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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She has never had a menstrual period. Upon physical examination, downy hair is observed in the armpits and genital area, but there is no breast development. A vagina is present, but no uterus can be felt during pelvic examination. Genetic testing reveals a 46,XY karyotype. All other physical exam findings are unremarkable, and her blood work is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: Male intersex
Explanation:Intersex and Genetic Disorders: Understanding the Different Types
Intersex conditions and genetic disorders can affect an individual’s physical and biological characteristics. Understanding the different types can help in diagnosis and treatment.
Male Pseudointersex
Male pseudointersex is a condition where an individual has a 46XY karyotype and testes but presents phenotypically as a woman. This is caused by androgen insensitivity, deficit in testosterone production, or deficit in dihydrotestosterone production. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is the most common mechanism, which obstructs the development of male genitalia and secondary sexual characteristics, resulting in a female phenotype.True Intersex
True intersex is when an individual carries both male and female gonads.Female Intersex
Female intersex is a term used to describe an individual who is phenotypically male but has a 46XX genotype and ovaries. This is usually due to hyperandrogenism or a deficit in estrogen synthesis, leading to excessive androgen synthesis.Fragile X Syndrome
Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked dominant disorder that affects more men than women. It is associated with a long and narrow face, large ears, large testicles, significant intellectual disability, and developmental delay. The karyotype correlates with the phenotype and gonads.Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is associated with the genotype 45XO. Patients are genotypically and phenotypically female, missing part of, or a whole, X chromosome. They have primary or secondary amenorrhea due to premature ovarian failure and failure to develop secondary sexual characteristics. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic without an appointment. She had sex with her partner on Sunday and they typically use condoms for contraception, but they didn't have any at the time. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma that is managed with oral steroids, but is in good health otherwise. Today is Thursday. What is the best emergency contraception option for her?
Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate
Correct Answer: Intrauterine device
Explanation:The most effective method of emergency contraception is a copper IUD, and it should be the first option offered to all women who have had unprotected sexual intercourse. This IUD can be used up to 5 days after the UPSI or the earliest estimated date of ovulation. The combined oral contraceptive pill, intrauterine system, and levonorgestrel are not as effective as the copper IUD and should not be the first option offered. Levonorgestrel can only be used within 72 hours of UPSI, and even then, the copper IUD is still more effective.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman was recently requested by her GP practice to come in for a repeat smear test. Her previous test results 18 months ago indicated that the sample was positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV), but cytologically normal. The patient is feeling quite nervous about being called back and has asked the practice nurse what the next steps will be. If the results come back as hrHPV negative, what course of action will the patient be recommended to take?
Your Answer: Return to normal recall
Explanation:For cervical cancer screening, if the first repeat smear test after 12 months shows a negative result for high risk HPV (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the initial smear test shows a positive result for hrHPV but is cytologically normal, the patient will be called back for a repeat test after 12 months. If the second test also shows a negative result for hrHPV, the patient can return to normal recall. On the other hand, if the second test is still positive for hrHPV but cytologically normal, it will be repeated again after 12 months.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?
Your Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant
Explanation:The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She experiences intense one-sided headaches and reports a tingling sensation that travels up her arm before the headache begins. She smokes 10-20 cigarettes on most weekends and has a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her younger sister has a history of thromboembolic disease. What specific aspect of her medical history is the most significant contraindication for prescribing the combined oral contraceptive?
Your Answer: Migraine with aura
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate that they may be suffering from migraine, specifically migraine with aura. This condition is classified as UKMEC 4, meaning that it poses a significant health risk when taking combined oral contraceptive pills. While visual disturbances are the most common aura symptoms, some patients may experience sensory or motor symptoms such as tingling, weakness, or difficulty speaking. While other factors in the patient’s medical history may also be relevant, migraine with aura is the primary concern when considering contraception options.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence during her daily walks. The bladder diary does not provide clear results. What is the most suitable test to conduct?
Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram
Correct Answer: Urodynamic studies
Explanation:Urodynamic studies are necessary when there is a lack of clarity in diagnosis or when surgery is being considered.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after giving birth to her second child. She is currently breastfeeding and has a BMI of 27 kg/m^2. Her husband has a vasectomy scheduled in two months. What is the best contraceptive option for her?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill
Explanation:After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old women with her 34-year-old partner have come to see you regarding the inability to conceive over the last year. She has regular cycles over 28 days.
Which test will best see if she is ovulating?Your Answer: Day 21 progesterone
Explanation:Methods for Checking Ovulation
There are several methods for checking ovulation, but not all of them are definitive. The easiest way to check for ovulation is through a day-21 progesterone level test, which measures the progesterone released by the corpus luteum after ovulation. However, an increase in basal body temperature is not a definitive indicator of ovulation.
Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are released from the pituitary gland and cause the development of the follicle ready for ovulation. However, if the day-21 progesterone level is normal, then FSH and LH will also be normal. An endometrial biopsy may confirm the absence of any uterine abnormality, but it does not ensure ovulation has taken place.
The cervical fern test is an assessment of cervical mucous, which is dependent on hormone levels. However, there is diagnostic uncertainty with this method, and measuring hormone levels directly is a more reliable indicator of ovulation. Overall, a combination of these methods may be used to confirm ovulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 6 months. Upon examination, the abdomen is not tender, but the uterus feels enlarged. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroids
Explanation:Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient has received a letter from her local hospital regarding her recent smear test. She is aware that she has had two consecutive inadequate sample results.
What will be the next course of action for this patient due to the two inadequate sample results?Your Answer: Colposcopy testing
Explanation:In the case of cervical cancer screening, if two consecutive samples are deemed inadequate, the patient will be referred for colposcopy testing. Prior to this, the patient will be asked to undergo a repeat test within a period of 3 months.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl visits her nearby pharmacy at 11 am on Tuesday, asking for the morning-after pill. She discloses that she had unprotected sex around 10 pm on the previous Saturday and is not using any birth control method. She specifically asks for levonorgestrel, as her friend had taken it a few weeks ago. Is it possible for her to receive levonorgestrel as an emergency contraception option?
Your Answer: Yes, as it can be taken up to 120 hours later
Correct Answer: Yes, as it can be taken up to 72 hours later
Explanation:Levonorgestrel can still be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) in this case. Ulipristal acetate can also be taken up to 120 hours later, but the efficacy of oral options may have decreased after 61 hours. The copper coil is not a suitable option as the patient has declined any form of birth control. Therefore, the correct answer is that levonorgestrel can still be taken within 72 hours of UPSI.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 59-year-old postmenopausal woman with a history of chronic hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents with mild vaginal bleeding. Bimanual pelvic examination reveals a relatively large mass on the right side of the pelvis. The patient undergoes an abdominal and pelvic computed tomography scan with contrast injection. The scan shows multiple enlarged lymph nodes in the pelvis, along the iliac arteries. The para-aortic lymph nodes appear normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cervical squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosing Gynaecological Malignancies: Understanding the Differences
When a postmenopausal woman presents with vaginal bleeding, pelvic mass, and pelvic lymphadenopathy, it is important to consider the different types of Gynaecological malignancies that could be causing these symptoms. The most likely diagnosis in this case is cervical squamous cell carcinoma, which typically metastasises to the pelvic lymph nodes along the iliac arteries.
While endometrial carcinoma (adenocarcinoma) is the most common Gynaecological malignancy, it would also be a possibility in this patient. Ovarian cancer, the second most common Gynaecological cancer, typically metastasises to the para-aortic lymph nodes and is not associated with vaginal bleeding.
