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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old female patient complained of two months of painless vaginal bleeding. The endometrial thickness is 6mm, according to transvaginal ultrasound. To rule out endometrial cancer, you plan to send this patient to a gynaecologist for an endometrial biopsy with or without hysteroscopy. Which of the following characteristics in your medical history is linked to a higher risk of endometrial cancer?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome associated with chronic anovulation
Explanation:Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) have a 2.7-fold increased risk for developing endometrial cancer. A major factor for this increased malignancy risk is prolonged exposure of the endometrium to unopposed oestrogen that results from anovulation.
Additionally, secretory endometrium of some women with PCOS undergoing ovulation induction or receiving exogenous progestin exhibits progesterone resistance accompanied by dysregulation of gene expression controlling steroid action and cell proliferation.
Other risk factors include nulliparity, early menarche and late menopause, obesity and family history of endometrial cancer. Which rules out all the other options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?
Your Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:
– The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other.
– The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane.
– The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes.
– The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?
Your Answer: 2nd Meiotic Division
Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions
Explanation:During the early fetal life, oogonia proliferate by mitosis. They enlarge to form primary oocyte before birth. No primary oocyte is form after birth. The primary oocyte is dormant is the ovarian follicles until puberty. As the follicle matures, the primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and gives rise to secondary oocyte. During ovulation the secondary oocytes starts the second meiotic division but is only completed if a sperm penetrates it. This 1st and 2nd meiotic division is known as ootidogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Your Answer: Tubal ectopic pregnancy.
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection.
Explanation:Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual activity results in 5-6 mL of blood. She had never had a cervical cancer screening. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis is normal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Do a Cervical Screening test as well liquid base cytology
Explanation:Postcoital bleeding refers to spotting or bleeding unrelated to menstruation that occurs during or after sexual intercourse. It can be a sign of serious underlying pathology and is usually alarming for patients. About one-third of patients also have abnormal uterine bleeding that is not associated with coitus and about 15 percent have dyspareunia. The most serious cause of postcoital bleeding is cervical cancer. About 11 percent of women with cervical cancer present with postcoital bleeding. The patient should undergo cervical cancer screening according to local guidelines. Postcoital bleeding is not an indication for cervical cytology if previous screening tests are up-to-date and normal.
Cervical screening and liquid based cytology are superior to transvaginal ultrasound.
Coagulation profile can be done if cytology is normal to rule out bleeding diathesis.
Tranexamic acid can be considered once malignancy is ruled out and cause of bleeding has been established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70 year old patient is being reviewed in clinic for post menopausal bleeding. Examination reveals a lesion of the vaginal wall. Which is the most common type of primary vaginal cancer?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:The vaginal epithelium is made of squamous cells. Hence the most common carcinoma that occurs in the Vagina is squamous cell carcinoma. Diagnosis is made with vaginal biopsy. Usually the pain only presents if the disease extends beyond the vagina involving the perineal nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding renal blood flow in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Increases by approximately 25%
Correct Answer: Increases by approximately 50%
Explanation:Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) rises immediately after conception and increases by about 50 per cent overall, reaching its maximum at the end of the first trimester. GFR then falls by about 20 per cent in the third trimester, returning to pre-pregnancy levels within 12 weeks of delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due to spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and delivered at term via vaginal delivery. 24 hours since rupture of her membranes, no spontaneous labour was noted, hence a syntocinon/oxytocin infusion (10 units in 1L of Hartmann solution) was started at 3DmL/hour and increased to 120 mL over 9 hours. After 10 hours of infusion, during which Syntocinon dosage was increased to 30 units per litre, contractions were noted. Which is the most common complication of Syntocinon infusion?
Your Answer: Fetal distress.
Explanation:In this case, induction of labour at 37 weeks of gestation was necessary due to the absence of spontaneous of labour 24 hours after rupture of membranes. High doses of Syntocin and large volume of fluids may be required particularly when induction is done before term.
Syntocin infusion can lead to uterine hypertonus and tetany which can result in fetal distress at any dosage. This is a common reason to decrease or stop the infusion and an indication for Caesarean delivery due to fetal distress
Uterine rupture can occur as a result of Syntocin infusion especially when the accompanying fluids do not contain electrolytes, which puts the patient at risk for water intoxication.
Maternal hypotension results from Syntocin infusion, not hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work. Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction.There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect. Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?
Your Answer: Would it be okay if your mother stepped out of the room so we can talk about your results?
Correct Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?
Explanation:SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
– Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
– Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
– Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
– Knowledge:
Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
– Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
– Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases. In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal. When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with. For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later. The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.
This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.
This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.
While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) is structurally similar to which of the following hormones?
Your Answer: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Explanation:TSH, FSH, LH and HCG are all similar glycoproteins. These hormones consist of a common α-subunit and specific β-subunit. All are glycosylated, which determines their bioactivity and half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile are consistent with PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. You plan to initiate Clomiphene. According to NICE guidance how long should treatment continue for (assuming patient remains non-pregnant)?
Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Treatment with Clomiphene should not exceed 6 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Changes in the urinary tract system in pregnancy include:
Your Answer: Marked increase in both GFR & RPF when the patient is supine
Correct Answer: Increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Explanation:Pregnancy involves remarkable orchestration of physiologic changes. The kidneys are central players in the evolving hormonal milieu of pregnancy, responding and contributing to the changes in the environment for the pregnant woman and foetus. The functional impact of pregnancy on kidney physiology is widespread, involving practically all aspects of kidney function. The glomerular filtration rate increases 50% with subsequent decrease in serum creatinine, urea, and uric acid values.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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You are attending the labour of a patient who has had a prolonged 1st stage of labour. You note the fetal head start to retract after being tightly applied to the vulva (turtle-neck sign). What is the next most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: McRoberts' manoeuvre
Explanation:Call for help.
