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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and weight loss that have persisted for 2 months. She has never undergone cervical screening and is not taking any medication. During speculum examination, the doctor observes cervix ulceration and urgently refers her to a gynaecologist. Subsequent investigations reveal that she has cervical cancer.
In this patient, which lymph node region is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread initially?Your Answer: Deep inguinal nodes
Correct Answer: Internal iliac nodes
Explanation:The cervix is drained by the internal iliac lymph nodes. These nodes are responsible for draining the pelvic structures, including the cervix and lower part of the uterus, making them the most likely location for lymphatic spread. They also drain the lower part of the rectum and the anal canal above the pectinate line. The deep inguinal nodes are not involved in this process as they receive drainage from the lower extremity and perineum. The inferior mesenteric nodes primarily drain the hindgut structures, while the para-aortic nodes drain the ovaries, which develop in the abdomen and move down the posterior abdominal wall during fetal development.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is referred to the medical assessment unit by his physician to investigate the possibility of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after presenting with a fever of 38.5ºC. His recent urea and electrolyte results indicate declining kidney function, with a creatinine level three times higher than his usual baseline. What is the pathophysiology underlying TTP?
Your Answer: Autoimmune destruction of platelets
Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally
Explanation:The absence of a plasma protease responsible for breaking down ultra-large multimers of von Willebrand factor (vWF) is the cause of TTP. This results in the accumulation of unusually large vWF multimers in the plasma of TTP patients. It is important to note that autoimmune destruction of red blood cells is a different form of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia and is not related to TTP. Similarly, autoimmune destruction of platelets is seen in ITP, not TTP.
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura: Understanding its Pathogenesis, Features, and Causes
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare condition that typically affects adult females. Its pathogenesis involves the abnormal formation of large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor, which causes platelets to clump within vessels. In TTP, there is a deficiency of ADAMTS13, a metalloprotease enzyme that breaks down these large multimers. This deficiency leads to the formation of microemboli, resulting in fluctuating neuro signs, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. TTP overlaps with haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).
TTP can be caused by various factors, including post-infection (e.g., urinary, gastrointestinal), pregnancy, drugs (such as ciclosporin, oral contraceptive pill, penicillin, clopidogrel, and acyclovir), tumours, SLE, and HIV. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of TTP to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
In summary, TTP is a rare condition that affects adult females and is caused by the abnormal formation of large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor. Its features include fluctuating neuro signs, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. TTP can be caused by various factors, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for proper treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a haemoglobin level of 72 g/dL. The haematology lab performed a blood film and found numerous schistocytes and occasional reticulocytes, with no other erythrocyte abnormalities. Neutrophils and platelets were normal. The patient has a mid-line sternotomy scar, bruising to the arms, a metallic click to the first heart sound, and a resting tremor in the left hand. What is the most likely cause of his anaemia?
Your Answer: Intravascular haemolysis
Explanation:Schistocytes on a blood film are indicative of intravascular haemolysis, which is the most likely cause in this clinical scenario. The presence of a mid-line sternotomy scar, metallic click to the first heart sound, and warfarin prescription suggests a metal heart valve, which can cause sheering of red blood cells and subsequent intravascular haemolysis. Vasculitis, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), and B12 deficiency are less likely causes in this case.
Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films
Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.
Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.
In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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An 80-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of passing fresh red blood in his stool, tenesmus, and feeling lethargic for the past 2 months. During the digital rectal examination, no abnormalities are detected. However, an urgent flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals a mass in the sigmoid colon. Biopsies of the lesion confirm the presence of adenocarcinoma. In this patient, which lymph node region is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread initially?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric nodes
Explanation:The sigmoid colon’s lymphatic drainage flows into the inferior mesenteric nodes. This is due to the embryological development of the vasculature supply in the hindgut region, which includes the transverse colon down to the rectum. From there, lymph eventually passes to the para-aortic nodes. The axillary nodes are not involved in this process, as they drain the upper limb and lateral breast tissue. Similarly, the internal iliac nodes drain different areas, including the inferior rectum, anal canal above the pectinate line, and pelvic viscera.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits the oncology clinic after being diagnosed with non-metastatic breast cancer. She is started on neoadjuvant chemotherapy using docetaxel.
What is the mechanism of action for this form of chemotherapy?Your Answer: Degrades preformed DNA
Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly
Explanation:Docetaxel, a taxane chemotherapy agent, works by reducing the amount of free tubulin through the prevention of microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly during the metaphase stage of cell division, ultimately hindering mitosis.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 44-year-old man presents with a widespread maculopapular rash and fever after undergoing haematopoietic cell transplantation for multiple myeloma. The diagnosis is GVHD. What cell type is primarily responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Donor T cells
Explanation:GVHD is a condition where T cells from the donor tissue (the graft) attack healthy cells in the recipient (the host). This can occur after a haematopoietic cell transplantation and is diagnosed based on symptoms such as fever, rash, and gastrointestinal issues. Antigen-presenting cells activate the donor T cells, but do not attack host cells. B cells, host T cells, and mast cells do not contribute to the attack on host tissue in GVHD.
Understanding Graft Versus Host Disease
Graft versus host disease (GVHD) is a complication that can occur after bone marrow or solid organ transplantation. It happens when the T cells in the donor tissue attack the recipient’s cells. This is different from transplant rejection, where the recipient’s immune cells attack the donor tissue. GVHD is diagnosed using the Billingham criteria, which require that the transplanted tissue contains functioning immune cells, the donor and recipient are immunologically different, and the recipient is immunocompromised.
The incidence of GVHD varies, but it can occur in up to 50% of patients who receive allogeneic bone marrow transplants. Risk factors include poorly matched donor and recipient, the type of conditioning used before transplantation, gender disparity between donor and recipient, and the source of the graft.
Acute and chronic GVHD are considered separate syndromes. Acute GVHD typically occurs within 100 days of transplantation and affects the skin, liver, and gastrointestinal tract. Chronic GVHD may occur after acute disease or arise de novo and has a more varied clinical picture.
Diagnosis of GVHD is largely clinical and based on the exclusion of other pathology. Signs and symptoms of acute GVHD include a painful rash, jaundice, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Chronic GVHD can affect the skin, eyes, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs.