Vulval cancers tend to metastasise to the superficial inguinal node and are unlikely to present with a pelvic mass or vaginal bleeding. Cervical adenocarcinomas are rare and derived from the endocervix, while uterine leiomyosarcoma often extends beyond the uterine serosa and occasionally metastasises to distant organs through blood vessels. However, neither of these malignancies typically present with vaginal bleeding and pelvic lymphadenopathy.
In summary, understanding the differences between the various types of Gynaecological malignancies is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. Upon examination, her abdomen is found to be tender all over. Laparoscopy reveals the presence of numerous small lesions between her liver and abdominal wall, while her appendix appears to be unaffected. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis)
Explanation:Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is characterized by hepatic adhesions, which are not present in any of the other options. Therefore, the diagnosis is based on the presence of lesions rather than just the symptoms described. This syndrome is a complication of PID that causes inflammation of the liver capsule, known as Glisson’s Capsule.
Gynaecological Causes of Abdominal Pain in Women
Abdominal pain is a common complaint among women, and it can be caused by various gynaecological disorders. To diagnose these disorders, a bimanual vaginal examination, urine pregnancy test, and abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scanning should be performed in addition to routine diagnostic workup. If diagnostic doubt persists, a laparoscopy can be used to assess suspected tubulo-ovarian pathology.
There are several differential diagnoses of abdominal pain in females, including mittelschmerz, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, ectopic gestation, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Mittelschmerz is characterized by mid-cycle pain that usually settles over 24-48 hours. Endometriosis is a complex disease that may result in pelvic adhesional formation with episodes of intermittent small bowel obstruction. Ovarian torsion is usually sudden onset of deep-seated colicky abdominal pain associated with vomiting and distress. Ectopic gestation presents as an emergency with evidence of rupture or impending rupture. Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by bilateral lower abdominal pain associated with vaginal discharge and dysuria.
Each of these disorders requires specific investigations and treatments. For example, endometriosis is usually managed medically, but complex disease may require surgery and some patients may even require formal colonic and rectal resections if these areas are involved. Ovarian torsion is usually diagnosed and treated with laparoscopy. Ectopic gestation requires a salpingectomy if the patient is haemodynamically unstable. Pelvic inflammatory disease is usually managed medically with antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her gynaecologist with vaginal irritation and itching. On examination, the clinician notes a 3 cm by 2 cm lump extending from the left side of the vulva. A biopsy of the lump is taken for histological diagnosis.
Which of the following is the most common vulval carcinoma?Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinomas
Explanation:Types of Vulval Cancers and Their Characteristics
Vulval cancers are rare gynaecological malignancies that primarily affect elderly women. The most common type of vulval cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, which typically presents as a growth on the inner surface of the labia minora. Symptoms include vulval discomfort, itching, discharge, and bleeding. Biopsy and histological investigation are necessary to diagnose vulval lumps, and treatment involves vulvectomy and dissection of inguinal glands. Malignant melanoma, basal cell carcinomas, Bartholin’s gland cancer, and sarcoma are other types of vulval cancers, each with their own unique characteristics and rarity. Early detection and treatment are crucial for a positive prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency and embarrassing leakage. She reports that it disrupts her work in the office as she has to constantly go to the toilet. However, she denies any association of the leakage with coughing or laughing. The patient's BMI is 32kg/m², and a vaginal examination shows no pelvic organ prolapse and an ability to initiate voluntary contraction of the pelvic floor muscles.
What initial investigations would you include for this patient?Your Answer: A single day bladder diary
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick and culture
Explanation:When dealing with patients who have urinary incontinence, it is crucial to eliminate the possibility of a UTI and diabetes mellitus as underlying causes. The first step in investigating urinary incontinence would be to conduct a urine dipstick and culture test, which can be easily done in a GP’s office. Other initial investigations include keeping a bladder diary for at least three days and undergoing urodynamic studies. It is important to note that the reliability of urine dip tests is questionable in women over 65 years of age and those who have catheters. A three-day bladder diary is necessary for initial investigations, and a one-day diary would not suffice. CT scans are not typically used to investigate urinary incontinence but are useful in detecting renal pathology such as ureteric calculi. Cystoscopy is not appropriate for this patient and is usually reserved for cases where bladder cancer is suspected.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the GP with a three-day history of vaginal itching and thick, non-odorous white discharge. She had a similar complaint four months ago but has no other medical history. The patient is married and sexually active with her husband, and her menstrual cycle is regular, following a 28-day cycle. Vaginal pH testing shows a value of 4.3. What further tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?
