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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. During examination, her heart rate is 85 beats per minute, blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform a serum beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) blood test and repeat in 48 hours

      Correct Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman who is 4 weeks postpartum and breastfeeding presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 4 weeks postpartum and breastfeeding presents with a history of a painful, erythematosus breast for the past 24 hours.

      Her blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg, her heart rate is 72 beats per minute and her temperature is 37.2 degrees celsius. On examination her left breast is tender and erythematosus and warm to touch. There is no palpable lump and no visible fissure. You take a sample of breast milk to send for culture.

      What is the most appropriate first line management?

      Your Answer: Advise to continue breastfeeding and use simple analgesia and warm compresses

      Explanation:

      When managing mastitis in breastfeeding women, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding while using simple analgesia and warm compresses. If breastfeeding is too painful, expressing milk by hand or using a pump is advised to prevent milk stasis, which is often the cause of lactational mastitis. According to NICE clinical knowledge summaries (CKS), oral antibiotics are only necessary if there is an infected nipple fissure, symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal, or breast milk culture is positive. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic for 10-14 days, while erythromycin or clarithromycin can be used for penicillin-allergic patients. Referral to a surgical team in the hospital is only necessary if a breast abscess is suspected, which is unlikely if there is no palpable lump in the breast.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 16 weeks gestation visits her doctor with concerns...

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    • A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 16 weeks gestation visits her doctor with concerns about a new rash on her 6-year-old daughter's arm that appeared 2 days ago. The rash looks vesicular, and the mother reports that there is a chickenpox outbreak at school. The patient is unsure if she had chickenpox in her childhood.

      What should be the next step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Check the patient's varicella-zoster antibodies

      Explanation:

      The first step in managing chickenpox exposure during pregnancy is to confirm the patient’s immunity by checking her varicella-zoster antibodies. If the woman is unsure about her past exposure to chickenpox, this test will determine if she has antibodies to the virus. If the test confirms her immunity, no further action is necessary. Administering the varicella-zoster vaccine or IV immunoglobulin is not appropriate in this situation. Neglecting to check the patient’s immunity status can put her and her unborn child at risk.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - You are working at a prenatal care center. A couple comes in who...

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    • You are working at a prenatal care center. A couple comes in who are 28 weeks pregnant. They had difficulty getting pregnant naturally but were able to conceive through their second attempt at IVF. This is their first child. During their 14 week ultrasound, the sonographer expressed concern about the placement of the placenta and they have returned for a follow-up scan today, which confirms the initial finding. What is the probable anomaly?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      A study conducted in Norway in 2006 revealed that singleton pregnancies conceived through assisted fertilization had a six-fold higher risk of placenta praevia compared to naturally conceived pregnancies. The risk of placenta previa was also nearly three-fold higher in pregnancies following assisted fertilization for mothers who had conceived both naturally and through assisted fertilization. This abnormal placental placement is believed to be linked to the abnormal ovarian stimulation hormones that occur during IVF. Additionally, the incidence of placenta praevia is associated with previous caesarean sections, multiparity, and previous gynaecological surgeries, while the incidence of other options given increases with the number of previous caesarean sections.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman, para 2+ 0, has given birth to a healthy baby....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, para 2+ 0, has given birth to a healthy baby. The third stage of labor was actively managed with Syntocinon, cord clamping, and controlled cord traction. The midwives examined the placenta, which appeared complete. However, the woman is experiencing postpartum bleeding and has lost an estimated 1,500 ml of blood. She has no prior medical history. What is the initial pharmacological treatment of choice to stop the bleeding?

      Your Answer: IV syntocinon

      Explanation:

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) caused by uterine atony can be treated with various medical options including oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Initially, non-pharmacological methods such as bimanual uterine compression and catheter insertion should be used. RCOG guidelines recommend starting with Syntocinon 5 Units by slow IV injection, followed by ergometrine (avoid in hypertension), and then a Syntocinon infusion. Carboprost (avoid in asthma) and misoprostol 1000 micrograms rectally are then recommended. If pharmacological management fails, surgical haemostasis should be initiated. In a major PPH, ABCD management should be initiated, including fluids while waiting for appropriate cross-matched blood. Primary PPH is defined as a loss of greater than 500 ml of blood within 24 hours of delivery, with minor PPH being a loss of 500-1000 ml of blood and major PPH being over 1000 ml of blood. The causes of primary PPH can be categorized into the 4 T’s: Tone, Tissue, Trauma, and Thrombin. Uterine atony is the most common cause of primary PPH.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman is 39 weeks pregnant with twins (dichorionic diamniotic). During labor,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is 39 weeks pregnant with twins (dichorionic diamniotic). During labor, the midwife observes the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. The emergency button is pressed, and the woman is rushed for an emergency C-section. What is the most probable cause of umbilical cord prolapse?