Treatment of GVHD involves immunosuppression and supportive measures. Intravenous steroids are the mainstay of treatment for severe cases of acute GVHD, while extended courses of steroid therapy are often needed in chronic GVHD. Second-line therapies include anti-TNF, mTOR inhibitors, and extracorporeal photopheresis. Topical steroid therapy may be sufficient in mild disease with limited cutaneous involvement. However, excessive immunosuppression may increase the risk of infection and limit the beneficial graft-versus-tumor effect of the transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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As a medical student working on a medical ward, you have a patient who is 12 hours post a blood transfusion. The patient has developed a new cough and difficulty breathing, and their observations show new hypotension and a fever. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: Transfusion-related acute lung injury
Explanation:Transfusion reactions can be classified as immunological or non-immunological. Immunological reactions are caused by anti-HLA or other antibodies in the donor blood, while non-immunological reactions are triggered by an inflammatory cascade with lipids found in blood products.
Symptoms of transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) include dyspnea, cough, fever, and hypotension. Signs and investigations may reveal hypoxemia and pulmonary infiltrates visible on a chest x-ray.
Fluid overload, on the other hand, typically presents with dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
Severe allergic reactions are rare but may occur when the immune system attacks the donated blood, usually due to a mismatch in blood type. Symptoms may include urticaria, edema, dizziness, and headaches.
Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis is commencing treatment with 6-mercaptopurine following a recurrence of his symptoms.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Decreases purine synthesis
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis, a type of inflammatory bowel disease characterized by bloody diarrhea, can be treated with various medications such as sulfasalazine, infliximab, 6-mercaptopurine, and in severe cases, a colectomy. 6-mercaptopurine is a purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, leading to decreased purine synthesis and reduced DNA synthesis. It is commonly used to treat non-malignant conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, and inflammatory bowel disease. On the other hand, 5-fluorouracil is a pyrimidine analogue that acts as an antimetabolite, interfering with DNA synthesis, and is used to treat colorectal and pancreatic cancer. Methotrexate, an antimetabolite that acts as a folic acid analogue, is widely used in many malignancies and non-malignant conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and inflammatory bowel disease. Bleomycin, doxorubicin, and daunorubicin cause free radical formation, leading to breaks in the DNA strand, while busulfan is an alkylating agent that causes cross-links in the DNA and is typically used to ablate a patient’s bone marrow before a bone marrow transplant.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past month. He denies any recent injury or trauma to his back. The pain is constant and is localized around the T12 and L1 vertebrae. Additionally, he has been experiencing night sweats and has lost around one stone in weight over the past two months, despite having a normal appetite. He also reports experiencing paraesthesia in the first three and a half digits of his right hand. What is the most probable cause of this patient's back pain?
Your Answer: Prostatic carcinoma with secondary metastasis
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Multiple Myeloma and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Multiple myeloma (MM) is a condition that results in the increased production of amyloid light chains, which can deposit in various organs, including the narrow carpal tunnel. This deposition can cause carpal tunnel syndrome, which is characterized by median nerve neuropathy. MM is caused by the clonal proliferation of monoclonal antibodies, which can lead to increased plasma volume and free light chains in the blood. These free light chains can then be processed into insoluble fibrillation proteins and deposited in various tissues throughout the body, resulting in amyloid deposits.
It is important to note the ALARM signs and symptoms in the clinical history, such as unexplained weight loss and night sweats, which can indicate malignancy. In this case, MM and prostatic carcinoma are the two most likely options. However, the absence of urinary symptoms in this patient makes MM more likely. It is important to consider that an elderly gentleman presenting with low back pain could suggest secondary metastases to axial vertebral bone from primary prostatic carcinoma and should be high up on the list of differentials.
In summary, carpal tunnel syndrome can be a result of amyloid deposition in the carpal tunnel due to MM. It is important to consider the ALARM signs and symptoms in the clinical history to determine the likelihood of malignancy, and to consider other potential causes of symptoms such as vertebral compression fracture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An eager nursing student comes to you with a set of inquiries regarding blood transfusion reactions. Which of her subsequent statements is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia may occur in women with a prior pregnancy
Correct Answer: Graft versus host disease involves neutrophil proliferation
Explanation:A helpful mnemonic for remembering transfusion reactions is Got a bad unit. Each letter represents a potential complication:
G – Graft vs. Host disease
O – Overload
T – Thrombocytopenia
A – Alloimmunization
B – Blood pressure unstable
A – Acute hemolytic reaction
D – Delayed hemolytic reaction
U – Urticaria
N – Neutrophilia
I – Infection
T – Transfusion-associated lung injuryGraft vs. Host disease occurs when the patient’s own lymphocytes are similar to the donor’s lymphocytes, causing severe complications. Thrombocytopenia may occur a few days after transfusion and may resolve on its own. Patients with IGA antibodies require IgA deficient blood transfusions.
Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with acute onset pain in her hands for the past 2 hours. She has a history of recurrent infections. Physical examination shows tender diffuse swelling of her hands bilaterally.
Her blood tests show:
Hb 85 g/L Male: (119-150)
Female: (119-150)
Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90 fL (80-100)
Peripheral smear examination shows numerous sickled red blood cells (RBC) and Howell-jolly bodies. Haemoglobin electrophoresis confirms sickle cell disease.
Which of the following is a beneficial prophylactic drug for her?Your Answer: Hydroxyurea
Explanation:Hydroxyurea is utilized in the prophylactic management of sickle cell anemia to prevent painful episodes by increasing the levels of HbF. The management of sickle cell disease involves two aspects: acute episodes and chronic management. Acute episodes are treated with adequate hydration and effective analgesia, while chronic management aims to prevent acute episodes and treat complications. Hydroxyurea has been proven to reduce the frequency of painful crises and the need for blood transfusions by increasing HbF levels, which has a higher affinity for oxygen than haemoglobin A. Acetaminophen is an analgesic that inhibits the cyclooxygenase enzyme and is only useful in mild pain cases. Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic agent that has no role in sickle cell disease management.
Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.
In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic with haemoptysis and is suspected to have lung cancer. During the examination, an enlarged supraclavicular lymph node is detected. What is the most probable feature that will be found on histological examination?
Your Answer: Increased mitoses
Explanation:Malignant cell transformation often results in an increase in mitotic activity. Metastatic cancer rarely exhibits apoptosis. Female somatic cells undergo X chromosome inactivation, resulting in the formation of Barr Bodies.
Characteristics of Malignancy in Histopathology
Histopathology is the study of tissue architecture and cellular changes in disease. In malignancy, there are several distinct characteristics that differentiate it from normal tissue or benign tumors. These features include abnormal tissue architecture, coarse chromatin, invasion of the basement membrane, abnormal mitoses, angiogenesis, de-differentiation, areas of necrosis, and nuclear pleomorphism.
