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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old female smoker visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She believes...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female smoker visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She believes she has reached menopause as her last menstrual period was 15 months ago. What is the most suitable form of contraception for her?

      The menopause is typically diagnosed retrospectively, 12 months after the last menstrual period. Women who experience menopause before the age of 50 require contraception for at least 2 years after their last menstrual period, while those over 50 require only 1 year of contraception. Given her age and smoking status, prescribing the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for only 12 months would not be appropriate. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) should not be used solely as a form of contraception, and barrier methods are less effective than other options. Therefore, the most suitable form of contraception for this patient would be the intrauterine system (IUS), which can be used for up to 7 years (off-licence) or 2 years after her last menstrual period.

      Your Answer: The intrauterine system (IUS)

      Explanation:

      The menopause is diagnosed retrospectively and occurs 12 months after the last menstrual period. Women who experience menopause before the age of 50 need contraception for at least 2 years after their last menstrual period, while those over 50 require only 1 year of contraception. Therefore, it would be incorrect to assume that this woman does not need contraception because she is protected. Prescribing the COCP for only 12 months would also be inappropriate, especially since she is a smoker over the age of 35. Hormone replacement therapy should not be used as a sole form of contraception, and barrier methods are less effective than other types of contraception. The most appropriate option is the IUS, which can be used for 7 years (off-licence) or 2 years after her last menstrual period and will take her through menopause. This information is based on the FSRH’s guidelines on contraception for women aged over 40 (July 2010).

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and nausea...

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    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and nausea for the past few hours. She has irregular menstrual cycles and cannot recall her last period. The patient appears distressed and unwell, with tenderness noted in the right iliac fossa upon examination. Speculum examination is unremarkable, but cervical excitation and right adnexal tenderness are present on vaginal examination. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 37.8 °C, blood pressure of 90/60, heart rate of 110 bpm, and respiratory rate of 22 with oxygen saturations of 100% on room air. A positive urine beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG) test is obtained, and the urine dipstick shows 1+ leukocytes and 1+ blood. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Abdominal Pain and Signs of Shock in Women: Differential Diagnosis

      When a woman presents with abdominal pain and signs of shock, it is important to consider several possible causes. One of the most urgent and life-threatening conditions is ectopic pregnancy, which should be suspected until proven otherwise. A positive pregnancy test and pain localized to one side, especially with evidence of shock, are key indicators. The patient should be given intravenous access, blood tests, serum β-HCG, group and save, and a transvaginal ultrasound scan if stable. If necessary, she may need to undergo a laparoscopy urgently.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain in women include urinary tract infection, acute appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and miscarriage. However, these conditions are less likely to present with signs of shock. Urinary tract infection would show leukocytes, nitrites, and protein on dipstick. Acute appendicitis would cause pain in the right iliac fossa, but cervical excitation and signs of shock would be rare unless the patient is severely septic. Pelvic inflammatory disease would give rise to pain in the right iliac fossa and cervical excitation, but signs of shock would not be present on examination. Miscarriage rarely presents with signs of shock, unless it is a septic miscarriage, and the cervical os would be open with a history of passing some products of conception recently.

      In summary, when a woman presents with abdominal pain and signs of shock, ectopic pregnancy should be considered as the most likely cause until proven otherwise. Other conditions may also cause abdominal pain, but they are less likely to present with signs of shock. A thorough differential diagnosis and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide timely and effective treatment.

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  • Question 3 - A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except that she has not menstruated. A pelvic examination reveals a mobile mass in her left labium major and a shallow, blind-ending vagina without a cervix, but otherwise normal female external genitalia. Ultrasound reveals no cervix, uterus or ovaries. Karyotype analysis reveals 46,XY.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)

      Explanation:

      Disorders of Sexual Development: An Overview

      Disorders of sexual development (DSD) are a group of conditions that affect the development of the reproductive system. Here are some of the most common DSDs:

      Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS)
      AIS is a condition where cells cannot respond to androgens, resulting in disrupted sexual development. Patients with complete AIS have a female phenotype with male internal genitalia, while those with partial or mild AIS may have a mix of male and female characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.

