer). This would enable complete assessment of the foetus and all the measurable parameters can be determined. This would aid in identifying any discrepancy in size of the abdomen, limbs and head, and the liquor volume (amniotic fluid index) could be evaluated.
If asymmetrical growth restriction was detected via ultrasound examination, further evaluations such as cardiotocography (CTG) and umbilical arterial wave form analysis by Doppler could be initiated.
Additionally, foetal movement counting could then be commenced and evaluation of foetal lung maturity by amniocentesis could be considered.
If the ultrasound was normal (no evidence of asymmetrical growth restriction, normal amniotic fluid), repeat ultrasound should be performed after two weeks to evaluate the foetal growth.
If normal growth is observed on the repeat ultrasound, the estimated due date can be calculated (assuming normal foetal growth around the 50th percentile for the population).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?
Your Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre
Explanation:Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be:
Your Answer: Foetus with oesophageal-atresia
Explanation:An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be:
Your Answer: Reassurance after thorough examination
Explanation:The correct answer is reassurance after thorough examination. Most breast lesions diagnosed during pregnancy and lactation, even some specific ones such as lactation and adenoma galactocele, are benign. The diagnosis of breast cancer, which is difficult to elucidate and is less common among women who are pregnant or lactating than among those of the same age who are not, continues to be a challenge for clinicians.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Cabergoline
Explanation:Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Correct
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A44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago revealingInvasive squamous cell carcinoma. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist at tertiary hospital
Explanation:If a cervical screening test reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, refer the patient to a gynaecologist at a tertiary hospital right once for further treatment.
Colposcopy at a GP practice is not appropriate in these situations. When it comes to the prospect of cancer, reassurance isn’t enough. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, at 37 weeks of gestation, presents to the emergency department due to sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding of approximately 1200 cc and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. Her pregnancy has been uneventful until the event. On examination, patient is conscious and pale, with a blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and pulse rate of 115 bpm. Abdomen is found to be irregularly distended with shifting dullness and fluid thrill. Fetal heart sounds are not audible. Which among of the following will most likely be her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:The given case where the patient presents with sudden abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contraction and the urge to push along with vaginal bleeding is typical for uterine rupture. Examination shows a decreased or lost fetal heart rate, along with signs of fluid collection including fluid thrill and shifting dullness due to the entry of blood into the peritoneal cavity.
Other common manifestations of uterine rupture include:
– Loss of the station of the fetal presenting part
– Vaginal bleeding which is not be proportionate to the hemodynamic status
-Maternal tachycardia and hypotension ranging from subtle to severer shock
– Uterine tenderness
– Change in uterine shape and contour
– Easily palpable fetal parts
– No fetal presentation on vaginal examination
– Hematuria if the rupture extends to the bladder
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site of spontaneous uterine rupture.Placenta previa usually presents as painless vaginal bleeding, which rules it out as the diagnosis in given case.
Vaginal bleeding with a tender and tense uterus is the presentation in placental abruption, also contrary to uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in case of placental abruption.
Cervical laceration can be a possibility, but in such cases more amount of vaginal blood loss was expected in this patient with hemodynamic instability. Also symptoms like deformed uterus, abdominal distention and cessation of contractions are inconsistent with cervical laceration.
Excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood results in Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) which leads to increased platelets aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors resulting in consequent bleeding at one site and thromboembolism at another. Placental abruption and retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the most common obstetric causes of DIC. The condition will not fit as diagnosis in this clinical scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year. She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations. What's would you do next?
Your Answer: Colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.
As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:
– Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
– Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?
Your Answer: Cerazette®
Explanation:Desogestrel only POPs work mainly by inhibiting ovulation. Cerazette Is the only brand in this list which belongs to this group.
Types of Progesterone Only Pills
1. Traditional (e.g. Femulen®, Micronor®, Norgeston®)
Main mode of action: thickening cervical mucus preventing sperm entry at neck of womb and may also cause anovulation but this effect variable and unreliable
2. Desogestrel (e.g. Cerazette®)
Main mode of action: inhibition of ovulation and also cause thickening of cervical mucus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Correct
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A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below: Pulse rate: 64 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg, Temperature: 36.8°C. On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min. Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia.