      Your Answer: Artificial amniotomy

      Explanation:

      The most probable reason for umbilical cord prolapse is artificial rupture of membranes. Factors such as cephalic presentation, nulliparity, and prolonged pregnancy decrease the chances of cord prolapse. Prostaglandins do not significantly affect the risk of cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 7 - You are evaluating a 35-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman who has presented...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 35-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman who has presented for her initial prenatal visit. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant.
      During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes which was managed with insulin therapy. However, her blood glucose levels are currently within normal limits. She is presently taking 400 µcg folic acid supplements and has no other medication history.
      At this clinic visit, a complete set of blood and urine samples are collected.
      What alterations would you anticipate observing in a healthy pregnant patient compared to before pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased serum creatinine

      Correct Answer: Decreased serum urea

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy

      The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.

      The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.

      The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,

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  • Question 8 - Which of these is a contraindication for using epidural anaesthesia during delivery? ...

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    • Which of these is a contraindication for using epidural anaesthesia during delivery?

      Your Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      Epidural anaesthesia is contraindicated in labour only if the patient has coagulopathy. Other than that, epidural anaesthesia is a highly effective method for pain management during labour. In fact, it is one of the regional anaesthetic techniques available, with non-regional techniques being more commonly used. Non-regional techniques include inhaled nitrous oxide and systemic analgesics like pethidine. However, epidural anaesthesia has been associated with longer labour and increased operative vaginal delivery. There is no evidence to suggest that epidural analgesia increases the risk of Caesarean delivery or post-partum backache. For more information, refer to the Epidural Analgesia in Labour guideline.

      Understanding Labour and its Stages

      Labour is the process of giving birth, which is characterized by the onset of regular and painful contractions that are associated with cervical dilation and descent of the presenting part. Signs of labour include regular and painful uterine contractions, a show (shedding of mucous plug), rupture of the membranes (not always), and shortening and dilation of the cervix.

      Labour can be divided into three stages. The first stage starts from the onset of true labour to when the cervix is fully dilated. The second stage is from full dilation to delivery of the fetus, while the third stage is from delivery of the fetus to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered.

      Monitoring is an essential aspect of labour. Fetal heart rate (FHR) should be monitored every 15 minutes (or continuously via CTG), contractions should be assessed every 30 minutes, maternal pulse rate should be assessed every 60 minutes, and maternal blood pressure and temperature should be checked every 4 hours. Vaginal examination (VE) should be offered every 4 hours to check the progression of labour, and maternal urine should be checked for ketones and protein every 4 hours.

      In summary, understanding the stages of labour and the importance of monitoring can help ensure a safe and successful delivery.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman, who is 12 weeks pregnant, visits her midwife for a check-up. She has a BMI of 33 kg/m² and no other medical conditions. The patient is anxious about gestational diabetes, which she believes is common in larger women. She has one child previously, a boy, who was born after a complicated and prolonged delivery. He weighed 4.6kg at birth and required no additional post-natal care. There is no family history of any pregnancy-related issues. What is the most appropriate test to address her concerns and medical history?

      Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      The preferred method for diagnosing gestational diabetes is still the oral glucose tolerance test.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and undergoing a cardiotocography (CTG) review. Her waters broke 10 hours ago and she has been in labour for 6 hours. This is her first pregnancy and it has been uncomplicated so far. Her Bishop score is 6.

