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  • Question 1 - Which of the following symptoms is not associated with acute or subacute lead...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is not associated with acute or subacute lead poisoning in infants?

      Your Answer: Abdominal colic

      Correct Answer: Blue line on the gums

      Explanation:

      Lead Poisoning in Infancy

      Lead poisoning in infancy can cause various symptoms such as anaemia, pica, abdominal colic, and encephalopathy. However, the blue line on the gingival margin, which is a characteristic feature of very chronic lead poisoning, is unlikely to occur in infants. Lead poisoning can lead to anaemia due to erythroid hypoplasia and/or haemolysis. Pica and abdominal colic are common symptoms of lead poisoning in infants, while encephalopathy is only seen in severe cases. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if lead poisoning is suspected in infants. Proper management and treatment can prevent further complications and ensure the child’s well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - You are requested to assess a 38-week-gestation boy in the postnatal ward who...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 38-week-gestation boy in the postnatal ward who is now 36-hours-old. The baby was delivered via forceps and has noticeable facial bruising. He is being formula-fed and is progressing well in the postnatal period except for an elevated transcutaneous bilirubin measurement. What could be the probable reason for the raised bilirubin level in this newborn?

      Your Answer: Bruising

      Explanation:

      Elevated bilirubin levels can result from bruising during birth, which causes hemolysis. Bruising in the neonatal stage can also lead to increased bilirubin levels due to the breakdown of haemoglobin. Preterm babies and those who are breastfed are more likely to develop jaundice. The baby’s medical history and examination do not indicate any signs of infection. Jaundice is not associated with being male.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned...

    Correct

    • A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.

      Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.

      Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.

      A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A toddler is brought to the emergency department after a near-drowning incident in...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to the emergency department after a near-drowning incident in a swimming pool. The child is unresponsive and requires intubation for airway management. Upon examination, the child is found to have global hypotonia and abnormal reflexes, indicating possible hypoxic brain injury. What is the most crucial intervention for this child?

      Your Answer: A sodium bicarbonate correction

      Correct Answer: Therapeutic cooling

      Explanation:

      The most important intervention for reducing the likelihood of significant hypoxic-ischaemic brain injury in neonates with poor neurological status following a traumatic delivery and acidosis is therapeutic cooling at 33-35 degrees. This approach attempts to prevent severe brain damage. The use of sodium bicarbonate correction, blood transfusion, skin to skin contact with mum, and vitamin K are not essential or effective in reducing brain damage from hypoxic injury.

      Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury

      Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.

      The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.

      Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby was delivered via emergency Caesarean section to a 17-year-old mother who had not received adequate antenatal care. The mother had a history of significant tobacco and alcohol use. During examination, it was observed that the baby had intestinal loops protruding through a hole on the left side of the umbilicus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Correct Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Socioeconomic deprivation, maternal alcohol/tobacco use, and maternal age under 20 are all associated with gastroschisis.

      While gastroschisis and omphalocele have similar presentations, gastroschisis refers to a defect located to the side of the umbilicus, while omphalocele refers to a defect in the umbilicus itself.

      Foetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by a small head, flattened philtrum, and thin upper lip.

      Anencephaly is a neural tube defect that results in the absence of the brain, skull, and scalp.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old primigravida is scheduled for induction at 38 weeks due to intrauterine growth restriction. Following a brief labor, a baby girl is born vaginally. The infant has a low birth weight and is diagnosed with microcephaly, moderate hepatosplenomegaly, and a petechial rash upon examination. She experiences a seizure shortly after being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy, has no medical history, takes no medications, and has received all of her vaccinations. What infection is the baby likely to have been exposed to in utero?

      Your Answer: Varicella Zoster

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Hepatomegaly is a possible but uncommon finding in infants with haemolytic anaemia, but microcephaly and seizures would not be expected. Congenital rubella syndrome can occur if the mother contracts rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy, and may present with low birth weight, microcephaly, seizures, and a purpuric rash. However, the classic triad of symptoms includes sensorineural deafness, eye abnormalities, and congenital heart disease, which are not present in this case. Additionally, if the mother has been fully vaccinated against rubella, CMV is a more likely diagnosis. Congenital varicella syndrome can occur if the mother is not immune to varicella-zoster and is infected during the first or second trimester, and may present with microcephaly and seizures, as well as hypertrophic scars, limb defects, and ocular defects. However, there is no history of the mother developing chickenpox during pregnancy, making this diagnosis unlikely.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three major congenital infections that are commonly encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections has characteristic features that can help with diagnosis. Rubella can cause congenital cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease, among other things. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, cerebral palsy, and visual impairment, among other things. Cytomegalovirus can cause microcephaly, cerebral calcification, and chorioretinitis, among other things.