Explanation:In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.
An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.
In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.
A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Obturator Nerve
Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve
Explanation:The pudendal nerve arises from the S2-S4 nerve roots and it lies medial to the internal pudendal artery while exiting the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It curves around the sacrospinous ligament and re-enters the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and from there it runs medial to the ischial tuberosity over the obturator internus in the pudendal canal to the deep perineal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30 year old patient attends for non-invasive pre-natal screening for Down's syndrome. You advise her that the result will take the form of a risk score and higher risk results will be offered CVS or amniocentesis. What is the cut-off figure between low and high risk?
Your Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:1 in 150 is the cut off. Where pre-natal screening shows a risk of 1 in 150 or greater invasive testing is typically offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 25
Correct
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A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced periodic stomach pain related with the bleeding, but no fetal product passing, about 6 hours before presentation. She is now in the first trimester of her pregnancy and claims that her previous pregnancy was uneventful. She takes her prenatal vitamins regularly and does not use any other prescriptions or drugs. Her vital signs are normal, and her physical examination reveals that she has a closed cervical os. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Your Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Threatened abortion consists of any vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy without cervical dilatation or change in cervical consistency. Usually, no significant pain exists, although mild cramps may occur. More severe cramps may lead to an inevitable abortion.
Threatened abortion is very common in the first trimester; about 25-30% of all pregnancies have some bleeding during the pregnancy. Less than one half proceed to a complete abortion. On examination, blood or brownish discharge may be present in the vagina. The cervix is not tender, and the cervical os is closed. No fetal tissue or membranes have passed. The ultrasound shows a continuing intrauterine pregnancy. If an ultrasound was not performed previously, it is required at this time to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which could present similarly. If the uterine cavity is empty on ultrasound, obtaining a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is necessary to determine if the discriminatory zone has been passed.
Placenta previa is an antenatal complication occurring around the third trimester of pregnancy. The cervix is closed in this condition which rules out inevitable abortion and the patient has no history of passage of tissue, this rules out complete abortion. The patient has no history of fever or offensive vaginal discharge which makes septic abortion unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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Where is fetal DHEA produced?
Your Answer: Adrenals
Explanation:DHEA is formed in the mother’s adrenal gland as well as the fetal adrenal glands. These weak androgens are transported by the blood to the placenta and are converted into oestradiol, estrone and estriol in the trophoblast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Correct
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A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation. Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?
Your Answer: All of the above
Explanation:Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.
Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.
Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
– Mullerian anomalies
– Placentation
– Uterine leiomyoma
– Prematurity
– Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
– Congenital anomalies
– Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
– Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You see a patient in antenatal clinic who is concerned that she has never had chicken pox and may catch it during pregnancy. You check her Varicella status and she is non-immune. She asks you about vaccination. What type of vaccine is the varicella vaccine?
Your Answer: Inactivated
Correct Answer: Attenuated
Explanation:Varicella is a live vaccine. The recent RCOG green top guidelines suggest vaccine can be considered postpartum or pre pregnancy but NOT whilst pregnant. In the non-immune pregnant woman they should be advised to avoid contact with people with chickenpox or shingles and to contact a healthcare professional promptly if exposed. If they have a significant exposure VZIG should be offered as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 29
Correct
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All of the following are autosomal recessive conditions EXCEPT which one?
Your Answer: Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfect is an autosomal dominant condition. All the rest of the options are autosomal recessive conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal: Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10), Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5), Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350), Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55), Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26). The most likely cause for her presentation is?
Your Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.
Explanation:The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which of the following inhibit Glucagon?
Your Answer: Arginine
Correct Answer: Uraemia
Explanation:Glucagon release is inhibited by increased blood glucose, ketones, free fatty
acids, insulin, raised urea levels and somatostatin. Glucagon is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and increases the plasma glucose level by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Where are ADH (vasopressin) and Oxytocin synthesised?
Your Answer: Adrenal glands
Correct Answer: Hypothalamus
Explanation:ADH and vasopressin are synthesized in the supraoptic and periventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, they are eventually transported to the posterior pituitary where they are stored to be released later.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 34
Correct
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Rapid metabolism of heparin in the mother minimises placental transfer to the foetus.
Correct Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.