• Ensure personnel are available to ‘scribe’.
Document the time the head delivered, which shoulder is anterior (this is the arm most vulnerable to injury) and the times at which each manoeuvre is employed.
• Drop the level of the delivery bed as low as it will go, and flatten the back of the bed so the woman is completely flat. Remove the foot of the bed to allow access.
• Assess for and perform an episiotomy, if needed.
• Using one assistant on each of the mother’s legs, flex and abduct the legs at the hip (thighs to abdomen, known as McRoberts manoeuvre). This flattens the lumbosacral spine and will facilitate delivery is around 90 per cent of cases.
• If this fails, suprapubic pressure should be
applied by another assistant. This should be
applied over the posterior aspect of the anterior fetal shoulder and will act to push the shoulders together. It can be used in a constant and then rocking motion.
• If both these fail, then internal manoeuvres are necessary. The order of these will depend on the skill and experience of the person conducting the delivery and the individual case. These manoeuvres have been named after famous obstetricians, but it is the process rather than the name that is important:
• An attempt can be made to rotate the baby, so that the shoulders enter the diagonal to allow delivery. The first procedure is usually to insert a hand behind the anterior shoulder, and push it towards the chest (Rubin II). This will adduct the shoulders then push them into the diagonal. This can be combined with pressure on the
anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder
to aid rotation (Woods’ screw). If this fails,
an attempt can be made to rotate the baby
in the opposite direction (reverse Woods’
screw). Delivery of the posterior arm can be
attempted passing a hand into the vagina, in
front of the posterior shoulder and deliver
the posterior arm by swinging it in front of
the fetal chest.
If these all fail, the patient can be moved on to all fours as this increases the anterior–posterior diameter of the inlet. In this position, the posterior arm can be delivered.
After this, manoeuvres of last resort include a symphysiotomy, in which the maternal symphysis is divided, Zavanelli’s, in which the head is reduced back into the vagina and a Caesarean section performed and intentional fracture of the fetal
clavicle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The rectus sheath is formed by which of the following?
Your Answer: Rectus abdominus and pyramidalis aponeuroses
Correct Answer: aponeuroses of transversus abdominis, external and internal oblique
Explanation:The rectus sheath is formed by the decussation and interweaving of the aponeuroses of the fl at abdominal muscles. The external oblique aponeurosis contributes to the anterior wall of the sheath throughout its length. The superior two thirds of the internal oblique aponeurosis splits into two layers (laminae) at the lateral border of the rectus abdominis; one lamina passing anterior to the muscle and the other passing posterior to it. The anterior lamina joins the aponeurosis of the external oblique to form the anterior layer of the rectus sheath. The posterior lamina joins the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis to form the posterior layer of the rectus sheath.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is?
Your Answer: Transport the ovum towards the uterus
Explanation:Cilia are small hair line projections in the fallopian tube. Their main function is to transport the egg through he fallopian tube towards the uterus. It is present in many other tubular organs and its function varies accordingly to the organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your office complaining of increased frequency and urgency along with dysuria. Further investigations established the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and the culture results are pending. The patient also mentioned a history of allergic reaction to penicillin which manifest as a rash. For treating this patient, which one of the following would be the antibiotic of choice?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Cephalexin
Explanation:The best antibiotic of choice for empirical treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy is cephalexin. Nitrofurantoin and amoxicillin-clavulanate are second and third in-line respectively.
Patients allergic to penicillin, which is manifested as a rash can also be safely treated with cephalexin. But cephalosporins are not recommended if the presentation of allergic reaction to penicillin was anaphylactic, instead they should be treated with nitrofurantoin.NOTE– Asymptomatic bacteriuria, such as >10 to power of 5 colony count in urine culture of an asymptomatic woman in pregnancy, should best be treated with a one week course of antibiotics, followed by confirming the resolution of infection via a urine culture repeated 48 hours after the completion of treatment.
Amoxicillin without clavulanate is recommended only in cases were the susceptibility of the organism is proven.
Macrolides like clarithromycin are usually not recommended for the treatment of UTI.
Aminoglycosides are coming under category D drugs should be avoided during pregnancy, unless there is a severe indication of gram negative sepsis.
Tetracycline, due to their potential teratogenic effects, are contraindicated in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following fasting plasma glucose (FPG) values for OGTT (Oral glucose tolerance test) is diagnostic of gestational diabetes according to the WHO criteria?
Your Answer: FPG 5.3mmol/L; 2 hour 8.6mmol/L
Correct Answer: FPG 6.1mmol/L; 2 hour 7.8mmol/L
Explanation:There are several criteria that aid in the diagnosis of gestational diabetes in pregnancy including NICE, WHO and modified WHO:
GDM Diagnostic Criteria:
NICE: Immediate FBG >5.6, 2 hour glucose >7.8
WHO: Immediate FBG >6.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8
Modified WHO: Immediate FBG >7.1, 2 hour glucose >7.8Random glucose and OGTT 2 hour readings of >11.1 are diagnostic of diabetes in non-pregnant states but are not part of the gestational diabetes criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the definition of premature menopause?
Your Answer: Menopause at or before 40 years of age
Explanation:Menopause is defined as the cessation of menstruation for a period of 12 months. Premature menopause is defined as cessation of menstruation before the age of 40.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the typical weight of a term uterus?
Your Answer: 1200g
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium. Weight of the uterus increases from 50–60 g prior to pregnancy to 1000 g by term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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