Abnormal tissue architecture refers to the disorganized and irregular arrangement of cells within the tissue. Coarse chromatin refers to the appearance of the genetic material within the nucleus, which appears clumped and irregular. Invasion of the basement membrane is a hallmark of invasive malignancy, as it indicates that the cancer cells have broken through the protective layer that separates the tissue from surrounding structures. Abnormal mitoses refer to the process of cell division, which is often disrupted in cancer cells. Angiogenesis is the process by which new blood vessels are formed, which is necessary for the growth and spread of cancer cells. De-differentiation refers to the loss of specialized functions and characteristics of cells, which is common in cancer cells. Areas of necrosis refer to the death of tissue due to lack of blood supply or other factors. Finally, nuclear pleomorphism refers to the variability in size and shape of the nuclei within cancer cells.
Overall, these characteristics are important for the diagnosis and treatment of malignancy, as they help to distinguish cancer cells from normal tissue and benign tumors. By identifying these features in histopathology samples, doctors can make more accurate diagnoses and develop more effective treatment plans for patients with cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating, reduced appetite, and fatigue that have been worsening for four months. The GP refers her to gynaecology on a two-week-wait pathway for an ultrasound-guided biopsy, which confirms ovarian cancer. A staging CT scan reveals the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes.
Which lymph nodes are the most probable to be affected?Your Answer: Deep inguinal nodes
Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes
Explanation:Metastatic ovarian cancer is often first detected in the para-aortic lymph nodes, as this is where the ovaries drain. The fundus of the uterus drains to the deep inguinal nodes through lymphatics that follow the round ligament. The inferior mesenteric nodes receive drainage from the upper part of the rectum, sigmoid colon, and descending colon. The body of the uterus drains to the iliac nodes through lymphatics that follow the broad ligament, while parts of the cervix may drain to the presacral nodes via lymphatics that follow the uterosacral fold.
Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs
The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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During a placement in general practice, a 56-year-old woman comes in with new nipple discharge and skin dimpling over her breast. The GP conducts a breast examination, including the lymph nodes surrounding the area. Which lymph nodes receive the most breast lymph?
Your Answer: Axilliary lymph nodes
Explanation:The lymphatic system of the breast is responsible for draining excess fluid and waste products. Lymph from the upper outer quadrant of the breast drains to the axillary lymph nodes, while lymph from the inner quadrants drains to the parasternal lymph nodes. Additionally, some lymph from the lower quadrants drains to the inferior phrenic lymph nodes.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male presents to his GP with a 5-day-history of mild scrotal pain. He reports having unprotected sexual intercourse with a new female partner recently. Upon examination, the right hemi-scrotum is swollen, red, and tender with an enlarged epididymis. The patient has a normal glans penis and a present cremasteric reflex.
In this scenario, which lymph nodes are most likely to be enlarged?Your Answer: Internal iliac
Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male is undergoing chemotherapy for testicular cancer and has been prescribed cisplatin. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Prevents microtubule depolymerisation
Correct Answer: Causes cross-linking of DNA
Explanation:Cisplatin causes DNA cross-linking, leading to apoptosis in cancer cells. It is commonly used in chemotherapy for various cancers. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which is not the mechanism of cisplatin. Hydroxyurea inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and is used to treat different diseases. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerization and is used for breast cancer treatment. Fluorouracil blocks thymidylate synthase during S phase, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis, but it is not the mechanism of cisplatin.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with abrupt chest pain that worsens with deep breathing. The patient appears visibly agitated and short of breath, and coughs up a small quantity of blood while waiting. During the examination, the patient displays tachypnea and a red, swollen left leg. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia.
What is the most significant risk factor for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Prostate malignancy
Explanation:Having a malignancy increases the likelihood of developing pulmonary embolism, as all types of cancer are known to increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. However, bronchiectasis, despite causing breathlessness and haemoptysis, is less likely to result in an acute attack and is not a common risk factor for PE. Contrary to popular belief, individuals with a high BMI are more likely to develop blood clots than those with a low BMI. Finally, conditions 4 and 5 are not typically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.
Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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As a medical student working with a geriatric care team, we recently conducted a blood test on a patient with a history of microcytic anemia. Our goal was to determine if a blood transfusion was necessary. At what Hb level is a transfusion typically recommended for elderly patients?
Your Answer: Hb <8g/dl
Correct Answer:
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines, patients who require red blood cell transfusions but do not have major bleeding, acute coronary syndrome, or chronic anemia requiring regular transfusions should receive transfusions with a restrictive threshold. This threshold should be set at 7g/dl, with a target hemoglobin concentration of 7-9 g/dl after transfusion. For patients with acute coronary syndrome, a threshold of 8g/dl and a target hemoglobin concentration of 8-10g/dl after transfusion should be considered. For patients with chronic anemia requiring regular transfusions, individual thresholds and hemoglobin concentration targets should be established.
Understanding Microcytic Anaemia
Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells that result in a decrease in the amount of oxygen carried in the blood. There are several causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. In some cases, microcytosis may be associated with a normal haemoglobin level, which could indicate the possibility of polycythaemia rubra vera. It is important to note that new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be urgently investigated to exclude underlying malignancy.
Beta-thalassaemia minor is a type of microcytic anaemia where the microcytosis is often disproportionate to the anaemia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of microcytic anaemia to determine the appropriate treatment. Iron-deficiency anaemia is the most common cause of microcytic anaemia and can be treated with iron supplements. Thalassaemia may require blood transfusions or bone marrow transplantation. Congenital sideroblastic anaemia may require treatment with vitamin B6 supplements. Lead poisoning can be treated by removing the source of lead exposure and chelation therapy. Overall, early diagnosis and treatment of microcytic anaemia can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient arrives with blunt abdominal trauma and a suspected splenic bleed. The medical team initiates an infusion of tranexamic acid. What is the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid?
Your Answer: Activation of factor VIII
Correct Answer: Inhibition of plasmin
Explanation:The prevention of fibrin degradation is achieved by the inhibition of plasmin through the use of tranexamic acid.
Understanding Tranexamic Acid
Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of lysine that acts as an antifibrinolytic. Its primary function is to bind to lysine receptor sites on plasminogen or plasmin, preventing plasmin from degrading fibrin. This medication is commonly prescribed to treat menorrhagia.
In addition to its use in treating menorrhagia, tranexamic acid has been investigated for its role in trauma. The CRASH 2 trial found that administering tranexamic acid within the first 3 hours of bleeding trauma can be beneficial. In cases of major haemorrhage, tranexamic acid is given as an IV bolus followed by an infusion.