Explanation:Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 36
Correct
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Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?
Your Answer: Uterine arteries
Explanation:The ovarian arteries, arising from the abdominal aorta and the ascending uterine arteries which are branches of the internal iliac artery all supply the ovaries. They terminate by bifurcating into the ovarian and tubal branches and anastomose with the contralateral branches providing a collateral circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 37
Correct
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A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy. Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.
Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 38
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved completely with the onset of menstruation. Which of the following suggests an appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome
Explanation:This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
Affective and somatic symptoms over the five days before menses in each of the three previous menstrual cycles are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
Affective symptoms include:
– Depression.
– Anger outbursts.
– Irritability.
– Anxiety.
– Confusion.
– social withdrawal.
Somatic symptoms include:
– breast tenderness
– abdominal bloating
– headache and swelling of extremities.
Symptoms normally disappear within four days of menstruation and are present even when no medical therapy, drugs, or alcohol are used.Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent crying, loss of interest in daily activities, reduced focus, exhaustion, sleeplessness, and a sense of being overwhelmed or out of control.
Symptoms must have been present for the majority of the previous 12 months, interfering with daily activities.The diagnoses of generalised anxiety disorder and depression alone are doubtful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 39
Correct
-
A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby. Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?
Your Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided
Explanation:Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Correct
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The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin gestation is:
Your Answer: Preterm delivery
Explanation:Twin pregnancy is associated with a number of obstetric complications, some of them with serious perinatal consequences, especially for the second twin. The rate of perinatal mortality can be up to six times higher in twin compared to singleton pregnancies, largely due to higher rates of preterm delivery and fetal growth restriction seen in twin pregnancies. Preterm birth and birth weight are also significant determinants of morbidity and mortality into infancy and childhood. More than 50% of twins and almost all triplets are born before 37 weeks of gestation and about 15–20% of admissions to neonatal units are associated with preterm twins and triplets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 41
Correct
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A couple comes to your clinic because they haven't been able to conceive despite having had frequent sexual activity in the previous 12 months. The female partner is 35 years old and has regular menstrual cycles. The male partner is 38years old and otherwise normal. Which of the following studies would you do next to forecast ovulation?
Your Answer: Serum progesterone
Explanation:This patient has a regular and long menstrual period. The most crucial thing in this case is to rule out anovulation.
Serum progesterone concentration is the best test for detecting ovulation.
Ovulation has occurred if the level is greater than 20nmol/L.
This test should be performed 3 to 10 days prior to the start of the next anticipated period. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts of thick mucoid material is found to be draining out of a large cervical erosion. She has had regular pap smears since 16 years of age, which have all been normal. Her last smear was done 4 months prior. What is the best next step in her management?
Your Answer: Reassure her no treatment is required.
Correct Answer: Cauterisation of the cervix.
Explanation:The best next step in management would be to remove the cervical ectropion using cautery. This would usually be performed under anaesthesia. It can take up to a month to heal following the procedure. Vaginal pessaries and antibiotics are typically not effective.
Indications for a cone biopsy include an abnormal pap smear, lesion suspected to be a CIN on colposcopic examination that cannot be fully visualised as well if there is a histological discrepancy between the smear and biopsy. Colposcopic examination is also unnecessary at this stage since she has not complained of any abnormal per vaginal bleed nor is her last pap smear abnormal.
Since the discharge is now affecting the patient’s life, treatment should be given so reassuring her that no treatment is needed is not appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 43
Correct
-
You see a patient on the ward who is acutely short of breath and perform an ABG. The results are as follows
Your Answer: Respiratory Acidosis
Explanation:This patient has acidosis as the pH is low <7.35 The pO2 is irrelevant. The pCO2 is raised i.e. the respiratory system is causing acidosis. The patient is acidotic so this is a respiratory acidosis The Base Excess is normal. You would typically expect the base excess to rise but metabolic compensation is slower than respiratory compensation so this picture may be seen acutely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 44
Correct
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A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen when a warning sign occurs. Which of the following is considered the single most important warning sign for the said situation?
Your Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a cumulative blood loss greater than 1000 mL with signs and symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours of the birth process, regardless of the route of delivery.
