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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure at the day surgery unit. The surgery is aimed at treating carpal tunnel syndrome. During the procedure, which structure is divided to decompress the median nerve?
Your Answer: Palmaris longus tendon
Correct Answer: Flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The flexor retinaculum is the only structure that is divided in the surgical treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome. It is important to protect all other structures during the procedure as damaging them could result in further injury or disability. The purpose of dividing the flexor retinaculum is to decompress the median nerve.
Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.
During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.
Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with recurrent back pain. He has a history of disc prolapse due to his previous manual labor job. The patient reports that he experienced sudden lower back pain while bending over to pick something up. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation on the posterolateral aspect of his left leg and lateral foot. The straight leg raise test causes pain in his thigh, buttock, and calf region, and he displays weakness on plantar flexion with decreased ankle reflexes. What is the root compression that this patient has experienced?
Your Answer: L3 nerve root compression
Correct Answer: S1 nerve root compression
Explanation:The observed symptoms suggest the presence of a spinal disc prolapse, which is causing sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has persisted for two weeks. The pain is situated between the shoulder blades and happens frequently throughout the day. He expresses concern that this might be a severe issue and has been avoiding physical activity as a result.
What aspects of this patient's medical history are cause for concern?Your Answer: Avoiding activity
Correct Answer: Location of pain
Explanation:When a patient presents with back pain in the thoracic area, it is considered a red flag and requires further investigation to rule out potential serious underlying causes such as skeletal disorders, degenerative disc disease, vertebral fractures, vascular malformations, or metastasis. Additionally, if the patient exhibits fear-avoidance behavior and reduced activity, it may indicate psychosocial factors that could lead to chronic back pain. Patients under 20 or over 50 years old, those with a history of trauma, and those whose pain is worse at night are also considered red flags.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is currently in intensive care after experiencing a fall at home resulting in an open fracture of his right tibia/fibula and simple fractures in ribs 3-6. What steps can be taken to prevent the development of a chest infection in this patient?
Your Answer: Chest physiotherapy and adequate analgesia
Explanation:Proper pain management is crucial in cases of rib fractures to ensure that breathing is not hindered by discomfort. Inadequate ventilation due to pain can increase the risk of chest infections. To prevent this, patients may benefit from chest physiotherapy and breathing exercises, along with appropriate pain relief. CPAP may be used at night to keep the airway open in patients with obstructive sleep apnoea. While prophylactic antibiotics have been shown to reduce the incidence of empyema and pneumonia in some studies of chest trauma, their routine use is controversial due to the risk of antibiotic resistance. High flow oxygen is not recommended in the absence of hypoxaemia as it does not improve the patient’s ability to take deep breaths and cough effectively.
A rib fracture is a break in any of the bony segments of a rib. It is commonly caused by blunt trauma to the chest wall, but can also be due to underlying diseases that weaken the bone structure of the ribs. Rib fractures can occur singly or in multiple places along the length of a rib and may be associated with soft tissue injuries to the surrounding muscles or the underlying lung. Risk factors include chest injuries in major trauma, osteoporosis, steroid use, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and cancer metastases.
The most common symptom of a rib fracture is severe, sharp chest wall pain, which is often more severe with deep breaths or coughing. Chest wall tenderness over the site of the fractures and visible bruising of the skin may also be present. Auscultation of the chest may reveal crackles or reduced breath sounds if there is an underlying lung injury. In some cases, pain and underlying lung injury can result in a reduction in ventilation, causing a drop in oxygen saturation. Pneumothorax, a serious complication of a rib fracture, can present with reduced chest expansion, reduced breath sounds, and hyper-resonant percussion on the affected side. Flail chest, a consequence of multiple rib fractures, can impair ventilation of the lung on the side of injury and may require treatment with invasive ventilation and surgical fixation to prevent complications.