      The CTG findings are as follows:
      - Foetal heart rate 120 bpm (110 - 160)
      - Variability 10 bpm (5 - 25)
      - Decelerations Late, with 50% of contractions absent
      - Contractions 3 per 10 minutes (3 - 4)

      These findings have been consistent for the past 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Perform foetal blood sampling

      Correct Answer: Prepare for category 2 caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Non-reassuring CTG findings during labour can indicate maternal or foetal compromise and require prompt action. Examples of abnormal findings include bradycardia, tachycardia, reduced variability, or prolonged deceleration. If these findings persist, the best course of action is to prepare for a category 2 caesarean section, which is for non-life-threatening maternal or foetal compromise. Augmenting contractions with syntocinon infusion is not recommended, as there is no evidence of its benefit. Increasing the frequency of CTG checks is not the best action, as the definitive action needed is to plan delivery. Tocolysis and a category 3 caesarean section are also not recommended, as they do not resolve the issue quickly enough. Foetal blood sampling is not routinely performed for non-reassuring CTG findings, but may be indicated for abnormal CTG findings to determine the health of the foetus.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel

      Explanation:

      If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

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  • Question 12 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently 29 weeks pregnant and has had no complications thus far. She reports that her palms and soles of her feet have been extremely itchy for the past few days, and the sensation has now spread to her abdomen. However, she feels otherwise healthy and denies experiencing nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be in good health, without signs of jaundice or rash. Her vital signs are normal, and her blood tests are generally unremarkable, except for a slightly elevated bilirubin level.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate topic to discuss with her regarding definitive management?

      Your Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing intense pruritus and has elevated bilirubin levels, which are common symptoms of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Due to the heightened risk of stillbirth, induction of labor at 37 weeks is typically recommended. While a caesarian section at 37 weeks may be considered, there is insufficient evidence to support this approach over induction. Induction at 34 weeks is not advisable, and reassurance with a normal delivery at term is not appropriate. Therefore, a discussion regarding induction at 37 weeks is necessary.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

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  • Question 13 - You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 36-year-old woman during her antenatal check-up. She has recently undergone an anomaly scan and is undergoing a routine review. During the consultation, she expresses her concern about not feeling any fetal movement yet, despite experiencing it by 18 weeks gestation in her previous pregnancies.
      At what point in her gestation would it be appropriate to refer her to the maternal fetal medicine unit for further evaluation?

      Your Answer: 28 weeks

      Correct Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral to a maternal fetal medicine unit is recommended if fetal movements have not been felt by 24 weeks, as reduced movements can be a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia. While most women feel their babies move around 18-20 weeks, it can happen earlier in some cases. Although singular episodes of reduced movements may not be harmful, they can also indicate stillbirths and restricted growth. The absence of movements is particularly concerning and requires further investigation. The RCOG has set the 24 week cut off as a guideline.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational diabetes presents in her second pregnancy. She is at eight weeks’ gestation and attends the midwife booking visit.
      What is the most suitable test to diagnose gestational diabetes in this patient?

      Your Answer: A 2-hour OGTT as soon as possible following the booking visit

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a condition where pregnant women experience high blood sugar levels. It is diagnosed through a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. Women with risk factors such as a BMI over 30, a previous macrosomic baby, a family history of diabetes, or from an area with high diabetes prevalence should be offered the test. Random serum glucose, fasting serum glucose, HbA1c, and urinalysis are not recommended for diagnosis. Gestational diabetes can have negative effects on both the mother and fetus, including fetal macrosomia, stillbirth, neonatal hypoglycemia, and an increased risk of type II diabetes and obesity in the baby’s later life. Women with pre-existing diabetes should have their HbA1c monitored monthly and at booking to assess pregnancy risk, but HbA1c is not used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Early detection and management of gestational diabetes is crucial to prevent complications.

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  • Question 15 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward....

    Correct

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive to start?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at 36-weeks gestation with vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at 36-weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She is conscious and responsive. During the physical examination, her heart rate was 110 bpm, blood pressure was 95/60 mmHg, and O2 saturation was 98%. Neurological examination revealed dilated pupils and brisk reflexes. Laboratory results showed Hb of 118 g/l, platelets of 240 * 109/l, WBC of 6 * 109/l, PT of 11 seconds, and APTT of 28 seconds. What underlying condition could best explain the observed physical exam findings?