The first step in managing hemorrhagic shock is recognition. This should occur before the development of hypotension. Close attention should be paid to physiological responses to low blood volume. Tachycardia, tachypnoea, and narrowing pulse pressure may be the initial signs.
Tachycardia is typically the first abnormal vital sign of hemorrhagic shock. As the body attempts to preserve oxygen delivery to the brain and heart, blood is shunted away from extremities and nonvital organs. This causes cold and modelled extremities with delayed capillary refill. This shunting ultimately leads to worsening acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 45
Correct
-
You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?
Your Answer: 2nd
Explanation:If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 46
Correct
-
An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?
Your Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.
Explanation:When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.
Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.
The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.
The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
Which pharyngeal arch is closest to the head of the embryo?
Your Answer: 2nd
Correct Answer: 1st
Explanation:The arches are numbered according to their proximity to the head i.e. the 1st is the closest to the head end of the embryo and the 6th closest to the tail end as shown by the diagram below the table
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been stable on sodium valproate. Despite your full explanations about the risks of the teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs, she insists she wants to be a mother and asks you to guide her. Among the following which would be the most appropriate advice to give this patient?
Your Answer: Switch to lamotrigine
Correct Answer: Continue sodium valproate
Explanation:As they respond differently to different drugs, a thorough distinguishing must be done between the two major groups of epilepsies while approaching a woman, who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs.
Partial epilepsies will respond to most of the antiepileptic drugs, but in case of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled only with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful but substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice. This is because lamotrigine is not as effective as sodium valproate and will sometimes worsens myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
Topiramate and levetiracetam are found to be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsy, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially in myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there will be no effective alternative to sodium valproate as cessation of sodium valproate will lead to recurrence of the generalized seizures, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Hence, it is not advisable to discontinue the drug in auch patients.
On the other hand, sodium valproate have the highest reported teratogenicity potential among antiepileptic drugs and the Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% if used in first trimester. Sodium valproate should be avoided in women of reproductive age and if a patient on the medication is willing to become pregnant, she should be well informed about the risk of teratogenicity and the decision must be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and continue with pregnancy, the lowest possible effective dose should be prescribed to her.
If the dose of sodium valproate has been reduced to minimum during pregnancy to reduce the possible teratogenesis, it is recommended to re-establish the prepartum effective dose before the onset of labor. This is because, it is the time with increased risk for seizures, especially in patients with idiopathic generalised epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation. Valproate therapy is found to be safe during breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?
Your Answer: Bulbospongiosus muscle
Correct Answer: Proximal portion of urethra
Explanation:The deep perineal pouch contains the external urethral sphincter, proximal urethra in females and membranous urethra in males, deep transverse perineal muscles and the glands of cowper.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 50
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding heart rate in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Heart rate increases by 15 beats per minute
Explanation:During the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, cardiac output increases by about 30-50%. To maintain this increase, systemic vascular resistance decreases by 20-30%, while stroke volume and the heart rate increase by 25-30% and 15 beats per minute respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
A patient is diagnosed with cervical cancer and staging investigations show there is parametrial involvement but it is confined within the pelvic wall and does not involve the lower 1/3 vagina. There is no evidence of hydronephrosis. What FIGO stage is this?
Your Answer: 2A
Correct Answer: 2B
Explanation:This is stage 2B.
2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
0 – Carcinoma in situ
1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension 2 Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
2B – Parametrial involvement
3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
4B – Distant Metastasis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 52
Correct
-
All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which one?
Your Answer: High Coffee Consumption
Explanation:The risk factors for uterine carcinoma include obesity, diabetes, Nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of ovarian or uterine carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 53
Correct
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Question 54
Correct
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A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening. For the past year, she has been on combination hormone replacement treatment (HRT). Mammography is the sole accessible form of breast cancer screening, and she is predicted to have dense breast tissue due to HRT. Which of the following is the best HRT and breast cancer screening suggestion for this patient?
Your Answer: Continue HRT and perform mammography as recommended for other women
Explanation:Among a variety of imaging modalities developed for breast cancer screening, mammography is the best-studied and the only imaging technique that has been shown to decrease mortality as demonstrated in multiple randomized trials. However, it is important to know that, even in the best circumstances, mammography may miss up to 20 percent of underlying breast cancers.