Your Answer: High vaginal swab
Correct Answer: None needed, the diagnosis is clinical
Explanation:The diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis does not require a high vaginal swab if the symptoms are highly suggestive. In fact, the diagnosis can be made clinically based on the patient’s symptoms. For example, if a patient presents with thickened, white discharge that resembles cottage cheese and vaginal itching, along with a normal vaginal pH, it is very likely that they have vaginal candidiasis. It is important to note that glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is not necessary for diagnosis unless the patient has recurrent episodes of vaginal candidiasis, which may indicate diabetes mellitus. Additionally, a midstream urine sample is not useful in diagnosing vaginal candidiasis and should only be used if a sexually-transmitted infection is suspected.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who underwent cervical cancer screening 12 months ago and the result showed positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) with a negative cytology report.
She has now undergone a repeat smear and the result is once again positive for hrHPV with a negative cytology report.
What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat sample in 12 months
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines for cervical cancer screening, if the first repeat smear at 12 months is still positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the next step is to repeat the smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months). If the patient remains hrHPV positive but cytology negative at 12 months, they should have another HPV test in a further 12 months. If the patient becomes hrHPV negative at 24 months, they can return to routine recall. However, if they remain hrHPV positive, cytology negative or inadequate at 24 months, they should be referred to colposcopy.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman was diagnosed with an early miscarriage 3 weeks ago through transvaginal ultrasound. She has no significant medical history and was G1P0. Expectant management was chosen as the course of action. However, she now presents with light vaginal bleeding that has persisted for 10 days. A recent urinary pregnancy test still shows positive results. She denies experiencing cramps, purulent vaginal discharges, fever, or muscle aches. What is the next appropriate step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Prescribe vaginal misoprostol and oral mifepristone
Correct Answer: Prescribe vaginal misoprostol alone
Explanation:The appropriate medical management for a miscarriage involves administering vaginal misoprostol alone. This is a prostaglandin analogue that stimulates uterine contractions, expediting the passing of the products of conception. Oral methotrexate and oral mifepristone alone are not suitable for managing a miscarriage, as they are used for ectopic pregnancies and terminations of pregnancy, respectively. The combination of oral misoprostol and oral mifepristone, as well as vaginal misoprostol and oral mifepristone, are also not recommended due to limited evidence of their efficacy. The current recommended approach is to use vaginal misoprostol alone, as it limits side effects and has a strong evidence base.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years without relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination does not reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda has declined surgical intervention. What is the next best course of action for managing her incontinence?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:If pelvic floor muscle exercises and surgical intervention are not effective, duloxetine can be used to treat stress incontinence in patients. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes such as infection before starting treatment. Non-pharmacological management should be attempted first, including pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake. Duloxetine is a medication that works as a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are not effective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her University Health Service complaining of a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge that she has noticed over the past few days. The discharge is yellow in colour and is accompanied by vulval itching. She has had protected sexual intercourse three times in the past six months and is not currently in a committed relationship. Upon investigation, her vaginal pH is found to be 6.0 and ovoid mobile parasites are observed on a wet saline mount. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trichomoniasis
Explanation:Distinguishing between common vaginal infections: Trichomoniasis, Bacterial Vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma Genitalium
When a woman presents with an elevated vaginal pH, a fish-smelling, yellow vaginal discharge, and ovoid trichomonads, the diagnosis of trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis) is strongly supported. A wet saline mount or anaerobic culture can confirm the diagnosis, with culture being particularly useful in men. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for seven days or a single 2g dose, and sexual partners should also be treated to prevent re-infection.