Ongoing research is also exploring the potential of tranexamic acid in treating traumatic brain injury. Overall, tranexamic acid is a medication with important applications in managing bleeding disorders and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is given a significant amount of whole blood transfusion that is three weeks old. How will the blood handle oxygen?
Your Answer: It will have an increased affinity for oxygen
Explanation:Blood that has been stored has a decreased level of 2,3 DPG, resulting in a greater attraction to oxygen and a reduced capacity to release it at tissues that are undergoing metabolism.
Oxygen Transport and Factors Affecting Haemoglobin Saturation
Oxygen transport in the body is mainly carried out by erythrocytes, with only 1% of oxygen being transported as a solution due to its limited solubility. The amount of oxygen transported depends on the concentration of haemoglobin and its degree of saturation. Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of four subunits, with two alpha and two beta subunits forming globin. Haem, which surrounds an iron atom in its ferrous state, can form two additional bonds with oxygen and a polypeptide chain. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction, and the molecular shape of haemoglobin facilitates the binding of subsequent oxygen molecules.
The oxygen dissociation curve describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood, and it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration. The curve can be shifted to the right or left by various factors. Chronic anaemia, for example, causes an increase in 2,3 DPG levels, which shifts the curve to the right, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. The Haldane effect causes a shift to the left, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, while the Bohr effect causes a shift to the right, resulting in enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. Factors that shift the curve to the left include low levels of H+, pCO2, 2,3-DPG, and temperature, as well as the presence of HbF, methaemoglobin, and carboxyhaemoglobin. Factors that shift the curve to the right include raised levels of H+, pCO2, and 2,3-DPG, as well as increased temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a lump on the side of his neck. He reports feeling exhausted and experiencing night sweats. Following a needle core biopsy, the patient is diagnosed with follicular lymphoma. Which chromosomes are linked to this condition through translocation?
Your Answer: 11 and 14
Correct Answer: 14 and 18
Explanation:The translocation of chromosomes is associated with various types of lymphoma and leukaemia. For example, the t(14;18) translocation causes follicular lymphoma by increasing BCL-2 transcription. Similarly, the t(8;14) translocation causes Burkitt lymphoma, while the t(9;22) translocation leads to the Philadelphia chromosome and chronic myeloid leukaemia. Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the t(11;14) translocation. These translocations can help diagnose and classify these haematological malignancies.
Genetics of Haematological Malignancies
Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:
– Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
– t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.
– t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.
– t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.
– t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.
Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 67-year-old hospitalized patient is prescribed a combination of irinotecan and 5-fluorouracil with added folinic acid for metastatic colon cancer. The patient is informed about the significant side effects associated with these drugs, including severe diarrhea, nausea, and fatigue. What is the mechanism of action of irinotecan?
Your Answer: Inhibition of topoisomerase I
Explanation:Irinotecan prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA by inhibiting topoisomerase I, an enzyme that regulates DNA supercoiling during mitosis and meiosis. Other topoisomerase inhibitors include topotecan, etoposide, and teniposide.
Azathioprine is a purine analogue that inhibits DNA polymerase, thereby halting DNA synthesis.
5-fluorouracil is a pyrimidine antagonist that inhibits thymidylate synthase, leading to a reduction in pyrimidine nucleotides.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib and erlotinib have significantly improved the prognosis for patients with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman, previously healthy, visited her doctor complaining of a growing rubbery lump in her neck and night sweats. She was quickly referred to a haematologist who diagnosed her with lymphoma. The patient is currently undergoing chemotherapy for the lymphoma and has come to your clinic with glove-and-stocking distribution paraesthesia.
What medication is the most probable cause of this symptom in this patient?Your Answer: Docetaxel
Correct Answer: Vincristine
Explanation:Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man is admitted to the haematology ward for acute lymphocytic leukaemia treatment. You are consulted due to his complaint of supra-pubic pain and frank haematuria. Upon checking his medication, you observe that he is taking cyclophosphamide and suspect that he may have developed haemorrhagic cystitis from this drug.
What is the primary mode of action of cyclophosphamide?Your Answer: Cell cycle arrest and apoptosis
Correct Answer: Cross-linking in DNA
Explanation:Cyclophosphamide is a medication that is used to treat various types of cancer and induce immunosuppression in patients before stem cell transplantation. It works by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, one of the complications of cyclophosphamide treatment is haemorrhagic cystitis. This occurs because when the liver breaks down cyclophosphamide, it releases a toxic metabolite called acrolein. Acrolein is concentrated in the bladder and triggers an inflammatory response that can lead to haemorrhagic cystitis.
To reduce the risk of haemorrhagic cystitis, doctors can administer MESNA, a drug that conjugates acrolein and reduces the inflammatory response.
Bleomycin, on the other hand, degrades preformed DNA instead of causing cross-linking. Hydroxyurea inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, which decreases DNA synthesis. 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that arrests the cell cycle and induces apoptosis. Vincristine inhibits the formation of microtubules.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy presents to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a history of duodenal atresia, clinodactyly, a wide nasal bridge, and a large tongue. What malignancy is he at an elevated risk for?
Your Answer: Acute leukaemias
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome and Associated Conditions
Down’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is characterized by several physical features such as a wide, flat nasal bridge, macroglossia, and clinodactyly. Other common features include a round face, hypothyroidism, a sandal gap between the toes, and a single palmar crease. Individuals with Down’s syndrome are predisposed to certain conditions such as Alzheimer’s disease and acute leukaemias. However, nephroblastomas, primary bone malignancies, soft tissue tumours, and solid CNS tumours are not directly related to Down’s syndrome. Nephroblastomas are associated with an absent iris, while primary bone malignancies have few predisposing factors except for rare cancer syndromes. Soft tissue tumours, such as rhabdomyosarcomas, are linked to familial retinoblastoma, while solid CNS tumours are increased in cancer syndromes like Li-Fraumeni. the associated conditions of Down’s syndrome can aid in early detection and treatment of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old vegetarian male visits his GP complaining of fatigue despite getting adequate sleep. The doctor conducts a thorough examination and orders a complete blood count and thyroid function tests. The results reveal that the patient has macrocytic anemia, and the doctor suspects B12 deficiency due to his dietary habits. If the body uses up vitamin B12 at a regular rate but is not replenished, how long can the body's stores last?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Correct Answer: 3 years
Explanation:Vitamin B12 can be found in animal products, including meat. In order for it to be absorbed in the body’s terminal ileum, intrinsic factor is necessary. This factor is produced by the stomach’s parietal cells. The body stores around 2-3 mg of vitamin B12, which can last for 2-4 years. As a result, signs of B12 deficiency usually do not appear until after a prolonged period of insufficient consumption.
Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by an ambulance after she was found collapsed on the street by a bystander. Within a few minutes of arrival she developed severe abdominal pain and became severely agitated.
Her respiratory rate is 35 breaths per minute, heart rate 110 beats per minute, temperature 39.3ºC. Her prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are increased, and her fibrinogen levels are lower than normal. Her D-dimer is positive.
Hb 96 g/l
Platelets 85 * 109/l
WBC 14 * 109/l
Blood smears are sent to the laboratory.
What is most likely to be seen in the blood smears?Your Answer: Elliptocytes
Correct Answer: Schistocytes
Explanation:DIC, also known as consumptive coagulopathy, is a condition where the coagulation cascade is overactivated, leading to unchecked bleeding. This is due to the depletion of clotting mechanisms. Normally, clot formation and breakdown are balanced, with thrombin playing a key role in both processes. In DIC, patients may have prolonged coagulation times, thrombocytopenia, high levels of fibrin degradation products, elevated D-dimer levels, and microangiopathic pathology on peripheral smears. The excess fibrin strands in the intravascular circulation cause mechanical damage to red blood cells, resulting in schistocyte formation, thrombocytopenia, and consumption of clotting factors. Bite cells are abnormally shaped red blood cells with semicircular portions removed from the cell margin, seen in G6PD deficiency. Dacrocytes are teardrop-shaped cells seen in myelofibrosis and marrow disorders, while elliptocytes are red cells varying in shape from elongated to oval, seen in various disorders.
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Condition of Simultaneous Coagulation and Haemorrhage
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a medical condition characterized by simultaneous coagulation and haemorrhage. It is caused by the initial formation of thrombi that consume clotting factors and platelets, ultimately leading to bleeding. DIC can be caused by various factors such as infection, malignancy, trauma, liver disease, and obstetric complications.
Clinically, bleeding is usually the dominant feature of DIC, accompanied by bruising, ischaemia, and organ failure. Blood tests can reveal prolonged clotting times, thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. The treatment of DIC involves addressing the underlying cause and providing supportive management.
In summary, DIC is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and management, patients with DIC can recover and regain their health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of fatigue, dizziness, and a persistent low mood. He attributes his mood to his recent divorce, but the symptoms have been ongoing for several months. Blood tests were ordered to investigate any underlying organic causes, and the results show an MCV of 101 FL/RBC (normal range: 80-96 FL/RBC). Upon microscopic examination, his red blood cells appear normoblastic. What is the probable reason for the changes observed in his red blood cells?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: High alcohol Intake
Explanation:The cause of this man’s macrocytic anemia is likely not hemolysis, as that would result in a normocytic anemia with a normal MCV. Instead, alcohol may be a contributing factor.
Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia
Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.
On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with beta thalassaemia major is receiving counselling from her haematologist regarding the potential complications of her condition. The doctor explains that frequent blood transfusions may result in iron overload, which can result in liver damage and heart failure. What is an example of an iron chelation medication?
Your Answer: Dimercaprol
Correct Answer: Deferiprone
Explanation:To prevent complications from iron overload caused by frequent transfusions in beta-thalassaemia major, iron chelation therapy is crucial. Iron chelation agents such as Deferiprone, Deferoxamine, and Deferasirox are commonly used for this purpose. Trientine is a copper chelator used in Wilson’s disease, while Dimercaptosuccinic acid is used as a lead chelator. Penicillamine is primarily used to treat copper toxicity.
Understanding Beta-Thalassaemia Major
Beta-thalassaemia major is a genetic disorder that results from the absence of beta globulin chains on chromosome 11. This condition typically presents in the first year of life with symptoms such as failure to thrive and hepatosplenomegaly. Microcytic anaemia is also a common feature, with raised levels of HbA2 and HbF, but absent HbA.
Management of beta-thalassaemia major involves repeated transfusions, which can lead to iron overload and organ failure. Therefore, iron chelation therapy, such as desferrioxamine, is crucial to prevent complications. It is important to understand the features and management of this condition to provide appropriate care for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has a tumour located at the tip of his tongue. Initially, which region will the tumour metastasize to?
Your Answer: Ipsilateral superficial cervical nodes
Correct Answer: Submental nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic Drainage of the Tongue
The lymphatic drainage of the tongue varies depending on the location of the tumour. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue have minimal communication of lymphatics across the midline, resulting in metastasis to the ipsilateral nodes being more common. On the other hand, the posterior third of the tongue has communicating networks, leading to early bilateral nodal metastases being more common in this area.
The tip of the tongue drains to the submental nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes, while the mid portion of the tongue drains to the submandibular nodes and then to the deep cervical nodes. If mid tongue tumours are laterally located, they will usually drain to the ipsilateral deep cervical nodes. However, those from more central regions may have bilateral deep cervical nodal involvement. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the tongue is crucial in determining the spread of tumours and planning appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 3-year-old child is experiencing recurrent infections that are difficult to clear, leading to suspicion of an immunodeficiency. The clinical immunologist orders an immunological profile, which reveals low CD3+ cells, normal CD20+ cells, and normal CD68+ cells. The child's medical history includes surgical repair of a cleft palate and Tetralogy of Fallot within the first year of life. Which pharyngeal pouches are involved in the development of the structure implicated in this child's immunodeficiency?
Your Answer: Third and fourth
Explanation:The thymus is derived from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches during development.
In a child with normal levels of B-cells and monocytes but no T-cells, the underlying issue is likely located in the thymus as this is where T-cells are produced. This suggests that the thymus is the structure responsible for the child’s condition.
The child’s medical history, including a conotruncal heart defect and cleft palate, suggests a possible diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome.
During development, the first pouch gives rise to the Eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid antrum, and inner tympanic membrane. The second pouch forms the middle ear and palatine tonsils. The third pouch develops into the thymus and inferior parathyroid glands, while the fourth pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands, thymus, thyroid C-cells, muscles, and cartilage of the larynx. The fifth pouch is a rudimentary structure that becomes part of the fourth pouch, and the sixth pouch forms the muscles and cartilage of the larynx.
The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function
The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.
The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 32
Correct
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A mother brings her 6-month-old baby boy to your general practice, as he was diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome at birth. She was informed that one of the consequences of this condition is the failure of thymus development, which can impact her baby's blood cells. Specifically, which type of blood cell will be affected?