Women on HRT are likely to have dense breast. Dense breasts are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and can decrease the sensitivity of mammography for small lesions. Nevertheless, we do not alter our general approach to age- and risk-based screening based on breast density. However, for women with dense breasts, we do prefer digital mammography over film mammography, due to greater sensitivity; digital mammography is the modality typically used for mammography in most locations in the United States.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her. Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?
Your Answer: Serum prolactin.
Correct Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Explanation:The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.
To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.
If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 29 year old patient presents due to the sensation of reduced fetal movements (RFM). From what gestation is CTG assessment of RFM advised?
Your Answer: 24+0 weeks
Correct Answer: 28+0 weeks
Explanation:The cardiotocograph (CTG) is a continuous tracing of the fetal heart rate used to assess fetal wellbeing. The Doppler effect detects fetal heart motion and allows the interval between successive beats to be measured, thereby allowing a continuous assessment of fetal heart rate. The mother perceives the fetal movement by the 18-20 week of gestation and these increase until the 32 week. A mother should under go CTG if the fetal movements are reduced by the 28 week of gestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
All of the following are features of the female bony pelvis, except?
Your Answer: Has a transverse diameter of the inlet greater than the antero-posterior diameter
Correct Answer: It is funnel shaped
Explanation:The female bony pelvis is larger, broader and more of a funnel shape. The inlet is larger and oval in shape and the sides of the female pelvis are wider apart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 58
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer: Without dating ultrasound, second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 65%.
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 59
Correct
-
According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?
Your Answer: Folic Acid
Explanation:Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 60
Correct
-
At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills. Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?
Your Answer: Cervical cancer
Explanation:Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 61
Correct
-
Hypoplasia & yellow discoloration of the primary teeth has occurred in infants whose pregnant mothers were treated with which drug:
Your Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation:Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that crosses placental barrier. Tetracycline was the first line of therapy in treating infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, chlamydia, rickettsia, and some spirochaetes. It has a wide range of adverse effects and is known for a unique property of being incorporated into skeletal and dental tissues at sites of active mineralization and staining of these tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 62
Correct
-
The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?
Your Answer: Ilium
Explanation:The arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium just inferior to the iliac fossa. It forms the boundary of the pelvic inlet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 63
Correct
-
A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She complains of migraine two to three times a month for the last 6 months. What should be best appropriate advice to her?
Your Answer: Stop combined oral contraceptive pills and prescribe progestogen only pills
Explanation:While on combination oral contraceptive tablets, this patient had a migraine. After a conversation about adverse effects, stop the combo medications and prescribe her progestogen-only pills.
The following are reasons why progestogen-only pills should be your first choice:
1-Age of 45 or more years
2-Smokers who are 45 years old or older
3-Oestrogen contraindications
4-Melitus Diabetes
5-A headache (combined oral contraceptive pills have absolute contraindication)
6-Hypertension under control
7-Lactation
8-Chloasma.Pregnancy, undetected genital tract bleeding, and concurrent use of enzyme-inducing medications are all contraindications to using progestogen-only pills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
High levels of alpha feto protein are found in all, EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Intrauterine fetal distress
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels elevated: Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly); Omphalocele; Gastroschisis.
Pregnant maternal serum AFP low levels: Down syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 46-year-old woman complains of ulceration with bloody discharge around her right nipple accompanied by redness, excoriations, and severe itchiness. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibrocystic dysplasia
Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of the breast
Explanation:Paget’s disease of the breast is a type of cancer that outwardly may have the appearance of eczema, with skin changes involving the nipple of the breast. Symptoms may include redness of the nipple skin and crusting may occur around the area. In more advance cases, symptoms may include itching or a burning pain in the nipple.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised
Your Answer: 24-28 weeks of pregnancy if past history of GD
Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justified to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specificity for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. The women should be tested as soon as possible after booking if there is a history of GD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 67
Correct
-
The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?
Your Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses
Explanation:Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.
There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.
An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.
Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 68
Correct
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Question 69
Correct
-
Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7
Your Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy
Explanation:The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 70
Correct
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All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 26 year old patient known to have Group B Streptococcus (GBS) on vaginal swab is going into labour. A normal vaginal delivery is planned. She is penicillin allergic with a history of anaphylaxis. What intrapartum antibiotic treatment is advised?