      Turner Syndrome
      Turner syndrome is a condition where patients are missing all or part of an X chromosome, resulting in premature ovarian failure and delayed puberty. Patients are phenotypically female with normal external genitalia.

      Klinefelter’s Syndrome
      Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where patients have an extra copy of an X chromosome, resulting in hypogonadism and infertility. Patients are phenotypically male with normal external genitalia.

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later present with symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome or hyperpigmentation.

      5-α Reductase Deficiency
      5-α reductase deficiency is a condition where patients have a mutation in the SDR5A2 gene, resulting in disrupted formation of external genitalia before birth. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later show virilisation during puberty. Patients are infertile.

      Treatment for DSDs involves hormone replacement therapy and supportive care. It is important to provide psychosocial support for patients and their families.

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  • Question 4 - An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a labial lump that...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a labial lump that has been present for two weeks. Although she does not experience any pain, she reports that the lump is very itchy and rubs against her underwear. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and she takes amlodipine, metformin, and sitagliptin daily. During the examination, the physician observes a firm 2 cm x 3 cm lump on the left labia majora. The surrounding skin appears normal without signs of erythema or induration. Additionally, the physician notes palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bartholin's cyst

      Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy in an older woman may indicate the presence of vulval carcinoma, as these symptoms are concerning and should not be ignored. Although labial lumps are not uncommon, it is important to be vigilant and seek medical attention if a new lump appears.

      Understanding Vulval Carcinoma

      Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.

      There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of never having...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of never having had a menstrual period. During the examination, the GP observes normal external female genitalia and a vagina that terminates as a blind pouch. The absence of a uterus or ovaries is palpable, and there is no growth of pubic or axillary hair. What karyotype abnormality is likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: 45,XO

      Correct Answer: 46,XY

      Explanation:

      Genotypes and Associated Syndromes

      There are several genotypes that can lead to different syndromes.

      The genotype 46,XY can cause androgen insensitivity syndrome, where the patient is genotypically male but has complete resistance to testosterone. This results in the absence of male internal genitalia.

      The genotype 46,XX is associated with a phenotypically normal female.

      45,XO causes Turner syndrome, which is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and streak gonads in girls.

      47,XXY causes Klinefelter syndrome in males, which is characterized by atrophic testes, azoospermia, wide-set nipples, female distribution of body hair, and mild intellectual disability.

      47,XYY causes tall stature, acne, and mild mental retardation in men. This genotype is also associated with aggressive behavior, but normal fertility.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She reports that her periods are so heavy that she goes through a full box of tampons on the first day, which affects her daily routine. The patient has read that Menorrhagia is characterised by unusually heavy bleeding during menstruation. Before diagnosing her with menorrhagia, the doctor checks the criteria used to classify bleeding as 'abnormally heavy'. What is the definition used for this classification?

      Your Answer: >60ml total blood loss per menses

      Correct Answer: An amount that the woman considers to be excessive

      Explanation:

      The definition of menorrhagia has been updated to focus on a woman’s personal experience rather than attempting to measure the amount of blood loss. Previously, heavy bleeding was defined as a total blood loss of over 80 ml during the menstrual cycle. However, due to challenges in accurately measuring blood loss and the fact that treatment for heavy bleeding can improve quality of life regardless of the amount of blood lost, the definition has shifted to a more subjective approach.

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice regarding her current contraceptive method,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice regarding her current contraceptive method, microgynon 30. She recently went on a short trip and forgot to bring her pill pack, causing her to miss some pills. She last took a pill 76 hours ago and is uncertain about what to do next. The missed pills were from the third week of her pack, and she has not missed any other pills this month. She had unprotected sex in the past week. What guidance should you provide her?