Diagnostic tests for rib fractures include a CT scan of the chest, which shows the fractures in 3D as well as the associated soft tissue injuries. Chest x-rays may provide suboptimal views and do not provide any information about the surrounding soft tissue injury. In cases of pathological fractures secondary to tumour metastases, a CT scan to look for a primary (if not already identified) is also required. Management of rib fractures involves conservative treatment with good analgesia to ensure breathing is not affected by pain. Inadequate ventilation may predispose to chest infections. Nerve blocks can be considered if the pain is not controlled by normal analgesia. Surgical fixation can be considered to manage pain if this is still an issue and the fractures have failed to heal following 12 weeks of conservative management. Flail chest segments are the only form of rib fractures that should be urgently discussed with cardiothoracic surgery as they can impair ventilation and result in significant lung trauma. Lung complications such as pneumothorax or haemothorax should be managed as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy came in with a painful left shoulder after a fall. An X-ray of his left humerus reveals no visible fracture line. Upon clinical examination, the pediatric orthopedic surgeon suggests that there may be a transverse fracture across the growth plate of his left humerus, and not involving any other structures. The prognosis is positive. What kind of fracture is this?
Your Answer: Salter Harris 1
Explanation:Paediatric Fractures and Pathological Conditions
Paediatric fractures can be classified into different types based on the injury pattern. Complete fractures occur when both sides of the cortex are breached, while greenstick fractures only have a unilateral cortical breach. Buckle or torus fractures result in incomplete cortical disruption, leading to a periosteal haematoma. Growth plate fractures are also common in paediatric practice and are classified according to the Salter-Harris system. Injuries of Types III, IV, and V usually require surgery and may be associated with disruption to growth.
Non-accidental injury is a concern in paediatric fractures, especially when there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between proposed and actual mechanism of injury, multiple injuries, injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma, or when children are on the at-risk register. Pathological fractures may also occur due to genetic conditions such as osteogenesis imperfecta, which is characterized by defective osteoid formation and failure of collagen maturation in all connective tissues. Osteopetrosis is another pathological condition where bones become harder and more dense, and radiology reveals a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, described as marble bone.
Overall, paediatric fractures and pathological conditions require careful evaluation and management to ensure optimal outcomes for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old Sri Lankan male comes to you with a complaint of low back pain that has been gradually worsening over the past 6 months. He reports that the pain is particularly bad before he wakes up in the morning. Additionally, he has noticed increasing stiffness in his right wrist and left third metacarpal joints. Upon examination, you observe reduced spinal movements in lateral spinal flexion and rotation, as well as a positive Schober's test. The patient has not received any prior treatment for his back pain and has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer: Physiotherapy and NSAIDs
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) patients can often find relief from their symptoms through the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) alone, according to the most recent guidelines from the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR). In fact, continuous NSAID therapy is recommended for those with active and persistent symptoms, as it has been shown to slow the progression of the disease. While systemic glucocorticoids are not effective for managing AS, intra-articular steroid injections may be helpful for peripheral joint or enthesitis issues. Of traditional disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), only sulphasalazine has been found to be effective for peripheral joint involvement, but it does not work for those with axial joint involvement. For those with insufficiently controlled symptoms, TNF-alpha inhibitors such as etanercept, infliximab, or adalimumab are recommended, without significant difference in efficacy between the three.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a one-sided headache on his left side and blurry vision in his left eye. The pain extends to his jaw, especially when he chews. He has been experiencing fatigue, muscle pain, and night sweats for the past few weeks. What medical conditions would you anticipate in his medical history?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Temporal arthritis frequently manifests in individuals with PMR.
Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a follow-up on her Dupuytren's contracture. She has been experiencing more difficulty lately with her job, which involves a lot of typing. Despite taking Naproxen, she has not found much relief. During the examination, the GP observes that the metacarpophalangeal joints on her right hand's little finger and ring finger are bent forward by 30 degrees, and she is unable to place her hand flat on the table. What should be the GP's next appropriate step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Make a routine referral to orthopaedics to be seen by a hand specialist
Explanation:When a patient with Dupuytren’s contracture is unable to straighten their metacarpophalangeal joints and place their hand flat on a table, surgical treatment should be considered. This condition occurs when the palmar fascia becomes stiff and fibroses, causing the affected fingers to contract, typically the ring and little finger of the right hand.