Your Answer: IV Clindamycin 900 mg 8 hourly
Correct Answer: IV Vancomycin 1g 12 hourly
Explanation:In a person who is infected by streptococcus (Group B) should be started on benzylpenicillin as soon as possible. In case of allergy vancomycin should be started at 1g every 12 hours. Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm ulcerated, indurated lesion on her cervix. She was otherwise asymptomatic. Most likely cause would be?
Your Answer: Herpes Simplex Type 1
Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum
Explanation:This lady is most likely suffering from primary syphilis. Since the chancre is asymptomatic, it is often only found on deep examination of the vulvo-vaginal mucosa. The chief organism causing syphilis is Treponema Pallidum which is a spirochete and one of the most widely distributed sexually transmitted infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
Regarding fertilization & implantation:
Your Answer: The trophoblast invades the endometrium & differentiate into an outer cytotrophoblast & an inner cyncytiotrophoblast
Correct Answer: The sperm head penetrates through the corona radiata & zona pellucida while the tail remains outside
Explanation:During fertilization, a sperm must first fuse with the plasma membrane and then penetrate the female egg cell to fertilize it. Fusing to the egg cell usually causes little problem, whereas penetrating through the egg’s hard shell or extracellular matrix can be more difficult. Therefore, sperm cells go through a process known as the acrosome reaction, which is the reaction that occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as it approaches the egg. The acrosome is a cap-like structure over the anterior half of the sperm’s head. Upon penetration, if all is normally occurring, the process of egg-activation occurs, and the oocyte is said to have become activated. This is thought to be induced by a specific protein phospholipase c zeta. It undergoes its secondary meiotic division, and the two haploid nuclei (paternal and maternal) fuse to form a zygote. To prevent polyspermy and minimize the possibility of producing a triploid zygote, several changes to the egg’s cell membranes render them impenetrable shortly after the first sperm enters the egg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Treatment with acyclovir will reduce the rate of recurrent disease but is contraindicated in pregnancy because of adverse effects on the foetus.
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 75
Correct
-
A mother typically becomes aware of fetal movements at what gestation?
Your Answer: 18-20 weeks
Explanation:Foetal movements often become apparent at about 18-20 weeks gestation. This phenomenon is also called quickening. The Foetal movements continue to increase in frequency and force until 32 weeks where they plateau. Foetal movements can be used to monitor the wellbeing of the foetus, alerting the mother and healthcare providers to a problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 76
Correct
-
The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12 to 13. What HPV subtypes are vaccinated against with the vaccine Gardasil®?
Your Answer: 6, 11, 16, and 18
Explanation:HPV Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18. HPV types16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A patient with amenorrhoea is seen in clinic. History and examination reveal the patient runs 10-20 miles every day and her BMI is 17.8. Which of the following is likely to explain her symptoms?
Your Answer: WHO type II Ovulation Disorders
Correct Answer: WHO type I Ovulation Disorders
Explanation:World Health Organization (WHO) Group I ovulation disorder is due to hypothalamic pituitary failure. This is sometimes termed hypothalamic amenorrhoea or hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Women can improve frequency of ovulation, conception and an uncomplicated pregnancy by increasing their body weight (if BMI of <19) and/or moderating their exercise levels (if they undertake high levels of exercise). GnRH and LH may be administered in these patients. PCOS falls under type II ovulation disorders. WHO Group III ovulation disorder is due to ovarian failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 78
Correct
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You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows no identifiable fetal tissue or gestational sac and you note the radiologist has reported a 'bunch of grapes sign'. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete molar pregnancy
Explanation:Gestational trophoblastic disorder is abnormal conception that is characterised by swollen and oedematous villi with proliferation of the trophoblasts. In a complete mole there is absence of fetal tissue, there is diffuse proliferation of trophoblastic tissue around hydropic villi and on USG it appears as a bunch of grapes or snow storm appearance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A patient undergoes surgery for a vaginal vault prolapse. After surgery she complains of numbness of the anterior aspect of the labia. Which nerve has likely been damaged during surgery?
