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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up and is prescribed a new medication, a glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1) analogue. Where is this hormone typically secreted from in the body?
Your Answer: Jejunum
Correct Answer: Ileum
Explanation:When comparing the effects of oral glucose and IV glucose on insulin release, it was found that oral glucose resulted in a higher insulin release. This suggests that the response of the gut plays a role in insulin release. Incretins are a group of hormones produced in the gastrointestinal tract that stimulate insulin release from β-cells, even before blood glucose levels become elevated.
There are two main types of incretins: gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP), which is released from the duodenum and is glucose-dependent, and glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1), which is produced in the distal ileum.
The glucagon gene is processed differently in the brain and intestines than in the pancreas. In the brain and intestines, GLP1&2 are released, which function as appetite suppressants. In the pancreas, they increase insulin release and β-cell proliferation.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Evelyn is a 92-year-old woman who arrives at the hospital with severe chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations. Given her medical history of angina and diabetes mellitus, doctors suspect acute coronary syndrome. They order several tests, including a troponin I blood test. What is the function of this biomarker in the body?
Your Answer: Blocks the myosin binding sites on actin fibres during rest
Correct Answer: Binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place
Explanation:Troponin I plays a crucial role in muscle contraction by binding to actin and holding the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place. This prevents the myosin-binding site on the actin from being exposed, thereby preventing muscle contraction. Troponin I is also used as a marker for myocardial muscle injury.
Unlike troponin C, troponin I does not bind to calcium. Instead, troponin C has several calcium-binding sites that, when occupied, cause a conformational change in the troponin-tropomyosin complex. This change exposes the myosin-binding site on the actin filament, allowing myosin to bind and initiate muscle contraction.
Although troponin I binds to actin, it does not perform the power stroke that shortens muscle fibers. This is the role of the myosin head, which uses energy from ATP.
It is troponin T, not troponin I, that binds with tropomyosin to form the troponin-tropomyosin complex. This complex allows tropomyosin to move in response to the conformational change induced by calcium binding to troponin C.
Finally, it is tropomyosin, not troponin I, that directly inhibits myosin-binding sites. Tropomyosin is a long fiber that runs along the side of actin filaments, blocking all myosin binding sites. When calcium concentrations within the cell increase, the conformational change in troponin moves tropomyosin, exposing these sites and allowing muscle contraction to occur.
Understanding Troponin: The Proteins Involved in Muscle Contraction
Troponin is a group of three proteins that play a crucial role in the contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscles. These proteins work together to regulate the interaction between actin and myosin, which is essential for muscle contraction. The three subunits of troponin are troponin C, troponin T, and troponin I.
Troponin C is responsible for binding to calcium ions, which triggers the contraction of muscle fibers. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin, forming a complex that helps regulate the interaction between actin and myosin. Finally, troponin I binds to actin, holding the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place and preventing muscle contraction when it is not needed.
Understanding the role of troponin is essential for understanding how muscles work and how they can be affected by various diseases and conditions. By regulating the interaction between actin and myosin, troponin plays a critical role in muscle contraction and is a key target for drugs used to treat conditions such as heart failure and skeletal muscle disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that is radiating to his left shoulder. He has a medical history of a previous transient ischaemic attack three years ago and is currently taking aspirin 75mg OD.
Upon initial assessment, an ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in V1-V3. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent and is stable post-procedure. His treatment plan includes ramipril, ticagrelor, simvastatin, and atenolol.
What is the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed antiplatelet medication?Your Answer: Inhibit the binding of ADP to platelets
Explanation:Ticagrelor and clopidogrel have a similar mechanism of action in inhibiting ADP binding to platelet receptors, which prevents platelet aggregation. In patients with STEMI who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and anti-hyperlipidemic drugs are commonly used for secondary management.
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is a fibrinogen receptor found on platelets that, when activated, leads to platelet aggregation. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, such as abciximab, bind to this receptor and prevent ligands like fibrinogen from accessing their binding site. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists, like eptifibatide, compete with ligands for the receptor’s binding site, blocking the formation of thrombi.
Dipyridamole inhibits platelet cAMP-phosphodiesterase, leading to increased intra-platelet cAMP and decreased arachidonic acid release, resulting in reduced thromboxane A2 formation. It also inhibits adenosine reuptake by vascular endothelial cells and erythrocytes, leading to increased adenosine concentration, activation of adenyl cyclase, and increased cAMP production.
ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old hospitalized patient is prescribed a combination of irinotecan and 5-fluorouracil with added folinic acid for metastatic colon cancer. The patient is informed about the significant side effects associated with these drugs, including severe diarrhea, nausea, and fatigue. What is the mechanism of action of irinotecan?
Your Answer: Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
Correct Answer: Inhibition of topoisomerase I
Explanation:Irinotecan prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA by inhibiting topoisomerase I, an enzyme that regulates DNA supercoiling during mitosis and meiosis. Other topoisomerase inhibitors include topotecan, etoposide, and teniposide.
Azathioprine is a purine analogue that inhibits DNA polymerase, thereby halting DNA synthesis.
5-fluorouracil is a pyrimidine antagonist that inhibits thymidylate synthase, leading to a reduction in pyrimidine nucleotides.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib and erlotinib have significantly improved the prognosis for patients with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old motorcyclist is in a road traffic accident and undergoes treatment for a tibial fracture with an intra medullary nail. However, he develops compartment syndrome post-operatively. Which of the following muscles will not have pressure relieved by surgical decompression of the anterior compartment?
Your Answer: Tibialis anterior
Correct Answer: Peroneus brevis
Explanation:The deep peroneal nerve innervates all the muscles in the anterior compartment, including the Tibialis anterior, Extensor digitorum longus, Peroneus tertius, and Extensor hallucis longus. Additionally, the Anterior tibial artery is also located in this compartment.
Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb
The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.
The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.
The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.
Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.
Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery may affect the blood supply to which of the following structures, except for:
Your Answer: Corpus callosum
Correct Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures suspends the spinal cord in the dural sheath?
Your Answer: Filum terminale
Correct Answer: Denticulate ligaments
Explanation:The length of the spinal cord is around 45cm in males and 43cm in females. The denticulate ligament is an extension of the pia mater, which has sporadic lateral projections that connect the spinal cord to the dura mater.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Correct
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What grade of evidence does a randomized controlled trial provide, as per the guidance of the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM)?
Your Answer: 1
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You have recently learned about the embryological origin of the palatine tonsils after being treated with antibiotics for a bacterial infection. Can you share where they are derived from?
Your Answer: 3rd pharyngeal pouch
Correct Answer: 2nd pharyngeal pouch
Explanation:The 2nd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils, while the 1st pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the auditory tube, middle ear, and mastoid antrum. The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands and thymus, while the 4th pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands and the musculature of the larynx.
Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches
During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.
Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old child presents with a cleft palate, recurrent infections, and hypocalcemia. On chest x-ray, there is a decreased thymic shadow. The diagnosis is a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which embryological structure abnormal development is most likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: 1st and 2nd branchial arches
Correct Answer: 3rd and 4th branchial pouches
Explanation:Abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th branchial pouches is the underlying cause of 22q11 deletion syndromes, including DiGeorge syndrome. This patient exhibits clinical symptoms consistent with DiGeorge syndrome, which is characterized by the improper formation of these pouches.
The 3rd branchial pouch typically develops into the thymus and inferior parathyroids, while the 4th branchial pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroids. When the thymus fails to develop properly, it can result in a deficiency of T cells and recurrent infections. Additionally, inadequate parathyroid development can lead to hypocalcemia.
DiGeorge syndrome, also known as velocardiofacial syndrome and 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a primary immunodeficiency disorder that results from a microdeletion of a section of chromosome 22. This autosomal dominant condition is characterized by T-cell deficiency and dysfunction, which puts individuals at risk of viral and fungal infections. Other features of DiGeorge syndrome include hypoplasia of the parathyroid gland, which can lead to hypocalcaemic tetany, and thymic hypoplasia.
The presentation of DiGeorge syndrome can vary, but it can be remembered using the mnemonic CATCH22. This stands for cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymic aplasia, cleft palate, hypocalcaemia/hypoparathyroidism, and the fact that it is caused by a deletion on chromosome 22. Overall, DiGeorge syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body and requires careful management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. The ECG strip shows an irregularly irregular tachycardia that is not in sinus rhythm.