The severity of the condition will determine the appropriate management approach. In cases where the condition is severe and impacting the patient’s quality of life, referral to a hand specialist for secondary intervention is recommended. This may involve either surgical intervention or injectable enzyme therapy, which should only be initiated by a specialist.
For minor cases where the condition is not significantly affecting the patient’s quality of life, primary care management may be appropriate. This will involve reassurance that the condition may improve over time, regular reviews, and advice on when to return for referral if necessary.
It is important to note that corticosteroid injections are not effective in treating Dupuytren’s contracture. Additionally, as this is not an acute problem, patients should not be advised to attend the emergency department.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of weakness in her thighs and shoulders, making it difficult for her to climb stairs and lift objects. She has also observed a purple rash, particularly on her face and eyelids. During the examination, she has painful and itchy papules on her metacarpophalangeal joints. Which antibody is expected to be positive in this patient?
Your Answer: Anti-Ro
Correct Answer: Anti-Jo-1
Explanation:The presence of the anti-Jo-1 antibody suggests that the patient is likely suffering from dermatomyositis, a condition characterized by muscle weakness in the proximal areas and a blue-purple rash on the face, upper eyelids, and trunk. The papules on the small joints of the hands, known as Gottron papules, are a telltale sign of this condition. While anti-CCP is often positive in rheumatoid arthritis, which causes pain and stiffness in the small joints of the hands and feet, anti-La and anti-Ro are commonly positive in Sjogren’s syndrome, which is characterized by dry mouth and eyes and swelling of the parotid gland.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of intense lower back pain that extends down one of his legs. Despite having a manual job, he denies any history of injury. During the examination, it is noted that he has diminished perianal sensation and anal tone.
What would be considered a late sign in this patient's diagnosis, indicating possible irreversible damage?Your Answer: Reduced anal tone
Correct Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation:Cauda equina syndrome typically manifests as lower back pain, sciatica, and decreased sensation in the perianal area. As the condition progresses, urinary incontinence may develop, which is a concerning late sign associated with irreversible damage. While a positive sciatic stretch test indicates nerve irritation or compression, it does not necessarily indicate spinal cord compression. Reduced perianal sensation is also a red flag, but it typically appears earlier than urinary incontinence. Although tingling in one leg may be caused by sciatic nerve irritation, it is not a specific sign of cauda equina syndrome, particularly if it is unilateral. While assessing anal tone is important, studies have shown that it has low sensitivity and specificity for detecting cauda equina syndrome.
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a fall resulting in a fracture of his distal 1/3 right femur. The radiologist noted v-shaped osteolytic lesions on his femur. Due to his age and the stability of the fracture, conservative management is chosen. His blood test results are as follows: haemoglobin 142 g/L (135-180), calcium 2.6 mmol/L (2.2 - 2.6), phosphate 0.9 mmol/L (0.74 - 1.4), alkaline phosphatase 418 u/L (30 - 100), and parathyroid hormone 52 pg/mL (10-55). The patient has a medical history of chronic kidney disease and diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for the patient’s condition is Paget’s disease of the bone, which commonly affects the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. This is evidenced by the patient’s distal 2/3 femur fracture with osteolytic lesions and elevated ALP levels. Myeloma, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis are incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that has been getting worse over the past year. The pain and stiffness are more severe in the morning but improve with exercise. During your examination, you notice a flexural rash with poorly defined areas of erythema, dry skin, and lichenification. All observations appear normal. The blood test results show an ESR of 84 mm/hr (normal range: 0-22) and a CRP of 6 mg/L (normal range: 0-10). ANA, RhF, and Anti-CCP tests are all negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Exercise is typically beneficial for inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. The patient’s symptoms, including morning stiffness and improvement with exercise, suggest an inflammatory cause, which is supported by the significantly elevated ESR. While there are several possible diagnoses, including seropositive and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, the most likely explanation is ankylosing spondylitis. Psoriatic arthritis is an incorrect answer, as the patient’s rash is more consistent with dermatitis than psoriasis. Osteoarthritis is also unlikely given the patient’s age and clinical history, while reactive arthritis is less likely due to the duration of symptoms and lack of urethritis or conjunctivitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old male presents with bilateral buttock pain that radiates through his thighs and calves. The pain worsens with standing and walking, limiting his ability to walk for more than 10 minutes or 2 to 3 blocks. However, the pain is relieved by sitting or forward flexion of the spine. There is no history of bladder or bowel dysfunction, and motor and sensory neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:AS, also known as ankylosing spondylitis, is a type of arthritis that primarily affects the spine. It causes inflammation and stiffness in the joints between the vertebrae, leading to fusion of the spine over time. AS can also affect other joints, such as the hips, shoulders, and knees, and can cause fatigue and eye inflammation. It is a chronic condition that typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in men than women. There is no cure for AS, but treatment options such as medication, exercise, and physical therapy can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.
Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient presents with an upper limb nerve injury. The patient reports weak finger abduction and adduction with reduced sensation over the ulnar border of the hand. Clawing of the 4th and 5th digits is observed during examination. The patient experiences worsening of this deformity during recovery before eventually resolving. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Damage to ulnar nerve at the elbow
Explanation:Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of fever, chills, and excruciating joint pain that has been ongoing for a day. Upon examination, the patient seems to be in distress, and the joint is warm and erythematosus to the touch. Additionally, there is a skin abscess located beneath the left axilla. To aid in further diagnosis, a synovial fluid aspiration is performed. Based on this presentation, which joint is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Shoulder
Correct Answer: Knee
Explanation:Septic arthritis is most frequently observed in the knees of adults.
The patient is exhibiting symptoms of septic arthritis, such as a painful, warm, and red joint, as well as chills and a fever. The primary cause of septic arthritis is the spread of infection from a distant site through the bloodstream. In this case, the patient’s axillary abscess is likely the source of his septic arthritis.
The correct answer is knee. Among adults, septic arthritis most commonly affects the knee joint, making it the appropriate choice in this situation.
Hip is not the correct answer. Although the hip joint is also frequently affected by septic arthritis, it is less common than the knee, making it an incorrect option for this patient.
Ankles, shoulders, and elbows are also incorrect answers. While these joints can be affected by septic arthritis, they are less commonly affected than the knee, making them inappropriate choices for this patient.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with breast cancer and bony metastases has been admitted to your ward following a vertebral fracture sustained while twisting in her car seat. The orthopaedic team is managing this conservatively. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Currently, she is taking amlodipine and omeprazole. She previously took alendronic acid but stopped due to severe reflux. What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate?
Your Answer: Alendronic acid
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:To prevent pathological fractures in bone metastases, bisphosphonates and denosumab are viable options. However, if the patient’s eGFR is less than 30, denosumab is the preferred choice. Alendronic acid should be avoided due to the patient’s history of severe reflux during previous use. Denosumab is a novel treatment for osteoporosis that inhibits the development of osteoclasts by blocking RANKL. It is administered via subcutaneous injection and is also effective in preventing skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors. Cinacalcet is not indicated for the management of osteoporosis or pathological fractures, but rather for hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcemia in parathyroid carcinoma. Hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) is not recommended for the treatment of osteoporosis in older postmenopausal women due to its unfavorable risk-benefit ratio.
Denosumab: A New Treatment for Osteoporosis
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, which are responsible for breaking down bone tissue. It is administered as a subcutaneous injection every six months at a dose of 60mg. A larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events in adults with bone metastases from solid tumors.
When it comes to managing osteoporosis, oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment, with alendronate being the preferred option. If alendronate is not tolerated, an alternative bisphosphonate such as risedronate or etidronate may be used. Next-line medications are only started if certain T score and other risk factor criteria are met. Raloxifene and strontium ranelate were previously recommended as next-line drugs, but due to safety concerns regarding strontium ranelate, denosumab is becoming increasingly popular.