Bacterial vaginosis is a differential diagnosis to consider, as it also presents with a fish-smelling discharge and a pH > 4.5. However, the presence of ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount suggests trichomoniasis as the more likely diagnosis. Bacterial vaginosis would show clue cells on wet saline mount.
gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia are sexually transmitted infections that are more likely to be seen in patients with a history of unprotected sex. However, fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of either infection. A specimen culture of gonorrhoeae would show Gram-negative diplococci, while chlamydia would not show ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount.
Mycoplasma genitalium is another potential sexually transmitted infection that can cause urethritis, discharge, cervicitis, or endometritis in women. However, the wet saline mount results suggest that this is not the diagnosis, and fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of this infection.
In summary, a combination of clinical presentation, wet saline mount, and culture can help distinguish between common vaginal infections such as trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, chlamydia, and mycoplasma genitalium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill. He appears to have Gillick competency, but he reveals that his girlfriend is 24 and a teacher at a nearby private school. He confirms that she is not pregnant and that her last period was 3 weeks ago. He specifically requests that you do not inform anyone, including his mother who is also a patient of yours. How do you proceed?
Your Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent. If she refuses then accept you can't tell anyone as she has demonstrated Gillick competency
Correct Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent but explain you will still need to tell them if she doesn't consent
Explanation:According to the GMC guidelines in good medical practice for individuals aged 0-18 years, it is important to disclose information regarding any abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person. This includes situations where the young person is too immature to understand or consent, there are significant differences in age, maturity, or power between sexual partners, the young person’s sexual partner holds a position of trust, force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment is used to engage in sexual activity or keep it secret, drugs or alcohol are used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity, or the person involved is known to the police or child protection agencies for having abusive relationships with children or young people.
Failing to disclose this information or simply prescribing contraception and waiting for a review can put both the patient and other students at the boyfriend’s school in harm’s way due to his position of trust. While informing the boyfriend or his school may breach confidentiality and not address the issue of his job and relationship, it is important to take appropriate action to protect the safety and well-being of the young person involved.
When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.
It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD, and there are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today and use barrier contraception for 5 days
Correct Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required
Explanation:No additional contraception is needed when switching from an IUD to COCP if it is removed on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days, but if started from day 6 onwards, barrier contraception is required for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 22-year-old law student, with a history of cyclical pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea not responding to paracetamol is attending her follow-up appointment to receive the histology results of her diagnostic laparoscopy. She does not want to conceive at present and uses barrier methods of contraception. She has asthma, which is well controlled with inhalers but was made worse in the past when she took some painkillers.
The histology report concludes that: ‘The peritoneal deposits, submitted in their entirety, contain evidence of endometrial glands and stroma surrounded by red blood cells and a mixed chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate’. The operation notes say that all deposits seen were removed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
Explanation:Management Options for Endometriosis-Related Pain: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing pain and discomfort. Hormonal contraception is an effective treatment option for women who do not wish to conceive. The combined oral contraceptive pill suppresses ovarian function and limits the effect of estrogen on endometrial tissue. progesterone-containing contraceptives cause atrophy of the endometrial tissue. A trial of three months is recommended before reassessment.
Hysterectomy is indicated for adenomyosis or heavy menstrual bleeding that has not resolved with other treatments. A hysteroscopy is not necessary for a newly diagnosed young patient. A trial of ibuprofen or combination therapy is the first step in pain management, but NSAIDs are contraindicated for asthmatic patients who have already tried paracetamol.
Further laparoscopy for excision and/or ablation of endometriotic deposits is indicated if there is further disease. However, if all visible deposits were removed during diagnostic laparoscopy, a further laparoscopy is not necessary at present.