Where is the site of this pathology?Your Answer: Absence of electrical activity in the atria
Correct Answer: Discordance of electrical activity from the myocytes surrounding the pulmonary veins
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation occurs when irregular electrical activity from the myocytes surrounding the pulmonary veins overwhelms the regular impulses from the sinus node. This leads to discordance of electrical activity in the atria, causing the irregularly irregular tachycardia characteristic of AF. It is important to note that AF is not caused by an absence of electrical activity in the atria or bundle of His.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his stool and increased frequency of bowel movements. He has also experienced mild weight loss due to a change in appetite. Upon referral to secondary care, a mass is discovered in his ascending colon. If the mass were to perforate the bowel wall, where would bowel gas most likely accumulate?
Your Answer: Subphrenic space
Correct Answer: Retroperitoneal space
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest that he may have bowel cancer in his ascending colon. As the ascending colon is located behind the peritoneum, a rupture of the colon could lead to the accumulation of gas in the retroperitoneal space.
Pneumoperitoneum, which is the presence of gas in the peritoneum, is typically caused by a perforated peptic ulcer. On the other hand, subcutaneous emphysema is the trapping of air under the skin layer and is usually associated with chest wall trauma or pneumothorax.
Air in the intra-mural space refers to the presence of air within the bowel wall and is not likely to occur in cases of perforation. This condition is typically associated with intestinal ischaemia and infarction.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and painful swollen submandibular lymph nodes. After diagnosis, you find out that he has infectious mononucleosis. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer: He can resume sexual activity after 7 days
Correct Answer: He should avoid rugby
Explanation:Patients should refrain from engaging in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture. However, swimming is considered a safe activity. It is important to advise patients accordingly.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the rate of elimination of phenytoin based on its zero-order kinetics?
Your Answer: Proportional to the plasma concentration
Correct Answer: Constant regardless of the plasma concentration
Explanation:Zero-Order Kinetics in Drugs
Zero-order kinetics is a term used to describe the rate of elimination of certain drugs, such as ethanol, phenytoin, and aspirin. In these drugs, the rate of elimination remains constant and is not dependent on the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This means that even if the concentration of the drug in the plasma increases, the rate of elimination remains the same.
However, this also means that if the metabolism capacity of the body is overwhelmed, the plasma levels of these drugs can rapidly increase, leading to an overdose. This is particularly dangerous in drugs with zero-order kinetics, as the rate of elimination cannot be increased to compensate for the overdose. Therefore, it is important to understand the pharmacokinetics of drugs and their elimination rates to prevent such incidents.
In summary, zero-order kinetics in drugs means that the rate of elimination is constant and not dependent on plasma concentration. This can lead to dangerous situations if the metabolism capacity is overwhelmed, as the rate of elimination cannot be increased to compensate for an overdose. the pharmacokinetics of drugs is crucial in preventing such incidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about his behavior. Upon further inquiry, the wife reveals that her husband has been displaying erratic and impulsive behavior for the past 4 months. She also discloses that he inappropriately touched a family friend, which is out of character for him. When asked about his medical history, the patient mentions that he used to be an avid motorcyclist but had a severe accident 6 months ago, resulting in a month-long hospital stay. He denies experiencing flashbacks and reports generally good mood. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe injury
Explanation:Disinhibition can be a result of frontal lobe lesions.
Based on his recent accident, it is probable that the man has suffered from a frontal lobe injury. Such injuries can cause changes in behavior, including impulsiveness and a lack of inhibition.
If the injury were to the occipital lobe, it would likely result in vision loss.
The patient’s denial of flashbacks and positive mood make it unlikely that he has PTSD.
Injuries to the parietal and temporal lobes can lead to communication difficulties and sensory perception problems.
Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Correct
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You are conducting a research on blood pressure readings in elderly patients. Assuming a normal distribution, what proportion of values fall within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?
Your Answer: 95.4%
Explanation:The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Correct
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A 65-year-old man was effectively cardioverted for an unstable broad complex tachycardia. The physician opts to initiate oral amiodarone at 200 mg thrice daily, and gradually decrease at weekly intervals until a maintenance dose of 200 mg once daily.
What is the rationale behind this dosing plan?Your Answer: Amiodarone has a very long half-life
Explanation:Amiodarone’s long half-life is due to its high lipophilicity and extensive tissue absorption, resulting in reduced bioavailability in serum. To achieve stable therapeutic levels, a prolonged loading regimen is necessary.