      Your Answer: Take 2 pills today, then finish the current pack, omit the pill-free interval and start the new pack immediately

      Explanation:

      If a woman misses 2 pills in week 3 of taking the COCP, she should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and start a new pack immediately without taking the pill-free interval. Missing 2 pills means that it has been 72 hours since the last pill was taken, and the standard rule is to take 2 pills on the same day and continue taking one pill each day until the end of the pack. It is important not to take more than 2 pills in one day, and emergency contraception is only necessary if more than 7 consecutive pills are missed. In this case, the woman has not taken the required 7 consecutive pills to be protected during the pill-free interval, so she should start the new pack immediately. However, the chances of pregnancy are low if she has taken 7 pills consecutively the prior week.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old dentist presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with symptoms of irregular...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old dentist presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with symptoms of irregular menstrual bleeding associated with abdominal discomfort. She often does not have periods for months at a time. She is also overweight and has always had a history of hirsutism. The patient is concerned that she may have polycystic ovarian syndrome.
      A pelvic ultrasound is ordered to confirm the diagnosis.
      Which of the following is the most common site of referred ovarian pain?

      Your Answer: The suprapubic region

      Correct Answer: The periumbilical region

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Referred Pain of Ovarian Inflammation

      The ovaries receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation, with the nerve supply running along the suspensory ligament of the ovary. Ovarian pain is typically referred to the periumbilical region due to its sympathetic nerve supply originating at T10. Inflammation of an ovary can also cause referred pain to the inner thigh through stimulation of the adjacent obturator nerve. While pain may radiate to the suprapubic area, the most common site of ovarian pain is the periumbilical region. Pain in the hypochondria is more commonly associated with liver, gallbladder, or cardiac conditions. Understanding the referred pain of ovarian inflammation can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman undergoes a smear test, which reveals an ulcerated lesion on...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman undergoes a smear test, which reveals an ulcerated lesion on her cervix. The lesion was confirmed to be squamous cell carcinoma.
      With which virus is this patient most likely infected?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix is often caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly strains 16 and 18. HPV infects the host and interferes with genes that regulate cell growth, leading to uncontrolled growth and inhibition of apoptosis. This results in precancerous lesions that can progress to carcinoma. Risk factors for cervical carcinoma include smoking, low socio-economic status, use of the contraceptive pill, early sexual activity, co-infection with HIV, and a family history of cervical carcinoma. HIV is not the cause of cervical squamous cell carcinoma, but co-infection with HIV increases the risk of HPV infection. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is associated with other types of cancer, but not cervical squamous cell carcinoma. Chlamydia trachomatis is a bacterium associated with genitourinary infections, while herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes painful ulceration of the genital tract but is not associated with cervical carcinoma.

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  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about her lack of menstruation. They have noticed that all her friends have already started their periods and are worried that something may be wrong with her. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      FSH 12 IU/L (4-8)
      LH 13 IU/L (4-8)
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Normal late menarche

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      If a patient with primary amenorrhea has elevated FSH/LH levels, it may indicate gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A woman aged 74 comes in with a 2-cm unilateral, invasive vulvar carcinoma,...

    Incorrect

    • A woman aged 74 comes in with a 2-cm unilateral, invasive vulvar carcinoma, without signs of lymph node involvement. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Chemotherapy

      Correct Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Surgery, Radiation Therapy, and Chemotherapy

      Vulval cancer is a type of cancer that affects the external female genitalia. The lymphatic drainage of the vulva is to the inguinal nodes, which means that even if there is no clinical evidence of lymphatic involvement, the inguinal nodes should be removed. This is done through a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy. Radiation therapy can also be used for T2 or greater lesions, when combined with surgery. The role of radiation is often to shrink tumours to make a surgical excision more likely to succeed or to increase the chance of remission.

      It is important to note that vulvectomy without lymph node surgery or biopsy is inappropriate. Only in stage 1a cancer with a depth of invasion of <1 mm can lymph nodes safely not be biopsied or removed. Chemotherapy largely plays a role as neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy in vulval cancer. This is particularly important for tumours which extend within 1 cm of structures that would not be surgically removed such as the urethra, clitoris and anus. It can also be used where repeat surgery in positive margins may not be feasible. Wide local excision, also termed radical local excision, is appropriate, depending on the staging of the lesion. If the tumour is localised, ie T1 staging, then a radical local excision is a viable option, regardless of the location. As the tumour is described as invasive, it must be T2 or greater in staging and therefore needs more invasive surgery. In summary, treatment options for vulval cancer include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, depending on the staging and location of the tumour.