      It is important to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent or minimize health problems for the newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the Urgent Paediatric Clinic with a urinary tract infection (UTI) that was treated in the community. He was born at term and has been healthy throughout infancy, without previous history of UTI. There is no significant family history. The child's development is appropriate for his age and there have been no concerns about his growth. The antibiotics took effect after 4 days and he is currently doing well. Physical examination, including vital signs, is unremarkable. The child's height and weight are both at the 50th percentile. The microbiology results confirm a UTI caused by Enterococcus. What is the most suitable imaging approach that should have been taken/ordered?

      Your Answer: Urgent USS followed by DMSA; perform MCUG also if significant abnormality on USS

      Correct Answer: Urgent USS during the acute infection with routine DMSA and MCUG

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Imaging in Atypical UTIs in Children

      When a child presents with an atypical urinary tract infection (UTI), imaging is necessary to identify any structural abnormalities in the urinary tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines provide recommendations for imaging based on the age of the child and the severity of the infection.

      For children under 6 months of age with an atypical UTI, an urgent ultrasound scan (USS) is required during the acute infection. Once the infection has resolved, a routine dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan and a micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG) are performed 4-6 months later.

      For children older than 6 months with recurrent UTIs, a routine USS and DMSA scan plus MCUG are recommended. However, for children aged 6 months to 3 years with an atypical UTI, an urgent USS followed by a routine DMSA is sufficient. An MCUG is only performed if there is any dilation identified on USS, poor urine flow, family history of vesico-ureteric reflux, or a non-E. coli infection.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate imaging and management of atypical UTIs in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      53
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has just had her 34 week check. The patient reported reduced fetal movements 3 days ago, but they are now back to normal. An ultrasound was performed to investigate any potential issues. The obstetrician informs her that a defect in the abdominal wall has been detected and the baby's intestines are outside the body but enclosed in a membrane. Despite this, the baby is healthy. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue with a natural vaginal delivery

      Correct Answer: Plan a caesarean section at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      If the unborn baby has exomphalos, it is recommended to opt for a caesarean section to minimize the chances of sac rupture. The presence of a membrane containing the abdominal content suggests that the baby is likely to have exomphalos. While vaginal delivery is possible, a caesarean section is the safest delivery option. There is no need for an emergency caesarean section as the baby is not experiencing any distress. Inducing labor for vaginal delivery is not advisable, and a caesarean section is a better option. Additionally, IM corticosteroids are not necessary as there is no risk of premature delivery at present. These steroids are typically used when women are at risk of or experience premature labor.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl visits her GP with worries about not having started her menstrual cycle yet. Apart from that, she feels healthy. During the examination, she appears to be of average height and has developed breasts, but has minimal pubic hair growth. The doctor can feel two lumps in her groin area upon examination of her abdomen. Her external genitalia seem normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kallmann syndrome

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with androgen insensitivity, which is a genetic condition where individuals with XY chromosomes have female physical characteristics due to a lack of testosterone receptors in their tissues. This disorder is X-linked and often results in undescended testes. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is unlikely as it typically causes early puberty and virilization, while Kallmann syndrome does not explain the presence of groin masses. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results in secondary amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea and is accompanied by other symptoms such as acne and hirsutism. Turner’s syndrome, which causes primary amenorrhea, is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, heart defects, and abnormal breast development, and does not involve undescended testes.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old boy is presented to the clinic by his mother who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is presented to the clinic by his mother who has observed a tiny lesion at the outer corner of his eye. During the examination, a small cystic structure is noticed which appears to have been recently infected. Upon removing the scab, hair is visible within the lesion. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epidermoid cyst

      Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst

      Explanation:

      Dermoid cysts typically develop in children and are found at locations where embryonic fusion occurred. These cysts can contain various types of cells. It is improbable that the growth in question is a desmoid cyst, as they rarely occur in this age group or at this location, and do not contain hair. Sebaceous cysts usually have a small opening and contain a cheesy substance, while epidermoid cysts contain keratin plugs.

      Dermoid Cysts vs. Desmoid Tumours

      Dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours are two distinct medical conditions that should not be confused with each other. Dermoid cysts are cutaneous growths that usually appear in areas where embryonic development has occurred. They are commonly found in the midline of the neck, behind the ear, and around the eyes. Dermoid cysts are characterized by multiple inclusions, such as hair follicles, that protrude from their walls. In contrast, desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be classified as low-grade fibrosarcomas. They often present as large infiltrative masses and can be found in different parts of the body.

      Desmoid tumours can be divided into three types: abdominal, extra-abdominal, and intra-abdominal. All types share the same biological features and can be challenging to treat. Extra-abdominal desmoids are equally common in both sexes and usually develop in the musculature of the shoulder, chest wall, back, and thigh. Abdominal desmoids, on the other hand, tend to arise in the musculoaponeurotic structures of the abdominal wall. Intra-abdominal desmoids are more likely to occur in the mesentery or pelvic side walls and are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli syndrome.