Denosumab is generally well-tolerated, with dyspnea and diarrhea being the most common side effects. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should look out for patients complaining of unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is a promising new treatment for osteoporosis that may be particularly useful for patients who cannot tolerate oral bisphosphonates or who have other risk factors that make them unsuitable for these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Correct
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A 40-year-old couple, Mr and Mrs Johnson, have been referred to a fertility clinic by their GP due to their inability to conceive after 18 months of regular unprotected sexual intercourse. Mrs Johnson has well-controlled asthma and no other medical conditions, while Mr Johnson has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, schizophrenia, and hypothyroidism for which he takes sulfasalazine, ibuprofen, omeprazole, olanzapine, and levothyroxine. Mr Johnson's semen analysis reveals a count of 14 million/mL (15-200 million/mL). Which medication is the most likely cause of this result?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient is referred to the orthopaedics department with a history of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma three years ago. Despite regular follow-up scans showing no signs of disease recurrence, she has been experiencing worsening pain in her right hip for the past two months, particularly during exercise. During examination, she experiences pain in all directions when her hip is moved passively, with internal rotation being particularly painful. An x-ray ordered by her GP has come back as normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Explanation:Avascular necrosis is strongly associated with prior chemotherapy treatment. Although initial x-rays may appear normal in patients with this condition, it is unlikely that they would not reveal any metastatic deposits that could cause pain.
Understanding Avascular Necrosis of the Hip
Avascular necrosis of the hip is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, leading to bone destruction and loss of joint function. This condition typically affects the epiphysis of long bones, such as the femur. There are several causes of avascular necrosis, including long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma.
Initially, avascular necrosis may not present with any symptoms, but as the condition progresses, pain in the affected joint may occur. Plain x-ray findings may be normal in the early stages, but osteopenia and microfractures may be seen. As the condition worsens, collapse of the articular surface may result in the crescent sign.
MRI is the preferred investigation for avascular necrosis as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. In severe cases, joint replacement may be necessary to manage the condition. Understanding the causes, features, and management of avascular necrosis of the hip is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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As part of a shared care prescribing agreement, the rheumatology team requests you to prescribe a medication to a 60-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. Upon reviewing her recent notes, you discover that she had been sent to the emergency department for suspected cardiac chest pain, which was later ruled out, and a musculoskeletal cause was diagnosed. During her hospitalization, she was given 300mg of aspirin, which caused a widespread flushing and a maculopapular rash, and aspirin was recorded as a drug adverse reaction on her medical records. Which of the following DMARDs should be prescribed with caution?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Sulfasalazine may cause a reaction in patients who are allergic to aspirin.
Sulfasalazine: A DMARD for Inflammatory Arthritis and Bowel Disease
Sulfasalazine is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage inflammatory arthritis, particularly rheumatoid arthritis, as well as inflammatory bowel disease. This medication is a prodrug for 5-ASA, which works by reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and suppressing the proliferation of lymphocytes and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
However, caution should be exercised when using sulfasalazine in patients with G6PD deficiency or those who are allergic to aspirin or sulphonamides due to the risk of cross-sensitivity. Adverse effects of sulfasalazine may include oligospermia, Stevens-Johnson syndrome, pneumonitis/lung fibrosis, myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and the potential to color tears and stain contact lenses.
Despite these potential side effects, sulfasalazine is considered safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, making it a viable option for women who require treatment for inflammatory arthritis or bowel disease. Overall, sulfasalazine is an effective DMARD that can help manage the symptoms of these conditions and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 78-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward after undergoing a total hip replacement. She sustained a neck of femur fracture after falling from a standing position while vacuuming her living room. She was brought to the hospital by ambulance with a shortened, externally rotated left leg. The hip x-ray confirmed the fracture, and she underwent surgery promptly. The patient has a medical history of mild knee osteoarthritis and type II diabetes mellitus. She has been in the hospital for three days, is weight-bearing, and is ready for discharge. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation have been initiated.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Commence alendronate
Explanation:After a fragility fracture in women aged 75 or older, a DEXA scan is not required to diagnose osteoporosis and start bisphosphonate treatment, with alendronate being the first-line option. The patient in the scenario has already experienced a fragility fracture and is over 75, so a DEXA scan is unnecessary as it will not alter her management. A skeletal survey is also not needed as there are no indications of bone pathology. Raloxifene is a second-line treatment for osteoporosis and not appropriate for the patient who has had a neck of femur fracture, making alendronate the initial choice.