      Your Answer: Heroin abuse

      Correct Answer: Cocaine abuse

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in the question suggest that the patient is experiencing placental abruption, which can be caused by cocaine abuse, pre-eclampsia, and HELLP syndrome. The presence of hyperreflexia on physical examination indicates placental abruption, while ruling out HELLP syndrome due to normal blood count results. Dilated pupils and hyperreflexia are consistent with cocaine abuse, while pinpointed pupils are more commonly associated with heroin abuse. Although pre-eclampsia can also lead to placental abruption, the physical exam findings suggest cocaine abuse as the underlying cause. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy is a complication of placental abruption, not a cause, and the normal PTT and APTT results make it less likely to be present.

      Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, preterm labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.

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  • Question 17 - A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly while she was shopping 3 hours ago. She reports not having her periods for 8 weeks and being sexually active. She also has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease 4 years ago. On examination, there is generalised guarding and signs of peritonism. An urgent ultrasound scan reveals free fluid in the pouch of Douglas with an empty uterine cavity, and a positive urine βhCG. Basic bloods are sent. Suddenly, her condition deteriorates, and her vital signs are BP 85/50 mmHg, HR 122/min, RR 20/min, and O2 saturation 94%.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Resuscitate and arrange for laparoscopic exploration

      Correct Answer: Resuscitate and arrange for emergency laparotomy

      Explanation:

      There is a strong indication of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy based on the clinical presentation. The patient’s condition has deteriorated significantly, with symptoms of shock and a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg. Due to her unstable cardiovascular state, urgent consideration must be given to performing an emergency laparotomy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

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  • Question 18 - Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Cooked crabmeat

      Correct Answer: Cooked liver

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is recommended to avoid consuming liver due to its high levels of vitamin A, which is a teratogen.

      Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women

      During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.

      Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended for pregnant women. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided as it may be teratogenic. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and women who have stopped smoking may use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) after discussing the risks and benefits with their healthcare provider.

      Pregnant women should also be cautious of food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella. They should avoid certain foods such as unpasteurized milk, ripened soft cheeses, pate, undercooked meat, raw or partially cooked eggs, and meat, especially poultry. Women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits at work, and the Health and Safety Executive should be consulted if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy.

      Air travel during pregnancy should also be approached with caution. Women who are over 37 weeks pregnant with a singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel. Women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid air travel once they are over 32 weeks pregnant. Pregnant women should also avoid certain activities such as high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving. However, sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes during pregnancy.

      Overall, pregnant women should be informed of these lifestyle recommendations to ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of harm to the baby.

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  • Question 19 - A 26 year-old woman with type 1 diabetes arrives at the maternity department...

    Correct

    • A 26 year-old woman with type 1 diabetes arrives at the maternity department at 25+3 weeks gestation with tightness and a thin watery discharge. Her pregnancy has been uneventful thus far, with all scans showing normal results. She maintains good diabetes control by using an insulin pump.

      During a speculum examination, no fluid is observed, and the cervical os is closed. A fetal fibronectin (fFN) test is conducted, which returns a positive result of 300.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit for 2 doses IM steroids and monitor BMs closely, adjusting pump accordingly

      Explanation:

      Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein that is released from the gestational sac and is associated with early labor if levels are high. However, a positive result does not guarantee premature labor. Obstetric teams can use this information to prepare for the possibility of premature labor by informing neonatal intensive care and administering steroids to aid in neonatal lung maturity. In this case, the patient is at high risk for premature labor and experiencing tightenings, so further monitoring is necessary before discharge.

      Antibiotics may be necessary if the patient had spontaneously ruptured her membranes, but in this case, a history of watery discharge without fluid seen on speculum examination and a closed os is not enough to initiate antibiotic therapy. However, swabs and urine cultures should be obtained to screen for infection and treat as appropriate since infection can be a factor in premature labor.

      Administering steroids can cause hyperglycemia in diabetics, so blood glucose measurements should be closely monitored. Hyperglycemia in the mother can have adverse effects on the fetus, so hourly blood glucose measurements should be taken, and additional insulin given as needed. If blood glucose levels are difficult to control, a sliding scale should be initiated according to local protocol.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old woman is being monitored with cardiotocography (CTG) during her labor. What...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman is being monitored with cardiotocography (CTG) during her labor. What would be considered an 'abnormal' characteristic of the CTG tracings?

      Your Answer: A single prolonged deceleration lasting 3 minutes or more

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (13/20) 65%
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