To quickly achieve therapeutic levels, high doses of oral amiodarone are required due to poor absorption. Once achieved, a once-daily regimen can be continued. Amiodarone’s plasma half-life ranges from 20 to 100 days, meaning its effects persist long after discontinuation. Patients should be counseled on this and advised to recognize adverse effects and avoid drugs that interact with amiodarone even after stopping it.
The statement that amiodarone has a short half-life is incorrect; it has a long half-life.
Patients do not need to stay admitted for monitoring during the loading regimen. However, thyroid and liver function tests should be performed every 6 months for up to 12 months after discontinuation due to the long half-life.
Amiodarone is excreted via the liver and biliary system, not rapidly metabolized and eliminated by the kidneys. Therefore, patients with amiodarone overdose or toxicity are not suitable for dialysis.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with complaints of chronic fatigue. He also reports experiencing decreased sensation and pins and needles in his arms and legs. During the physical examination, you notice that he appears very pale. The patient has difficulty sensing vibrations from a tuning fork and has reduced proprioception in his joints. Upon further inquiry, he reveals a history of coeliac disease but admits to poor adherence to the gluten-free diet.
What is the location of the spinal cord lesion?Your Answer: Dorsal cord lesion
Explanation:Lesions in the dorsal cord result in sensory deficits because the dorsal (posterior) horns contain the sensory input. The dorsal columns, responsible for fine touch sensation, proprioception, and vibration, are located in the dorsal/posterior horns. Therefore, a dorsal cord lesion would cause a pattern of sensory deficits. In this case, the patient’s B12 deficiency is due to malabsorption caused by poor adherence to a gluten-free diet. Long-term B12 deficiency leads to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which affects the dorsal columns and eventually the lateral columns, resulting in distal paraesthesia and upper motor neuron signs in the legs.
In contrast, an anterior cord lesion affects the anterolateral pathways (spinothalamic tract, spinoreticular tract, and spinomesencephalic tract), resulting in a loss of pain and temperature below the lesion, but vibration and proprioception are maintained. If the lesion is large, the corticospinal tracts are also affected, resulting in upper motor neuron signs below the lesion.
A central cord lesion involves damage to the spinothalamic tracts and the cervical cord, resulting in sensory and motor deficits that affect the upper limbs more than the lower limbs. A hemisection of the cord typically presents as Brown-Sequard syndrome.
A transverse cord lesion damages all motor and sensory pathways in the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral and contralateral sensory and motor deficits below the lesion.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 19
Correct
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Throughout the process of embryonic development, what is the accurate source of the pancreas?
Your Answer: Ventral and dorsal endodermal outgrowths of the duodenum
Explanation:The pancreas originates from two outgrowths of the duodenum – one from the ventral side and the other from the dorsal side. The ventral outgrowth is located near or together with the hepatic diverticulum, while the larger dorsal outgrowth emerges slightly above the ventral one and extends into the mesoduodenum and mesogastrium. After the two buds merge, the duct of the ventral outgrowth becomes the primary pancreatic duct.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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At which of the subsequent spinal levels does the esophagus pass through the diaphragm and enter the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer: T12
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The point at which the oesophagus enters the abdomen is located at T10.
Anatomy of the Oesophagus
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.
The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.
The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 21
Correct
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A 3 week old infant has been diagnosed with hydrocephalus due to congenital spina bifida. Can you identify the location of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production?
Your Answer: Choroid plexuses
Explanation:The choroid plexuses, located in the ventricles of the brain, are responsible for the production of CSF. The cerebral aqueduct (or aqueduct of Sylvius) does not have a choroid plexus. The cribriform plate, which is a part of the ethmoid bone, does not produce or secrete anything but a fracture in it can cause CSF leakage into the nose and result in anosmia. The arachnoid granulations (or villi) serve as the communication between the subarachnoid space and the venous sinuses, allowing for the continuous reabsorption of CSF into the bloodstream. The pia mater, which is the innermost layer of the meninges around the brain, encloses the CSF within the subarachnoid space.
Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.
The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.
The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is observed by his mother to turn blue around the lips abruptly after crying. This has occurred several times before and the child promptly assumes the squatting position to alleviate his symptoms. During previous check-ups, the child was found to have various heart issues, including a boot-shaped heart on his chest x-ray.