Ovarian cystectomy is recommended for women with endometriotic cysts who are concerned about fertility. Laparoscopic removal of the cyst wall can improve the chances of spontaneous pregnancy and reduce the risk of recurrence of endometriomas. These guidelines are based on NICE recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of dysmenorrhoea. She has a history of asthma and cannot take ibuprofen due to a previous severe asthma attack triggered by the medication. An ultrasound scan reveals no pelvic pathology. What would be an appropriate treatment for her dysmenorrhoea?
Your Answer: Gabapentin
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Dysmenorrhoea: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Primary dysmenorrhoea is a common condition that affects many women of reproductive age. When treating this condition, healthcare professionals have several options to consider. Here, we will discuss the most common treatments and their appropriateness for different patients.
Paracetamol is a suitable first-line treatment for patients with primary dysmenorrhoea who cannot take NSAIDs. If the patient does not wish to conceive, a hormonal contraceptive may also be considered as a first-line treatment.
Gabapentin is not recommended for the treatment of dysmenorrhoea, as it is primarily used for epilepsy and neuropathic pain.
Mefenamic acid and naproxen are both NSAIDs and are recommended as first-line treatments for primary dysmenorrhoea. However, they are contraindicated in patients with a history of asthma triggered by NSAID use.
Oral morphine is not typically used as a first-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea. If NSAIDs and paracetamol are not effective, transelectrical nerve stimulation (TENS) may be trialled. If none of these treatments are effective within 3-6 months, the patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for further assessment.
In summary, healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s medical history and preferences when selecting a treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea. Paracetamol and hormonal contraceptives are suitable first-line treatments, while NSAIDs and TENS may also be effective in some patients. Referral to a specialist may be necessary if initial treatments are not effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old nulliparous woman arrives at the emergency department with a positive home pregnancy test and symptoms of diarrhoea and mild abdominal discomfort that have been present for 6 hours. She has not been using any regular contraception and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. The patient has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease. A transvaginal ultrasound shows a 40mm foetal sac at the ampulla of the fallopian tube without a visible heartbeat, and her serum B-HCG level is 1200 IU/L. What is the definitive indication for surgical management in this case?
Your Answer: Serum HCG concentration
Correct Answer: Foetal sac size
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies with a foetal sac larger than 35mm or a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, as per NICE guidelines. Foetal sacs larger than 35mm are at a higher risk of spontaneous rupture, making expectant or medical management unsuitable. The size of the foetal sac is measured using transvaginal ultrasound. Detection of a foetal heartbeat on transvaginal ultrasound requires urgent surgical management. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease is not an indication for surgical management, although it is a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy. Serum HCG levels between 1,500IU/L and 5,000 IU/L may be managed medically if the patient can return for follow-up and has no significant abdominal pain or haemodynamic instability. A septate uterus is not an indication for surgical management of ectopic pregnancy, but it may increase the risk of miscarriage.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP to discuss contraception. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and is currently undergoing treatment for breast cancer. She was also recently diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis in her left leg and is a heavy smoker with a BMI of 38 kg/m2. She is interested in receiving an injectable progesterone contraceptive. What aspect of her medical history would prevent the GP from prescribing this?
Your Answer: Current deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Current breast cancer
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer.
This is considered an absolute contraindication (UKMEC 4) for prescribing injectable progesterone contraceptives. It is also an absolute contraindication for most other forms of contraception, except for the non-hormonal copper intrauterine device.
Current deep vein thrombosis is a UKMEC 2 contraindication for injectable progesterone, while it is a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill. Multiple cardiovascular risk factors are a UKMEC 3 contraindication, which is not absolute, but the risks are generally considered to outweigh the benefits.
Smoking 30 cigarettes per day is only a UKMEC 1 contraindication for injectable progesterone contraception. However, considering the individual’s age, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill.
High BMI is a UKMEC 1 contraindication for most forms of contraception, including injectable progesterone. However, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined pill.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying for a baby for more than a year. She and her partner have been directed to the Fertility Clinic for additional assessments by their General Practitioner.