      In summary, while dermoid cysts and desmoid tumours may sound similar, they are entirely different conditions. Dermoid cysts are benign growths that usually occur in specific areas of the body, while desmoid tumours are aggressive fibrous tumours that can be found in different parts of the body and can be challenging to treat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - You are tasked with conducting a neonatal examination for a 39-week gestation infant...

    Correct

    • You are tasked with conducting a neonatal examination for a 39-week gestation infant born to South Asian parents. The parents have plans to visit Bangladesh within the next 5 months to visit family. Apart from the routine vaccinations recommended for all UK children on the immunisation schedule, are there any other vaccines you would suggest for their baby?

      Your Answer: BCG vaccine

      Explanation:

      The BCG vaccine for TB should be provided to infants who have a family history of TB or come from regions/countries with a high risk of TB (as defined by WHO as having more than 40 cases per 100,000). This recommendation applies to babies up to one year old.

      Immunisation is the process of administering vaccines to protect individuals from infectious diseases. The Department of Health has provided guidance on the safe administration of vaccines in its publication ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’ in 2006. The guidance outlines general contraindications to immunisation, such as confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or another component contained in the relevant vaccine. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection. Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression.

      Specific vaccines may have their own contraindications, such as deferring DTP vaccination in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition. However, there are no contraindications to immunisation for individuals with asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), or a family history of autism. Additionally, previous natural infections with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella do not preclude immunisation. Other factors such as neurological conditions like Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids (e.g. CAH) also do not contraindicate immunisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 9-week-old boy is presented to his GP by his parents who are...

    Correct

    • A 9-week-old boy is presented to his GP by his parents who are concerned about an undescended testis. The patient was born at term following an uncomplicated pregnancy and birth and has been healthy since birth. On examination, the left testicle is not palpable in the scrotal sac and is unretractable, while the right testicle has fully descended. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Review in 1 month

      Explanation:

      If a male child’s testes have not descended by 3 months of age, it is important to refer them for further evaluation. In the case of a 2-month-old child with a unilateral undescended testicle, the appropriate course of action is to review the situation again in 1 month. It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition as undescended testes can increase the risk of testicular cancer and infertility. While there is a chance that the testicle may descend on its own, it is important to ensure that it does so. Reassurance without follow-up would not be appropriate in this case. If the child were over 3 months of age, a routine referral would be necessary, but in this scenario, the child is only 2 months old. An urgent referral is not necessary at this stage. Waiting until the child is 1 year old to review the case would be inappropriate. If the testicle remains undescended by 3 months of age, the child should be referred to paediatric surgery for orchidopexy by 18 months of age.

      Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management

      Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.

      To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.

      For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 4 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. In boys with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. In boys with this condition, where is the urethral opening most commonly located?

      Your Answer: On the distal dorsal surface of the penis

      Correct Answer: On the distal ventral surface of the penis

      Explanation:

      The anomaly is typically situated on the underside and frequently towards the end. Urethral openings found closer to the body are a known occurrence. Surgical removal of the foreskin may hinder the process of repairing the defect.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when...

    Correct

    • You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when you are called to assess a 16-month-old toddler presenting with a runny nose, dry cough, increased respiratory effort, and an elevated respiratory rate. Upon examination, you note a mild generalised wheeze, along with fever and feeding difficulties. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions in Children: Understanding the Differences

      Bronchiolitis, Pneumonia, Asthma, Viral Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), and Croup are all respiratory conditions that can affect children. However, it is important to understand the differences between them in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory condition caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) that mostly affects children under 18 months old. It presents with coryzal symptoms before progressing to dyspnoea, cough, and fever. Difficulty feeding may occur due to dyspnoea, but most cases do not require admission.

      Pneumonia, on the other hand, is likely to present with a toxic child due to the bacteraemia. Localising signs such as dullness to percussion over the affected lobe may also be present.

      Asthma, which causes wheezing, would not cause fever. It is also important to note that the diagnosis of asthma should be avoided in patients below the age of 5.

      A viral URTI confined to the upper respiratory tract would not cause wheezing or significant respiratory compromise as described in the case history.

      Croup, which typically affects older children between the ages of 2-6 years, presents with a barking cough and, in severe cases, stridor.