What is the probable diagnosis for his condition and what is the underlying cause?Your Answer: Defect in the ostium primum
Correct Answer: Failed migration of the neural crest cells
Explanation:The division of the truncus arteriosus into the aorta and pulmonary trunk is dependent on the migration of neural crest cells from the pharyngeal arches. If this process is disrupted, it can lead to Tetralogy of Fallot, which is likely the condition that the patient in question is experiencing. The patient’s frequent ‘tet’ spells and adoption of a squatting position are indicative of this condition, as is the boot-shaped heart seen on chest x-ray due to right ventricular hypertrophy. Other conditions that can result from failed neural crest cell migration include transposition of the great vessels and persistent truncus arteriosus.
On the other hand, a VSD is associated with a failure of the endocardial cushion, but this would not explain all of the patient’s malformations. Similarly, defects in the ostium primum or secundum would result in an ASD, which is often asymptomatic.
During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following structures separates the ulnar artery from the median nerve?
Your Answer: Pronator teres
Explanation:It is located deeply to the pronator teres muscle, which creates a separation from the median nerve.
Anatomy of the Ulnar Artery
The ulnar artery is a blood vessel that begins in the middle of the antecubital fossa and runs obliquely downward towards the ulnar side of the forearm. It then follows the ulnar border to the wrist, where it crosses over the flexor retinaculum and divides into the superficial and deep volar arches. The artery is deep to the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, and palmaris longus muscles, and lies on the brachialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles. At the wrist, it is superficial to the flexor retinaculum.
The ulnar nerve runs medially to the lower two-thirds of the artery, while the median nerve is in relation with the medial side of the artery for about 2.5 cm before crossing over it. The artery also gives off a branch called the anterior interosseous artery.
Understanding the anatomy of the ulnar artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the forearm and hand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old female experienced a crush injury while working, causing an air vent to fall and trap her arm. As a result, she developed fixed focal dystonia that led to flexion contracture of her right wrist and digits.
During the examination, the doctor observed intrinsic hand muscle wasting. The patient's right forearm was supinated, her wrist was hyperextended, and her fingers were flexed. Additionally, there was a decrease in sensation along the medial aspect of her hand and arm, and a reduction in handgrip strength.
Which nerve roots are affected in this case?Your Answer: C8/T1
Explanation:T1 nerve root damage can result in Klumpke’s paralysis.
Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis
Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.
On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.
It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 25
Correct
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A 57-year-old male presents to his GP with a three-month history of abdominal discomfort. He reports feeling bloated all the time, with increased flatulence. He occasionally experiences more severe symptoms, such as profuse malodorous diarrhoea and vomiting.
Upon examination, the GP notes aphthous ulceration and conjunctival pallor. The patient undergoes several blood tests and is referred for a duodenal biopsy.
The following test results are returned:
Hb 110 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
MCV 92 fl (80-100)
Platelets 320 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Ferritin 12 ng/mL (20 - 230)
Vitamin B12 200 ng/L (200 - 900)
Folate 2.5 nmol/L (> 3.0)
Transglutaminase IgA antibody 280 u/ml (<100)
Ca125 18 u/ml (<35)
Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the expected finding on biopsy?Your Answer: Villous atrophy
Explanation:Coeliac disease is characterized by villous atrophy, which leads to malabsorption. This patient’s symptoms are typical of coeliac disease, which can affect both males and females in their 50s. Patients often experience non-specific abdominal discomfort for several months, similar to irritable bowel syndrome, and may not notice correlations between symptoms and specific dietary components like gluten.
Aphthous ulceration is a common sign of coeliac disease, and patients may also experience nutritional deficiencies such as iron and folate deficiency due to malabsorption. Histology will reveal villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Iron and folate deficiency can lead to a normocytic anaemia and conjunctival pallor. Positive anti-transglutaminase antibodies are specific for coeliac disease.
Ulcerative colitis is characterized by crypt abscess and mucosal ulcers, while Crohn’s disease is associated with non-caseating granulomas and full-thickness inflammation. These inflammatory bowel diseases typically present in patients in their 20s and may have systemic and extraintestinal features. Anti-tTG will not be positive in IBD. Ovarian cancer is an important differential diagnosis for females over 40 with symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the primary mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer: Prevents implantation
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:How does the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill work?
The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) is a widely used method of contraception in the UK. It works by preventing ovulation, which means that an egg is not released from the ovaries. In addition to this, the COC also thickens the cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to enter the uterus, and thins the endometrial lining, reducing the chance of implantation.
By combining these three actions, the COC is highly effective at preventing pregnancy. It is important to note that the COC does not protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), so additional protection such as condoms should be used if there is a risk of STIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In which part of the cell are the electron transport chain carriers situated?