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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman visits an Infertility clinic with a complaint of irregular periods...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits an Infertility clinic with a complaint of irregular periods and difficulty conceiving for the past 2 years. During the examination, she is found to be obese (BMI 32) and hirsute. Mildly elevated androgen levels are also observed.
      What is the probable reason for her condition?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is showing signs of polycystic ovarian syndrome, which is characterized by elevated androgen levels, obesity, and hirsutism. Diagnosis requires meeting two of the following three criteria: polycystic ovaries, oligo-ovulation or anovulation, and clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism. Blood tests may show raised LH and free testosterone levels, and it is important to rule out other potential causes and assess for insulin resistance/diabetes and lipid levels. Hypothyroidism, anorexia nervosa, Turner syndrome, and prolactinoma are all potential causes of subfertility, but they do not present with the same symptoms as polycystic ovarian syndrome.

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  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her voice, increased body hair, and clitoral enlargement. Ultrasonography shows a tumour in the left ovarian hilus, and her 17-ketosteroid excretion is elevated. The histopathology confirms a diagnosis of hilus cell tumour, with large, lipid-laden tumour cells. Which cells in the male reproductive system are homologous to the affected cells?

      Your Answer: Leydig cells

      Explanation:

      Homologous Cells in Male and Female Reproductive Systems

      The male and female reproductive systems have homologous cells that perform similar functions. Leydig cells, also known as pure Leydig cell tumors, are found in both males and females. In females, these cells are located in the ovarian hilus and secrete androgens, causing masculinization when a tumor arises. Sertoli cells, on the other hand, have a female homologue called granulosa cells, both of which are sensitive to follicle-stimulating hormone. Epithelial cells in the epididymis have a vestigial structure in females called the epoophoron, which is lined by cells similar to those found in the epididymis. Spermatocytes have female homologues in oocytes and polar bodies, while spermatogonia have female homologues in oogonia. Understanding these homologous cells can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of reproductive system disorders.

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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received a positive HIV diagnosis. During her initial visits to the HIV clinic, she is offered a cervical smear. What is the recommended follow-up for her as part of the cervical screening program?

      Your Answer: Annual cervical cytology

      Explanation:

      Due to a weakened immune response and reduced clearance of the human papillomavirus, women who are HIV positive face an elevated risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer. If HIV positive women have low-grade lesions (CIN1), these lesions may not clear and could progress to high-grade CIN or cervical cancer. Even with effective antiretroviral treatment, these women still have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative results. Therefore, it is recommended that women with HIV receive cervical cytology at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter for screening purposes.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic floor exercises for four months without success in managing her urinary stress incontinence. She expresses a desire for additional treatment options but prefers to avoid surgery. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescription of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If pelvic floor muscle exercises are ineffective and surgical intervention is not desired, duloxetine may be used to manage stress incontinence, as per NICE guidance from 2019. It should be noted that bladder retraining is not recommended for this type of incontinence, and oxybutynin is only indicated for urge incontinence if bladder retraining has failed. Referral for urodynamics testing is also not recommended, with urogynaecology being the preferred option for secondary care. Additionally, NICE does not recommend continuing pelvic floor exercises for an additional 3 months.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

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  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of pelvic...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of pelvic pain and intermenstrual bleeding for the past 5 months. The pain is more severe during her periods and sexual intercourse, and her periods have become heavier. She denies any urinary or bowel symptoms. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals multiple masses in the uterine wall. The patient desires surgical removal of the masses, but the wait time for the procedure is 5 months. She inquires about medication to reduce the size of the masses during this period. What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient while she awaits surgery?