Your Answer: T lymphocytes
Explanation:The correct answer is T lymphocytes, as the thymus plays a role in their maturation. DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 22, resulting in the failure of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal arches. The syndrome is characterized by cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymus aplasia, cleft palate, and hypoparathyroidism, which can be remembered with the acronym CATCH.
The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function
The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.
The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What features are evaluated for grading breast cancer, except for tumor necrosis, according to the Bloom-Richardson grading model?
Your Answer: Tubule formation
Correct Answer: Tumour necrosis
Explanation:The presence of necrosis in a tumour may indicate that it has become too large for its blood supply, suggesting a high grade tumour. However, when grading breast cancer using the Bloom-Richardson model, nuclear features such as mitoses, coarse chromatin, and pleomorphism are given more weight. The formation of tubular structures is a key indicator of the level of differentiation, with well differentiated tumours showing the presence of tubules.
Tumour Grading and Differentiation
Tumours can be classified based on their degree of differentiation, mitotic activity, and other characteristics. The grading system ranges from grade 1, which is the most differentiated, to grade 3 or 4, which is the least. The evaluation is subjective, but generally, high-grade tumours indicate a poor prognosis or rapid growth.
Glandular epithelium tumours tend to form acinar structures with a central lumen. Well-differentiated tumours exhibit excellent acinar formation, while poorly differentiated tumours appear as clumps of cells around a desmoplastic stroma. Some tumours produce mucous without acinar formation, and these are referred to as mucinous adenocarcinomas. Squamous cell tumours produce structures resembling epithelial cell components, and well-differentiated tumours may also produce keratin, depending on the tissue of origin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 41-year-old male presents to the general practitioner with a 4-month history of a lump in his right testicle. On examination, there is a discrete nodule located near the superior pole of the right testicle and the left testicle is unremarkable. The patient is referred for further investigations and is ultimately diagnosed with a testicular seminoma.
In this patient, what is the most likely lymph node region for initial metastatic spread?Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes
Explanation:The para-aortic nodes are responsible for receiving lymph drainage from the testes. This is because the testes develop in the abdomen and move down the posterior abdominal wall during fetal development, leading to their lymphatic drainage coming from the para-aortic lymph nodes. Therefore, the para-aortic nodes are the most likely location for lymphatic spread from the testes.
The inferior mesenteric nodes are not responsible for lymph drainage from the testes as they primarily drain hindgut structures such as the transverse colon down to the rectum. Similarly, the internal iliac nodes drain the inferior portion of the rectum, the anal canal superior to the pectinate line, and the pelvic viscera, but not the testes. The posterior mediastinal chain is also not responsible for lymph drainage from the testes as it drains the oesophagus, mediastinum, and posterior surface of the diaphragm.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office with purpura. She appears to be in good health, but her blood test reveals thrombocytopenia, lymphopenia, leukopenia, and anemia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children over the age of one. It occurs when a lymphocyte precursor, known as a ‘blast cell’, grows abnormally in the bone marrow, leading to a failure of normal blood cell production. This results in peripheral cytopenias, which can cause symptoms such as anaemia, recurrent infections, and purpura. While a raised peripheral white cell count may occur in severe or late-stage disease, it is not common.
Compared to other types of leukaemia and lymphoma, ALL is more likely to present with bone marrow failure symptoms. Acute myeloid leukaemia, for example, is more common in the elderly and presents with a raised peripheral white cell count. Burkitt lymphoma, on the other hand, is a high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma that typically presents with lymphadenopathy. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is also more common in the elderly and presents with a peripheral lymphocytosis. Langerhans histiocytosis, a condition that affects antigen-presenting cells, is more common in young children and often affects the skin or bones. While it can cause marrow failure, it is a rare occurrence.
In summary, ALL is a type of cancer that affects children and is caused by abnormal growth of blast cells in the bone marrow. It can cause symptoms of bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, recurrent infections, and purpura. While other types of leukaemia and lymphoma may present with different symptoms, ALL is more likely to present with bone marrow failure symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male patient complains of lethargy and night sweats. During examination, left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is detected. A biopsy of the left supraclavicular lymph node is performed by a surgical registrar, and the pathologist identifies Reed-Sternberg cells on the subsequent histology sections. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Hodgkin’s disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in histological examination.
Causes of Generalised Lymphadenopathy
Generalised lymphadenopathy refers to the enlargement of multiple lymph nodes throughout the body. There are various causes of this condition, including infectious, neoplastic, and autoimmune conditions. Infectious causes include infectious mononucleosis, HIV, eczema with secondary infection, rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV, tuberculosis, and roseola infantum. Neoplastic causes include leukaemia and lymphoma. Autoimmune conditions such as SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, graft versus host disease, and sarcoidosis can also cause generalised lymphadenopathy. Additionally, certain drugs like phenytoin and to a lesser extent allopurinol and isoniazid can also lead to this condition. It is important to identify the underlying cause of generalised lymphadenopathy to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 60-year-old man complains of low back pain that has been bothering him for the past three months. He also experiences shortness of breath with minimal exertion. Upon examination, his ESR is found to be elevated at 100 mm/hr. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:ESR and its association with diseases
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a laboratory test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. Elevated ESR levels are often associated with inflammatory diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and polymyalgia rheumatica. In these conditions, the body’s immune system is activated, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Malignancies such as myeloma can also cause an increase in ESR levels, particularly in females and with increasing age.
On the other hand, low ESR levels are seen in conditions such as polycythaemia, where there is an excess of red blood cells in the body. It is important to note that ESR is not a specific diagnostic test and must be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings. Multiple myeloma, a type of plasma cell neoplasm, is the most common haematological malignancy and can lead to a range of symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, renal failure, anaemia, and bone pain. While it is not curable, advances in treatment have significantly improved the median survival of patients. the association between ESR and various diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 28-year-old male gives a blood unit that is stored at 4 oC. Which clotting factor will be most impacted after 72 hours?
Your Answer: Factor V
Explanation:FFP is frozen shortly after collection due to the temperature sensitivity of factors V and VIII.
Blood Products and Cell Saver Devices
Blood products are essential in various medical procedures, especially in cases where patients require transfusions due to anaemia or bleeding. Packed red cells, platelet-rich plasma, platelet concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate are some of the commonly used whole blood fractions. Fresh frozen plasma is usually administered to patients with clotting deficiencies, while cryoprecipitate is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen. Cross-matching is necessary for all blood products, and cell saver devices are used to collect and re-infuse a patient’s own blood lost during surgery.
