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  • Question 1 - Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?

      Your Answer: Cerazette®

      Explanation:

      Desogestrel only POPs work mainly by inhibiting ovulation. Cerazette Is the only brand in this list which belongs to this group.

      Types of Progesterone Only Pills

      1. Traditional (e.g. Femulen®, Micronor®, Norgeston®)

      Main mode of action: thickening cervical mucus preventing sperm entry at neck of womb and may also cause anovulation but this effect variable and unreliable

      2. Desogestrel (e.g. Cerazette®)

      Main mode of action: inhibition of ovulation and also cause thickening of cervical mucus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Correct Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection. Her mother had her first episode of HSV three weeks prior to delivery. The infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion. What is the case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Congenital Herpes Simplex Virus infection may cause high levels of morbidity and mortality in neonates. Risk of infection with HSV 1 and 2 is highest within 6 weeks of delivery and is transferred to the neonate via maternal secretions at birth. Affected babies can present as skin manifestations, CNS infection, or disseminated infection, which carries an 85% risk of mortality if left untreated. Treatment with high dose antivirals such as acyclovir can help decrease the case mortality rate to 30% in cases of disseminated infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Correct

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings. Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up....

    Correct

    • A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up. She is about 7-8 weeks pregnant and enquiries about antenatal screening tests as she is concerned that her baby might have chromosomal abnormalities. Among the following results, which would indicate further assessment for trisomy 21?

      Your Answer: Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) in the first trimester of pregnancy is an indication to carry out further diagnostic testing for Down syndrome.

      Antenatal tests available for screening Down syndrome are divided into two types:
      – Screening tests includes maternal serum screening and ultrasound which are safe to conduct with relatively low predictive values.
      – Diagnostic tests like chorionic villous sampling and amniocentesis are confirmative but carries higher risk of miscarriage as 1 in 100 and 1 in 200 respectively.

      a) Serum screening tests for Down syndrome during first-trimester includes:
      1. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) will be decreased in case of Down syndrome.
      2. Free ß-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) will be increased in cases of Down syndrome.
      If these screening tests are combined with first-trimester ultrasound nuchal translucency, it is found to be more accurate than doing only one of these tests.

      b) Second-trimester serum screening tests for identifying Down syndrome:
      1.Alpha-fetoprotein will be decreased.
      2.Unconjugated oestriol will be decreased.
      3.Free ß-HCG will be increased
      4.Inhibin A will be increased.
      These tests combined with maternal age and ultrasound results will provide more accurate predictive values.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 24 year old lady is 9 weeks pregnant with her first child....

    Correct

    • A 24 year old lady is 9 weeks pregnant with her first child. She attends clinic complaining of severe vomiting and is unable to keep fluids down. The most likely diagnosis is hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Increased circulating HCG

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, associated with weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight, dehydration and electrolyte imbalance. HG is usually most severe during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy and is thought to be caused by high circulating levels of HCG.

      There is not yet any evidence that pregnancy itself increases the sensitivity of the area postrema, or that the hormones, oestradiol, or progesterone increase vomiting. Generally, higher concentrations of dopamine stimulates receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone leading to nausea and vomiting. Although this has not been demonstrated as the cause of hyperemesis gravidarum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      94.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the main biochemical buffer in blood? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in blood?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate is the main buffer in blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11...

    Correct

    • A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found: Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL) Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million) Motility 15% (>40%) Abnormal forms 95% (<60%) A second specimen three months later confirms the above results. Which would be the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).

      Explanation:

      Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks....

    Correct

    • A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking a combined oral contraceptive pill in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship. When should she start again?

      Your Answer: Start immediately

      Explanation:

      Following an abortion or miscarriage, combined oral contraceptive pills should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      1107
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the definition of puberty in girls? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of puberty in girls?

      Your Answer: Development of secondary sexual characteristics

      Correct Answer: Becoming capable of sexual reproduction

      Explanation:

      Puberty is the process of reproductive and sexual development and the maturation which changes a child into an adult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Passmed