      Your Answer: Triptorelin

      Explanation:

      The presence of fibroids in the patient’s uterus is indicated by her symptoms of intermenstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, and menorrhagia, as well as her age. While GnRH agonists may temporarily reduce the size of the fibroids, they are not a long-term solution.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. The pain is intermittent, concentrated in the right iliac fossa, and is rated at a 7/10 intensity. The patient is experiencing nausea and has vomited twice. She reports her last menstrual cycle was 4 weeks ago. An ultrasound of the abdomen shows a whirlpool pattern in the right iliac fossa. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Explanation:

      On ultrasound imaging, the presence of a whirlpool sign and free fluid may indicate ovarian torsion. This sign occurs when a structure twists upon itself. It is important to note that appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy do not show this sign on imaging. Additionally, the pain associated with Mittelschmerz is typically less severe and would not be accompanied by the ultrasound finding.

      Understanding Ovarian Torsion

      Ovarian torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This condition can be partial or complete and may also affect the fallopian tube, which is then referred to as adnexal torsion. Women who have an ovarian mass, are of reproductive age, pregnant, or have ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are at a higher risk of developing ovarian torsion.

      The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is colicky in nature. Patients may also experience vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Upon examination, adnexal tenderness may be detected, and an ultrasound may show free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of pregnancy two weeks ago at 8 weeks gestation. She calls the doctor's office, worried because her home pregnancy test is still positive. What is the maximum amount of time after a termination that a positive pregnancy test is considered normal?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. However, if the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it could indicate an incomplete abortion or a persistent trophoblast, which requires further examination. Therefore, any other options suggesting otherwise are incorrect.

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 20-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department in a septic and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department in a septic and drowsy state. According to her friend who accompanied her, she has no significant medical history. She has been feeling unwell for the past few days, coinciding with her monthly period. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 39.1 °C, a blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. Her respiratory examination is normal, but she groans when her lower abdomen is palpated.

      Based on the following investigations, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Haemoglobin: 109 g/l (normal value: 115–155 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC): 16.1 × 109/l (normal value: 4–11 × 109/l)
      Platelets: 85 × 109/l (normal value: 150–400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal value: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine: 175 μmol/l (normal value: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Lumbar puncture: No white cells or organisms seen
      MSU: White cells +, red cells +

      Your Answer: Toxic shock syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Drowsy, Septic Patient with Menstrual Period: A Case Study

      A female patient presents with evidence of severe sepsis during her menstrual period. The cause is not immediately apparent on examination or lumbar puncture, but her blood work indicates an infective process with elevated white cell count, reduced platelet count, and acute kidney injury. The differential diagnosis includes toxic shock syndrome, which should prompt an examination for a retained tampon and treatment with a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Bacterial meningitis is ruled out due to a normal lumbar puncture. Gram-negative urinary tract infection is unlikely without a history of urinary symptoms or definitive evidence in the urine. Appendicitis is not consistent with the patient’s history or physical exam. Viral meningitis is also unlikely due to the absence of headache and neck stiffness, as well as a normal lumbar puncture. With increased public awareness of the danger of retained tampons, toxic shock syndrome is becoming a rare occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with abdominal distension due to ascites. On examination, there is symmetrical distension of the abdomen and a palpable pelvic mass in the left iliac fossa. On closer questioning, she also admits to being ‘off her food’ and has lost a stone in weight over the last 3 weeks.
      Which one of the following types of ovarian mass is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma

      Correct Answer: Serous adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Ovarian tumours are mostly epithelial in nature, comprising 90% of all cases. Serous tumours are the most common type, accounting for 50% of ovarian cancers and 20% of benign tumours. Although the 5-year survival rate is improving, it remains low at around 40% in the UK. These tumours typically affect postmenopausal women, with over 80% of cases occurring in those over 50 years old. Ovarian tumours can be benign, invasive or malignant, with different pathological subtypes. Mucinous cystadenomas are common in women aged 20-50 years and can be large and multilocular, with a risk of pseudomyxoma peritonei if they rupture. Brenner tumours are rare and often found incidentally, while teratomas are non-seminomatous germ cell tumours that may contain multiple types of tissue. Clear cell carcinomas are rare and have a worse prognosis than serous tumours, growing rapidly and being associated with endometriosis. Surgical removal is the preferred treatment for most ovarian tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (11/20) 55%
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