Your Answer: Genitofemoral
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:The anterior aspect of the vulva (mons pubis, anterior labia) is supplied by derivatives of the lumbar plexus: the anterior labial nerves, derived from the
ilio-inguinal nerve, and the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve.
The posterior aspect of the vulva is supplied by derivatives of the sacral plexus: the perineal branch of the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh laterally, and the pudendal nerve centrally. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 80
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding. Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago. What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?
Your Answer: A cervical ectropion
Explanation:The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.
Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.
These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 81
Correct
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Evidence from a panel of experts is what level of evidence
Your Answer: IV
Explanation:Level I: Evidence obtained from at least one properly designed randomized controlled trial. Level II-1: Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trials without randomization. Level II-2: Evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytic studies, preferably from more than one centre or research group. Level II-3: Evidence obtained from multiple time series designs with or without the intervention. Dramatic results in uncontrolled trials might also be regarded as this type of evidence. Level III: Opinions of respected authorities, based on clinical experience, descriptive studies, or reports of expert committees.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 82
Correct
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In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:
Your Answer: 2 days
Explanation:During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 83
Correct
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When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial spines, this level is known as?
Your Answer: Station 0
Explanation:Station 0 – This is when the baby’s head is even with the ischial spines. The baby is said to be engaged when the largest part of the head has entered the pelvis.
If the presenting part lies above the ischial spines, the station is reported as a negative number from -1 to -5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 84
Correct
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What is the typical weight of a term uterus?
Your Answer: 1200g
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: < 5 cm
Correct Answer:
Explanation:An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 86
Incorrect
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In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: White blood cells
Correct Answer: Peripheral resistance
Explanation:The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizzinessA pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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An HIV positive woman who is 18 weeks pregnant complains of frothy yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. A wet mount and microscopy confirms a Trichomonas vaginalis infection. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg BD 5 days
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 500mg BD 7 days
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis for a HIV positive woman who is pregnant is 500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 88
Incorrect
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You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile are consistent with PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?
Your Answer: Weight loss
Correct Answer: Clomiphene
Explanation:Clomiphene and/or Metformin are 1st line agents. Weight loss in the setting of subfertility is advised if BMI >30 kg/m2
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 woman, at her 36 weeks of gestation, is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to a seizure. Patient was sitting outside when she suddenly had a 2-minute seizure with loss of urinary continence and is still confused when she arrived at the emergency department.Her mother reports that the patient had severe anxiety and had been acting out for the past several days.Her only surgery was a splenectomy after a motor vehicle collision last year. On physical examination patient's temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F), blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 120/min.Patient seems agitated and diaphoretic with bilaterally dilated pupils. On systemic examination: Cranial nerves are intact, neck is supple and nontender. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is gravid without any rebound or guarding and the uterus is nontender. There is 2+ pitting pedal edema bilaterally. Sensations and strength are normal in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. Laboratory results are as follows: a) Complete blood count shows - Hematocrit: 33%, - Platelets: 140,000/mm3, - Leukocytes: 13,000/mm3. b) Serum chemistry - Sodium: 124 mmol/L, - Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L, - Chloride: 96 mmol/L, - Bicarbonate: 21 mmol/L, - Blood urea nitrogen: 6.43 umol/L, - Creatinine: 70.7 umol/L, - Glucose: 4.4 mmol/L. Urinalysis - Protein: none, - Ketones: present. CT scan of the head is normal. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Eclampsia
Correct Answer: Amphetamine intoxication
Explanation:This patient at 36 weeks of gestation likely had a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. A new-onset seizures in pregnancy can be due to either due to eclampsia which is pregnancy-specific or due to other non-obstetric causes like meningitis, intracranial bleeding etc.
In pregnant and postpartum women eclampsia is the most common cause for seizures which is classically associated with preeclampsia, a new-onset hypertension at ≥20 weeks gestation, with proteinuria and/or signs of end-organ damage. Although this patient has hypertension, absence of proteinuria and the additional findings like agitation, dilated pupils, hyponatremia and normal head CT scan are suggestive of another etiology. Patients with eclampsia will show white matter edema in head CT scan.