Your Answer: Mitochondrial redox compartment
Correct Answer: Mitochondrial cristae
Explanation:The Electron Transport Chain in Mitochondria
The electron transport chain (ETC) is a crucial process in cellular aerobic respiration that occurs in the mitochondrial cristae. These are folded membranes inside the organelle. During respiration, NADH and FADH produced from other parts of the process, such as glycolysis, transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors through redox reactions. This electron transfer is coupled with proton transfer across the mitochondrial membrane, creating an electrochemical proton gradient. This gradient induces the production of ATP, which is used as an energy currency by the cell.
ATP is produced through a mechanism called chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is essential for this process to occur. The cristae provide a large surface area for the ETC to take place, and the mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to protons, allowing for the creation of the proton gradient. The inner membrane also contains ATP synthase, the enzyme responsible for producing ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation.
In summary, the electron transport chain in mitochondria is a complex process that involves the transfer of electrons and protons across the mitochondrial membrane to create a proton gradient. This gradient is then used to produce ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is crucial for this process to occur efficiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a branch of the subclavian artery?
Your Answer: Vertebral artery
Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery
Explanation:The branches of the subclavian artery can be remembered using the mnemonic VIT C & D, which stands for Vertebral artery, Internal thoracic, Thyrocervical trunk, Costalcervical trunk, and Dorsal scapular. It is important to note that the Superior thyroid artery is actually a branch of the external carotid artery.
The Subclavian Artery: Origin, Path, and Branches
The subclavian artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. It has two branches, the left and right subclavian arteries, which arise from different sources. The left subclavian artery originates directly from the arch of the aorta, while the right subclavian artery arises from the brachiocephalic artery (trunk) when it bifurcates into the subclavian and the right common carotid artery.
From its origin, the subclavian artery travels laterally, passing between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, deep to scalenus anterior and anterior to scalenus medius. As it crosses the lateral border of the first rib, it becomes the axillary artery and is superficial within the subclavian triangle.
The subclavian artery has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. These branches include the vertebral artery, which supplies blood to the brain and spinal cord, the internal thoracic artery, which supplies blood to the chest wall and breast tissue, the thyrocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the thyroid gland and neck muscles, the costocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the neck and upper back muscles, and the dorsal scapular artery, which supplies blood to the muscles of the shoulder blade.
In summary, the subclavian artery is an important blood vessel that plays a crucial role in supplying blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. Its branches provide blood to various parts of the body, ensuring proper functioning and health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful left foot that he woke up with. Initially, he didn't want to bother the doctor, but now he's concerned because he can't feel his foot or move his toes. Upon examination, the left foot is cold to the touch and very pale. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute limb ischaemia
Explanation:Acute Limb Ischaemia and Compartment Syndrome
Acute limb ischaemia is a condition that is characterized by six Ps: pain, pallor, pulselessness, perishingly cold, paresthesia, and paralysis. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention from a vascular surgeon. Delaying treatment for even a few hours can lead to amputation or death. On the other hand, acute compartment syndrome occurs when the pressure within a closed muscle compartment exceeds the perfusion pressure, resulting in muscle and nerve ischaemia. This condition usually follows a traumatic event, such as a fracture. However, in some cases, there may be no history of trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with increasing dyspnea on exertion and swelling in both legs. A recent outpatient echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 31%. During chest examination, an extra heart sound is detected just prior to the first.
What is the cause of this additional heart sound?Your Answer: Delayed closure of the aortic valve
Correct Answer: Atria contracting forcefully to overcome an abnormally stiff ventricle
Explanation:The presence of S4, which sounds like a ‘gallop rhythm’, can be heard after S2 and in conjunction with a third heart sound. However, if the ventricles are contracting against a stiffened aorta, it would not produce a significant heart sound during this phase of the cardiac cycle. Any sound that may be heard in this scenario would occur between the first and second heart sounds during systole, and it would also cause a raised pulse pressure and be visible on chest X-ray as calcification. Delayed closure of the aortic valve could cause a split second heart sound, but it would appear around the time of S2, not before S1. On the other hand, retrograde flow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium, known as tricuspid regurgitation, would cause a systolic murmur instead of an additional isolated heart sound. This condition is often caused by infective endocarditis in intravenous drug users or a history of rheumatic fever.
Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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