The NICE guidelines for managing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women include offering vitamin D and calcium supplementation, with alendronate being the first-line treatment. If a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, risedronate or etidronate may be given as second-line drugs, with strontium ranelate or raloxifene as options if those cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, with alendronate and risedronate being superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures. Other treatments include selective estrogen receptor modulators, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and hormone replacement therapy. Hip protectors and falls risk assessment may also be considered in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male is being evaluated by his GP due to gradually worsening lower back pain. The pain is more severe in the morning and after prolonged periods of inactivity. He has also experienced increasing fatigue over the past 6 months. The GP prescribed regular NSAIDs, which resulted in significant symptom improvement. An x-ray of the lumbar spine was conducted, revealing indications of ankylosing spondylitis.
What is the most probable finding on the patient's x-ray?Your Answer: Vertebral body wedging
Correct Answer: Subchondral erosions
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis can be identified through x-ray findings such as subchondral erosions, which are typically seen in the corners of vertebral bodies and on the iliac side of the sacroiliac joint. This is usually preceded by subchondral sclerosis, which can lead to squaring of the lumbar vertebrae and a characteristic bamboo spine appearance. It is important to note that juxta-articular osteoporosis, loss of vertebral height, and osteopenia are not typical x-ray findings for ankylosing spondylitis.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is receiving his last round of ICE chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the potential risk associated with his treatment that he may develop?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Chemotherapy can lead to a higher risk of gout due to the increased production of uric acid from the breakdown of cells. However, it is not associated with an increased risk of pseudogout or rheumatoid arthritis, which are caused by different factors such as calcium pyrophosphate crystals and genetics, respectively.
Understanding the Predisposing Factors of Gout
Gout is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when monosodium urate monohydrate is deposited in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels that exceed 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.
One of the primary causes of decreased uric acid excretion is the use of diuretics. Chronic kidney disease and lead toxicity can also lead to decreased excretion of uric acid. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be caused by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis. Additionally, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is an x-linked recessive disorder that is only seen in boys, can also lead to increased production of uric acid.
It is important to note that aspirin in low doses is not thought to have a significant effect on plasma urate levels. Therefore, it is recommended that it should be continued if required for cardiovascular prophylaxis. Understanding the predisposing factors of gout can help individuals take preventative measures to reduce their risk of developing this painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the hospital with a suspected fracture of her left femur. Her parents are unsure how this happened and deny any injury. During the examination, you observe extensive dental decay, a bluish hue to the whites of her eyes, and on X-ray, multiple fractures at different stages of healing are noted.
What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is a collagen disorder that is identified by blue sclera, multiple fractures during childhood, dental caries, and deafness due to otosclerosis. It is often mistaken for child abuse or neglect, but the presence of blue sclera is a crucial indicator of osteogenesis imperfecta. In contrast, rickets is more likely to cause growth stunting and deformities rather than multiple fractures.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hand pains that have been bothering her for several years. She reports that the pains started in both wrists a few years ago and have since spread to several joints in her fingers. The pain tends to worsen after use and improves with rest. Although the affected joints feel stiff upon waking, this only lasts for a few minutes. The patient reports that she can still complete tasks without any difficulty.
During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness in the carpometacarpal joints and several distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) on both sides. There are also painless nodes that can be felt over several DIPs. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, as well as the presence of painless swellings known as Heberden’s nodes. Gout, pseudogout, and psoriatic arthritis are less likely diagnoses due to their acute presentation, involvement of different joints, and/or lack of a psoriasis history.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a painful red eye and blurred vision. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he is experiencing multiple painful ulcers in his mouth and genital area. Despite being sexually active, he admits to seldom using barrier contraception, and his routine sexually transmitted infection screenings have all been negative. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reiter's syndrome
Correct Answer: Behcet's disease
Explanation:Behcet’s disease is characterized by the presence of oral ulcers, genital ulcers, and anterior uveitis. A red and painful eye with blurred vision is a common symptom of anterior uveitis. When combined with painful oral and genital ulcers, it forms the triad that is indicative of Behcet’s disease. This condition is a type of multi-system vasculitis that typically affects men in their 20s and 30s more than women. Although sexual history should always be considered as a cause for genital ulcers, it is not relevant in this case. Chancroid, HSV, Reiter’s syndrome, and primary syphilis are not associated with the triad of symptoms seen in Behcet’s disease.
Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.
The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Correct
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Sophie, a 19-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after a sports-related incident. She reports experiencing discomfort in her left knee, which worsens when crouching. Upon examination, her knee appears swollen and tender to the touch. Additionally, there is a painful clicking sensation during McMurray's's test.
What is the probable cause of injury in this scenario?Your Answer: Twisting around flexed knee
Explanation:A knee injury caused by twisting can lead to a tear in the meniscus, potentially accompanied by a sprain in the medial collateral ligament. The affected knee would be swollen and tender to the touch, and a positive McMurray’s’s test (painful clicking) would also be present. Patella dislocation, which can result from direct trauma to the knee, is indicated by a positive patellar apprehension test rather than a positive McMurray’s’s test. Falling onto a bent knee can cause injury to the posterior cruciate ligament, which is indicated by a positive posterior drawer test. Hyperextension knee injury, on the other hand, most commonly results in a rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament, which is indicated by a positive anterior drawer test. Repeated jumping and landing on hard surfaces can lead to patella tendinopathy or ‘jumper’s knee’, which causes anterior knee pain that worsens with exercise and jumping over a period of 2-4 weeks.
Understanding Meniscal Tear and its Symptoms
Meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. Its symptoms include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases where the tear is displaced. To diagnose a meniscal tear, doctors may perform Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by the doctor. If the patient experiences pain on twisting the knee, the test is considered positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of severe back pain and a high fever. The pain began in his lower back three days ago and has progressively worsened, now extending to his left thigh and groin. He finds relief by lying on his back and keeping his left knee slightly bent and hip externally rotated. Hip extension is particularly painful.
The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. On examination, he has a fever of 38.2ÂșC and a heart rate of 132 beats per minute. A mild systolic murmur is present, and tenderness is noted over L1 to L3.
His urine dip reveals protein 1+ and blood 1+, but is negative for nitrites and leukocytes. What is the most likely cause of his back pain?Your Answer: Psoas abscess
Explanation:When considering the potential causes of back pain in an intravenous drug user, it is important to keep psoas abscess in mind as a possible differential diagnosis. In this particular case, the patient’s symptoms suggest the presence of infective endocarditis, as indicated by the presence of blood and protein in the urine and a systolic murmur during auscultation. However, it is unlikely that this condition is responsible for the patient’s back pain.
An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.
The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.
The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy visits his GP complaining of dull, aching pain and swelling in the distal part of his right thigh that has been present for 4 months. He has a history of exercise-induced asthma and a family history of retinoblastoma. During the examination, a knee X-ray is performed, revealing a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur with a 'sunburst' pattern. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Types of Bone Tumours
Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.
Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a football injury resulting in a fracture. Despite reduction, the patient is experiencing severe pain, especially during passive stretching. The affected arm is visibly swollen, and the patient reports tingling sensations in their hand and forearm. What type of fracture is commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer: Radial head fracture
Correct Answer: Supracondylar fracture
Explanation:Compartment syndrome is often linked to fractures in the supracondylar region of the arm and the tibial shaft in the lower leg. Symptoms include excessive pain, especially during passive stretching, as well as swelling and paraesthesia in the affected limb. Late signs may include numbness and paralysis.
Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient arrives with an abrupt onset of hemiparesis on the right side, affecting the face, arm, and leg. During the examination, you observe right-sided hemiparesis, aphasia, and a right homonymous hemianopia. The patient has a medical history of recurrent miscarriages, pulmonary embolisms, and deep vein thrombosis. The blood test results show a prolonged APTT. What could be the probable reason for the stroke?
Your Answer: Factor V Leiden
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of antiphospholipid syndrome, which can be confirmed by a positive anti-Cardiolipin antibody test. It is crucial to keep in mind that hypercoagulable states and hyperviscosity can lead to strokes. Antiphospholipid syndrome is a type of thrombophilia disorder that causes hypercoagulation and a higher likelihood of forming clots, both arterial and venous. This increases the risk of ischaemic strokes.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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