      Understanding the differences between these respiratory conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and care for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old baby girl has just been registered with the surgery. Her parents have recently arrived in the UK from Syria, seeking refuge. She received a Hepatitis B vaccination before leaving Syria.
      What other vaccinations should she be provided with now?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, Pneumococcus, rotavirus and meningitis C

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B

      Explanation:

      Paediatric Vaccination Schedule for 2-Month-Old Babies in the UK

      The correct vaccination regime for a 2-month-old baby in the UK includes diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenzae type b, hepatitis B, rotavirus and meningitis B. However, the guidelines have been updated since 2015, and now include pneumococcus (PCV) vaccination at 12 weeks. Meningitis B is vaccinated against at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year, while meningitis C and PCV are vaccinated against at 12 months. Rotavirus and meningitis B are also recommended in the vaccination schedule at 8 weeks old, but meningitis C is not included in this particular regime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is concerned about her growth. He reports that she is not keeping up with her peers in terms of height and weight. The girl has been experiencing smelly diarrhoea around 4-5 times per week and complains of stomach pain.
      During the examination, the GP notes that the girl's abdomen is distended and her buttocks appear wasted. Her growth chart shows a drop of 2 centile lines, now placing her on the 10th centile.
      Which investigation is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgA TTG antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

      Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.

      Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.

      In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A female infant is presenting with dyspnea and cyanosis. The mother attempted to...

    Correct

    • A female infant is presenting with dyspnea and cyanosis. The mother attempted to feed her but noticed milk coming out of her nose and difficulty breathing during feeding. Upon examination, the infant was found to be tachypneic and tachycardic with intercostal recession. A bulge was observed on the praecordium and an early systolic murmur was heard along the left sternal edge. The chest x-ray revealed cardiomegaly, a loss of the normal thymus shadow, and a right aortic notch. Blood tests were normal except for low corrected serum calcium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge Syndrome

      DiGeorge syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a deletion of chromosomal region 22q11.2. It affects around 1 in 3000 live births and is characterized by a spectrum of disorders. The poor migration of neural crest cells to the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches is thought to be the cause of the midline abnormalities found in DiGeorge syndrome. These abnormalities include cardiac defects, abnormal facies, thymic hypoplasia, and hypocalcemia.

      Characteristic facies develop as the child grows and include high broad noses, low set ears, small teeth, and narrow eyes. Other systems may also be affected, and cognitive and psychiatric problems are common but variable. Around 80% of patients have an associated cardiac defect, often of a conotruncal variety. Tetralogy of Fallot is also found, as are other defects such as ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects.

      The diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome can be difficult, but clinical features consistent with the diagnosis include abnormalities of heart sounds and features of cardiac failure or cyanosis. The chest x-ray helps with the diagnosis, and an echocardiogram and possibly high resolution contrast CT imaging would be helpful in these cases. The above example has a persistent truncus arteriosus, which is a failure to separate the aorta and the main pulmonary artery. This can lead to dyspnea, cyanosis, and cardiac failure.

      In summary, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 19 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents after they witnessed him having a seizure. He had been experiencing a fever and cold symptoms for the past three days. His father also noticed a rash on his chest and a swollen tongue yesterday. The boy has met all of his developmental milestones prior to this incident.

      After being assessed, the medical team has determined that the boy is safe to go home. What advice should the parents be given?

      Your Answer: An ambulance must be called immediately if another seizure occurs

      Correct Answer: An ambulance must be called if another seizure occurs and persists for longer than five minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than five minutes, they should call an ambulance. The presence of a sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue in the vignette suggests a diagnosis of scarlet fever, which is often associated with febrile seizures. However, it is important to note that simple febrile seizures lasting only a few minutes are generally not a cause for concern. It is not recommended to prescribe prophylactic antipyretics as they have not been shown to reduce seizure frequency according to NICE guidelines. Referral to a paediatric neurologist is only necessary if the child has neurodevelopmental delay or signs of a neurocutaneous syndrome or metabolic disorder.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old girl comes to her family doctor complaining of bilateral knee pain...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to her family doctor complaining of bilateral knee pain that has been bothering her for the past four weeks. She mentions that she is a member of her school's track and field team but denies any recent injuries or falls. During the physical examination, the doctor notes tenderness in both of her tibial tuberosities. However, her anterior and posterior cruciate ligament stress tests, as well as the Apley's and McMurray's tests, all yield normal results.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Do no further investigations - advise analgesia, reduce physical exertion and consider physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Osgood-Schlatter Disease: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common condition that affects teenagers who are very active in sports. It is caused by traction, which results in numerous microscopic avulsion fractures at the tibial tuberosity. The diagnosis is clinical, and treatment is conservative. X-rays and imaging are usually normal. Physiotherapy may help by strengthening the quadriceps muscles. The pain reduces and resolves, as the bones mature and ossification is completed. It is important to avoid unnecessary investigations and refer to secondary care only if there is suspicion of other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.4
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Paediatrics (8/20) 40%
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