Amphetamine intoxication, which causes overstimulation of the alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in tachycardia, hypertension and occasional hyperthermia, might be the cause for this patient’s seizures. Some patients will also have diaphoresis and minimally reactive, dilated pupils and severe intoxication can lead to electrolyte abnormalities, including significant hyponatremia (possibly serotonin-mediated) and resultant seizure activity.
Confirmation of Amphetamine intoxication can be done by a urine drug testing. it is essential to distinguishing between eclampsia and other causes of seizure in this case, as it will help to determine whether or not there is need for an emergency delivery.Altered mental status and electrolyte abnormalities can be due to heat stroke, however, patients affected this way will have an elevated temperature of >40 C /104 F associated with hemodynamic instabilities like hypotension.
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count (HELLP) syndrome is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy which can result in seizures (ie, eclampsia), but this patient’s hematocrit level is normal without any hemolysis, also patients with HELLP syndrome typically presents with a platelet count <100,000/mm3. Seizures and altered mental status in patients with prior splenectomy can be due to pneumococcal meningitis however, such patients will present with high fever and nuchal rigidity, making this diagnosis less likely in the given case. Amphetamine intoxication can present with hypertension, agitation, diaphoresis, dilated pupils, and a generalized tonic-clonic seizure due to hyponatremia, which is most likely to be the case here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 90
Correct
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During wound healing collagen alignment along tension lines is part of which phase?
Your Answer: Remodelling
Explanation:Realignment of collagen is part of the remodelling phase. Remodelling is usually underway by week 3. Maximum tensile wound strength is typically achieved by week 12.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 91
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with complaints of fishy, thin, white homogeneous vaginal discharge accompanied with an offensive odour. The presence of clue cells was noted during a microscopic test on the discharge. All of the following statements are considered false regarding her condition, except:
Your Answer: Relapse rate > 50 percent within 3 months
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) affects women of reproductive age and can either be symptomatic or asymptomatic. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. Most commonly, this presents clinically with increased vaginal discharge that has a fish-like odour. The discharge itself is typically thin and either grey or white.
Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection, women have an increased risk of acquiring other sexually transmitted infections (STI), and pregnant women have an increased risk of early delivery.
Though effective treatment options do exist, metronidazole or clindamycin, these methods have proven not to be effective long term.
BV recurrence rates are high, approximately 80% three months after effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 92
Correct
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What is the male infertility rate in CF patients?
Your Answer: 98%
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is the most common fetal genetic disease in Caucasians and has an autosomal recessive inheritance. It is caused by an abnormal chloride channel due to a defect in the CFTR gene. Complications range from haemoptysis, respiratory failure, biliary cirrhosis, diabetes and male infertility. Men with CF are infertile in 98% of the cases due to failure of development of the vas deference.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 93
Correct
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Question 94
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?
Your Answer: Phenotypically they are female but with undeveloped breasts
Correct Answer: They have no uterus
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 95
Correct
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Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Oxytocin
Explanation:Nipple stimulation during breastfeeding triggers the production of oxytocin from the hypothalamus and its subsequent release from the posterior pituitary gland. The hormone causes the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract causing milk to flow through the ducts.
Ergometrine and Prostaglandin E2 are used during labour to control uterine bleeding after delivery, or ripen the cervix, while Atosiban is an oxytocin antagonist.
Antidiuretic hormone is also released from the posterior pituitary, and acts on the kidneys to decrease fluid excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 96
Correct
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Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways?
Your Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release
Explanation:Oxytocin acts via the G protein receptors and the calcium-calmodulin complex. It activates phospholipase C which produces IP3 to further trigger the calcium-calmodulin complex increasing intracellular Ca ion release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 25mm
Correct Answer: 6mm
Explanation:The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 99
Correct
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The lower part of the rectum is supplied by the middle rectal artery. What is the middle rectal artery a branch of?
Your Answer: Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The middle rectal artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 100
Correct
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Which of the following tests for the detection of chlamydia is considered the gold standard?
Your Answer: Nucleic Acid Amplification Test
Explanation:Chlamydia is one of the most prevalent STIs in the UK. Many infected individuals can be asymptomatic making it difficult to detect. The gold standard in the diagnosis of Chlamydia is the nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT). A sample is taken from a vulvovaginal self swab, or a cervical swab on speculum examination in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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