Cell saver devices come in two types, those that wash the blood cells before re-infusion and those that do not. The former is more expensive and complicated to operate but reduces the risk of re-infusing contaminated blood. The latter avoids the use of donor blood and may be acceptable to Jehovah’s witnesses. However, it is contraindicated in malignant diseases due to the risk of facilitating disease dissemination.
In some surgical patients, the use of warfarin can pose specific problems and may require the use of specialised blood products. Warfarin reversal can be achieved through the administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, or human prothrombin complex. Fresh frozen plasma is used less commonly now as a first-line warfarin reversal, and human prothrombin complex is preferred due to its rapid action. However, it should be given with vitamin K as factor 6 has a short half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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This full blood count (FBC) was obtained on a 60-year-old female who presents with episodes of confusion, reports of visual hallucination and her neighbours say that she is withdrawn.
Hb 139 g/L
RBC 4.3 ×1012/L
Hct 0.415
MCV 98.5 fL
MCH 32.8 pg
Platelets 225 ×109/L
WBC 8.01 ×109/L
Neutrophils 4.67 ×109/L
Lymphocytes 2.63 ×109/L
Monocytes 0.22 ×109/L
Eosinophils 0.05 ×109/L
Basophils 0.04 ×109/L
Others 0.10 ×109/L
What is the most likely diagnosis based on the clinical history and full blood count results?Your Answer: Antidepressant drug therapy
Correct Answer: Alcohol withdrawal
Explanation:Abnormalities on FBC and Possible Causes
The FBC shows a normal Hb but an elevated MCV, which could be indicative of alcohol abuse. This is further supported by the patient’s increased confusion and withdrawal, suggesting acute withdrawal. Alcohol is known to cause an increase in MCV, while other causes such as B12 and folate deficiencies would also result in anemia. However, hypothyroidism and hematological malignancies are also associated with high MCV, but they are not likely causes in this clinical picture. Overall, the FBC abnormalities and clinical presentation suggest alcohol abuse and acute withdrawal as the most probable cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male is found to have Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which subtype is linked with the most positive outcome?
Your Answer: Nodular lymphocyte predominant
Correct Answer: Classical lymphocyte predominant
Explanation:The prognosis for the classical lymphocyte predominant variant is the most favorable, while the nodular lymphocyte predominant disease has a different disease entity and does not share the same positive prognosis.
Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Staging and Treatment
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. It is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are malignant lymphocytes. This type of cancer is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life.
To determine the extent of the cancer, doctors use the Ann-Arbor staging system. This system divides the cancer into four stages, with each stage being further divided into A or B. Stage I involves a single lymph node, while stage II involves two or more lymph nodes on the same side of the diaphragm. Stage III involves nodes on both sides of the diaphragm, and stage IV involves the spread of cancer beyond the lymph nodes.
The main treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma is chemotherapy. Two combinations of drugs may be used: ABVD and BEACOPP. ABVD is considered the standard regime, while BEACOPP has better remission rates but higher toxicity. Radiotherapy and combined modality therapy (CMT) may also be used. In some cases, hematopoietic cell transplantation may be used for relapsed or refractory classic Hodgkin lymphoma.
While most patients now achieve long-term survival free of Hodgkin’s lymphoma with modern therapy, complications of treatment are a concern. Secondary malignancies, particularly solid tumors such as breast and lung cancer, are a risk for these patients. It is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of treatment with their healthcare team.
Overall, understanding the staging and treatment options for Hodgkin’s lymphoma can help patients and their families make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A woman in her 30s experiences sudden swelling in both legs during pregnancy. Her mother and aunt also had a history of this issue. What is the probable underlying abnormality?
Your Answer: Anti mitochondrial antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti cardiolipin antibodies
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition where the body’s immune system produces antibodies that cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications. The diagnosis requires one clinical event and two positive blood tests spaced at least 3 months apart. The antibodies associated with this syndrome are lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin, and anti-β2-glycoprotein. Antiphospholipid syndrome can be primary or secondary, with the latter occurring in conjunction with other autoimmune diseases. In severe cases, the condition can lead to organ failure, known as catastrophic antiphospholipid syndrome. Treatment typically involves anticoagulant medication such as heparin, while warfarin is avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects.
Hypercoagulability is a condition where the blood has an increased tendency to clot. There are several types of thrombophilia, each with their own unique features. Antithrombin deficiency is a rare genetic defect that increases the risk of thrombotic events by 10 times. Heparin may not be effective in treating this condition as it works via antithrombin. Protein C and S deficiency, which accounts for up to 5% of thrombotic episodes, occurs when there is a lack of natural anticoagulants that are produced by the liver. Factor V Leiden is the most common genetic defect accounting for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and may account for up to 20% or more of thrombotic episodes. Antiphospholipid syndrome is a multi-organ disease that can involve pregnancy and cause both arterial and venous thrombosis. It is characterized by either Lupus anticoagulant or Anti cardiolipin antibodies, and requires anticoagulation with an INR between 3 and 4.
In summary, hypercoagulability is a condition where the blood has an increased tendency to clot. There are several types of thrombophilia, each with their own unique features. Antithrombin deficiency, protein C and S deficiency, factor V Leiden, and antiphospholipid syndrome are some of the most common types of thrombophilia. It is important to identify and treat these conditions to prevent thrombotic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and is worried about the possibility of it spreading. He has come to his urologist seeking more information. The urologist explains that testicular cancer can metastasize to the lymph nodes that drain lymph from the testes. Which lymph node is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread from the testes?
Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes
Explanation:The testes drain into the para-aortic lymph nodes, while the scrotum drains into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the glans penis drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes. The anal canal above the pectinate line drains into the internal iliac lymph nodes, and the descending colon drains into the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes. For a comprehensive list of lymph nodes and their associated drainage sites, please refer to the attached notes.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with aplastic anaemia is due for a blood transfusion. However, the red cell unit available in the refrigerator has exceeded its expiration date.
What is a potential risk associated with administering expired red cell units during a transfusion?Your Answer: Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 44
Correct
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From which of the following cell types do giant cells typically arise?
Your Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Macrophages are still the most frequent cell type that can generate giant cells, despite the possibility of other cell types doing so.
Giant cells are masses that result from the fusion of various types of cells. Typically, these masses are composed of macrophages. It is important to note that giant cells are not the same as granulomas, although the agents that cause them may be similar. In fact, giant cells are often a reaction to foreign materials, such as suture material, and can be seen in histological sections stained with haematoxylin and eosin. Overall, giant cells are a unique phenomenon in cellular biology that can provide insight into the body’s response to foreign substances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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In the majority of cases of transfusion reaction caused by Rh antibodies, what is the probable Rh grouping of the mother, father, and child?