Regarding the female reproductive system, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: The menopause is associated with an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone
Explanation:Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction
Menopause is often associated with misconceptions about reproductive health. Here are some common misconceptions and the correct information:
Common Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction
1. Menopause is associated with a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Correction: Menopause is associated with an increase in FSH due to the loss of negative feedback from estrogen on the anterior pituitary.2. Progesterone is necessary for ovulation to take place.
Correction: Both FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH) are needed for ovulation to take place. Progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for implantation.3. Estrogen concentration peaks during menstruation.
Correction: Estrogen concentration peaks just before ovulation during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.4. Ovarian tissue is the only source of estrogen production.
Correction: While ovarian tissue is the main source of estrogen production, the adrenal cortex and adipose tissue also contribute to estrogen production.5. Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the uterus.
Correction: Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the outer third of the Fallopian tubes, not the uterus. The fertilized egg then implants in the uterus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female presents with a one day history of dysuria and urinary frequency. She was diagnosed with a simple urinary tract infection and prescribed a three day course of ciprofloxacin. She returns two weeks later with new onset vaginal discharge. A whiff test is negative and no clue cells are observed on microscopy.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: The antibiotic is not sufficiently bactericidal for this infection
Correct Answer: The patients vaginal discharge is most likely caused by a fungal infection
Explanation:Thrush, also known as candidal infection, is a prevalent condition that is often triggered or worsened by recent use of antibiotics. Therefore, it is the most probable reason for the symptoms in this case. It should be noted that urinary tract infections do not typically cause vaginal discharge.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of vaginal itching and a change in discharge. She has been experiencing thick, white discharge for the past 3 days and the itching has become unbearable today. She is sexually active with her partner and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. She denies having a fever, abdominal pain, painful intercourse, or any new sexual partners. What is the most suitable course of action for managing the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral fluconazole once daily for 3 days
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole single dose
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for non-pregnant women with symptoms of vaginal thrush, such as a curd-like discharge and itching, is a single dose of oral fluconazole. This medication can often be obtained directly from a pharmacist without needing to see a GP. Using low dose topical corticosteroids until symptoms improve is not an appropriate treatment for managing the fungal infection. Similarly, taking oral cetirizine daily for two weeks is not the recommended course of action, although it may be used for treatment-resistant thrush. Oral fluconazole should be tried first before considering cetirizine. Lastly, a three-day course of oral fluconazole is not the appropriate duration of treatment for this patient population.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has been referred to the Infertility Clinic with her partner. They have been trying to conceive for almost one year now, having regular unprotected intercourse.
Initial investigations, including thyroid function tests and mid-luteal phase progesterone and prolactin, are normal. Semen analysis is also normal. No sexually transmitted infections were detected on testing. The patient reports regular periods and a history of endometriosis.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopy and dye
Explanation:Investigating Infertility: Recommended Tests and Procedures
When a patient presents with infertility, there are several tests and procedures that can be performed to identify the underlying cause. In the case of a patient with known co-morbidities such as previous ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, or endometriosis, laparoscopy and dye is the most appropriate next step of investigation. This procedure involves Exploratory laparoscopy, allowing direct visualisation of the pelvis, and injection of dye into the uterus to assess tubal patency.
Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) testing is typically performed when a patient has irregular menses, but may not be necessary for those with regular cycles and normal mid-luteal progesterone levels indicating ovulation. Basal body temperature charts are not recommended by NICE guidelines, as a mid-luteal phase progesterone blood test is a more accurate measure of ovulation.
Cervical smears may be indicated if the patient is due for screening, but do not form part of infertility investigations. Hysterosalpingography is recommended by NICE guidelines for women without co-morbidities, but is not appropriate for those with a history of endometriosis. Understanding the appropriate tests and procedures for investigating infertility can help healthcare providers identify the underlying cause and develop an effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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