Your Answer: The mother is Rh-positive, the father Rh-negative, and the baby Rh-positive
Correct Answer: The mother is Rh-negative, the father Rh-positive, and the baby Rh-positive
Explanation:Transfusion Reactions and the Role of Rh Factor
A transfusion reaction can occur when Rh-positive blood is given to a person who is Rh-negative and has been previously exposed to Rh-positive blood. This exposure can result in the development of anti-Rh antibodies, which can cause a reaction when Rh-positive blood is introduced into the body. In addition to transfusions, the Rh factor can also play a role in pregnancy. If a mother is Rh-negative and the father and baby are Rh-positive, there is a risk of a transfusion reaction occurring in the fetus or newborn, leading to a condition known as hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN). It is important to take preventative measures to avoid transfusion reactions and HDFN, such as ensuring blood compatibility and administering Rh immune globulin to Rh-negative mothers during pregnancy. the role of the Rh factor can help prevent these potentially dangerous reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 46
Correct
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A 55-year-old male presents with exertional fatigue. He has no significant past medical history and is not taking any medications. His blood test results show abnormal readings of Hb 125 g/L (normal range: 135-180 g/L) and calcium 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L). The rest of his blood test results, including mean corpuscular volume, platelet count, and white cell count, are normal. Additionally, his serum ferritin, vitamin B12, and folic acid levels are normal. Upon conducting a urine protein electrophoresis, the presence of immunoglobulin light chains is detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:The diagnosis of multiple myeloma can be supported by the presence of Bence-Jones protein, which is a monoclonal globulin protein produced by neoplastic plasma cells. Anaemia and hypercalcemia, along with the presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine, make multiple myeloma the most likely diagnosis.
Gout can be diagnosed by examining the contents of a joint fluid aspirate under polarised red light. The urate crystals will appear needle-shaped and negatively birefringent.
Megaloblastic anaemia occurs due to inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. A normal mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and serum vitamin B12 level can rule out megaloblastic anaemia.
While patients with non-Hodgkin lymphoma may present with anaemia, it can be ruled out for the time being as the white cell count and platelet count are normal.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a major function of the spleen in adults?
Your Answer: Storage of platelets
Correct Answer: Storage red blood cells
Explanation:The primary function of the spleen is the removal of old or damaged red blood cells from circulation, which helps to maintain the health of the red cell mass. The other functions of the spleen are also important, but this is the main function.
The Anatomy and Function of the Spleen
The spleen is an organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Its size can vary depending on the amount of blood it contains, but the typical adult spleen is 12.5cm long and 7.5cm wide, with a weight of 150g. The spleen is almost entirely covered by peritoneum and is separated from the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs by both diaphragm and pleural cavity. Its shape is influenced by the state of the colon and stomach, with gastric distension causing it to resemble an orange segment and colonic distension causing it to become more tetrahedral.
The spleen has two folds of peritoneum that connect it to the posterior abdominal wall and stomach: the lienorenal ligament and gastrosplenic ligament. The lienorenal ligament contains the splenic vessels, while the short gastric and left gastroepiploic branches of the splenic artery pass through the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament. The spleen is in contact with the phrenicocolic ligament laterally.
The spleen has two main functions: filtration and immunity. It filters abnormal blood cells and foreign bodies such as bacteria, and produces properdin and tuftsin, which help target fungi and bacteria for phagocytosis. The spleen also stores 40% of platelets, reutilizes iron, and stores monocytes. Disorders of the spleen include massive splenomegaly, myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis, malaria, Gaucher’s syndrome, portal hypertension, lymphoproliferative disease, haemolytic anaemia, infection, infective endocarditis, sickle-cell, thalassaemia, and rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man newly diagnosed with epilepsy visits his GP with complaints of fatigue. He has no significant medical history except for taking oral phenytoin and loratadine seasonally. He works as a construction site worker and has been experiencing a lot of stress at work due to the need to work extra shifts. During the consultation, he appears anxious and has a slim build. His blood test reveals macrocytic anaemia.
What could be the probable reason for his symptoms and blood results?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Side effect of phenytoin
Explanation:The most probable reason for the patient’s fatigue and abnormal blood results is the side effect of phenytoin. Phenytoin is an antifolate medication that can lead to folate deficiency, resulting in macrocytic anaemia, which is evident in the patient’s blood test. Fatigue is a common symptom of anaemia, which the patient has reported.
Although lack of sleep may contribute to the patient’s tiredness, it alone cannot cause macrocytic anaemia.
Hypothyroidism can cause macrocytic anaemia and lethargy, but it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The patient has no history of thyroid disorders, and his slim build and anxiety are more typical of hyperthyroidism.
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not usually cause drowsiness.
Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia
Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.
On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats that have been ongoing for the past 2 months. During the examination, the GP discovers cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. The patient is referred to the hospital for further investigation, which includes a biopsy of her cervical lymph nodes.
The biopsy report reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. These cells belong to the same lineage as which of the following cells?Your Answer: Monocytes
Correct Answer: NK cells
Explanation:Common lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to NK cells, as well as B-cells and T-cells. The biopsy of the patient in this case reveals Reed-Sternberg cells, indicating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a cancer of B-cells. Platelets, monocytes, basophils, and erythrocytes, on the other hand, are derived from common myeloid progenitor cells.
Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells
Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.
The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 50
Correct
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Which of the following processes enables phagocytosis to occur?
Your Answer: Opsonisation
Explanation:Phagocytosis is facilitated by opsonisation, which involves coating the micro-organism with antibody, C3b, and specific acute phase proteins. This leads to an increase in phagocytic cell surface receptors on macrophages and neutrophils, which is mediated by pro-inflammatory cytokines. As a result, these cells are able to engulf the micro-organism.
Phagocytosis: The Process of Cell Ingestion
Phagocytosis is the process by which cells ingest foreign materials or pathogens. The first step in this process is opsonisation, where the organism is coated by an antibody. The second step is adhesion to the cell surface, followed by pseudopodial extension to form a phagocytic vacuole. Finally, lysosomes fuse with the vacuole and degrade its contents.
Phagocytosis is an essential process for the immune system to fight off infections and diseases. It is a complex process that involves multiple steps, including opsonisation, adhesion, and pseudopodial extension. The end result is the degradation of the foreign material or pathogen by lysosomes. Understanding the process of phagocytosis is crucial for developing treatments for diseases that involve the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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