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  • Question 1 - Which group is identified by the Royal College of Psychiatrists as having a...

    Incorrect

    • Which group is identified by the Royal College of Psychiatrists as having a high likelihood of engaging in self-harm?

      Your Answer: People from travelling communities

      Correct Answer: Asylum seekers

      Explanation:

      Prisoners, asylum seekers, armed forces veterans, suicide bereaved individuals, certain cultural minority groups, and individuals from sexual minorities are more likely to engage in self-harm.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.6
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  • Question 2 - A young woman with no prior psychiatric history experiences mania during her initial...

    Correct

    • A young woman with no prior psychiatric history experiences mania during her initial pregnancy. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      The recommendation from NICE is to use antipsychotics for the treatment of mania in women.

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which tricyclic antidepressant should breastfeeding women avoid using? ...

    Correct

    • Which tricyclic antidepressant should breastfeeding women avoid using?

      Your Answer: Doxepin

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a skin alteration that can be observed in individuals with anorexia...

    Incorrect

    • What is a skin alteration that can be observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Hypertrichiosis

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Skin Changes in Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. In addition to the physical effects of malnutrition, anorexia can also cause various skin changes. These changes include xerosis of dry skin, cheilitis of inflammation of the lips, gingivitis of inflammation of the gums, hypertrichiosis of excess hair growth in areas that do not normally have hair, hyperpigmentation, Russell’s sign of scarring on knuckles and back of hand, carotenoderma of yellow/orange skin color, acne, nail changes, acrocyanosis of persistent blue, cyanotic discoloration of the digits, and seborrheic dermatitis. These skin changes can be a sign of underlying malnutrition and should be addressed as part of the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with completed suicide?

      Your Answer: 55-year-old male, married, social class V

      Correct Answer: 45-year-old male, divorced, unemployed, social class V

      Explanation:

      Suicide Risk Factors

      Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.7
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  • Question 6 - What is a true statement about lamotrigine? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about lamotrigine?

      Your Answer: Valproate increases lamotrigine concentrations more than 2-fold

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for recurrence in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for recurrence in unipolar depression?

      Your Answer: Recurrent dysthymia

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Factors that Increase the Risk of Recurrent Depression

      Depression is a disorder that often recurs. Research shows that 50-85% of individuals who experience a single episode of depression will have a second episode, and of those, 80-90% will have a third episode (Forshall, 1999). Due to the high likelihood of recurrence, NICE recommends that individuals who have had two of more episodes of depression in the recent past should continue taking antidepressants for at least two years.

      Several factors increase the risk of recurrent depression, including a family history of depression, recurrent dysthymia, concurrent non-affective psychiatric illness, female gender, long episode duration, chronic medical illness, and lack of a confiding relationship. It is important for individuals with a history of depression to be aware of these risk factors and to work with their healthcare provider to develop a plan for preventing future episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.3
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  • Question 8 - What is the first-line recommendation by NICE for the long-term management of adult...

    Incorrect

    • What is the first-line recommendation by NICE for the long-term management of adult bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.5
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  • Question 9 - During which time period is postpartum psychosis most likely to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • During which time period is postpartum psychosis most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: 6-8 weeks

      Correct Answer: 0-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The specific onset of puerperal psychosis is a topic of varying information from different sources. It is difficult to determine whether it is more common in the first two weeks of weeks 2-4. However, an article in Advances in Psychiatric Treatment by Brockington in 1998 suggests that the most common time period for onset is within the first two weeks. As this is a widely used resource in college, it is the source we have chosen to rely on.

      Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period

      The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.

      However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.

      Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      21.4
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  • Question 10 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Flattening of affect

      Correct Answer: Lack of insight

      Explanation:

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the term used to describe the scarring on the knuckles of...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the scarring on the knuckles of a young lady with an eating disorder that you observed during an outpatient visit?

      Your Answer: Russell's sign

      Explanation:

      Battle’s sign is a clinical indicator of a basal skull fracture, while Babinski’s sign is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion. Hoover’s sign is a sign of non-organic paralysis of the leg. Kernig’s sign is a clinical indicator of meningeal irritation.

      Skin Changes in Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight. In addition to the physical effects of malnutrition, anorexia can also cause various skin changes. These changes include xerosis of dry skin, cheilitis of inflammation of the lips, gingivitis of inflammation of the gums, hypertrichiosis of excess hair growth in areas that do not normally have hair, hyperpigmentation, Russell’s sign of scarring on knuckles and back of hand, carotenoderma of yellow/orange skin color, acne, nail changes, acrocyanosis of persistent blue, cyanotic discoloration of the digits, and seborrheic dermatitis. These skin changes can be a sign of underlying malnutrition and should be addressed as part of the treatment plan for anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately reflects the NICE guidelines on self-harm?

      Your Answer: The psychosocial assessment is better left until the medical treatment is complete

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines on Self-Harm advise against the use of emetics, such as ipecac, in the management of self-poisoning. Flumazenil, although not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK, should be considered if poisoning with benzodiazepines is suspected. Intravenous acetylcysteine is recommended as the treatment of choice for paracetamol overdose. It is important to conduct a psychosocial assessment as soon as possible, unless the patient requires life-saving medical treatment of is unable to be assessed. Plasma paracetamol levels should be measured between 4 and 15 hours after ingestion for reliable risk assessment.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the accuracy of the standardised mortality ratio for individuals with schizophrenia?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accuracy of the standardised mortality ratio for individuals with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: It is lower in people of lower social class

      Correct Answer: It falls with age

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia and Mortality

      Schizophrenia is associated with a reduced life expectancy, according to a meta-analysis of 37 studies. The analysis found that people with schizophrenia have a mean SMR (standardised mortality ratio) of 2.6, meaning that their risk of dying over the next year is 2.6 times higher than that of people without the condition. Suicide and accidents contribute significantly to the increased SMR, while cardiovascular disease is the leading natural cause of death. SMR decreases with age due to the early peak of suicides and the gradual rise in population mortality. There is no sex difference in SMR, but patients who are unmarried, unemployed, and of lower social class have higher SMRs. The majority of deaths in people with schizophrenia are due to natural causes, with circulatory disease being the most common. Other linked causes include diabetes, epilepsy, and respiratory disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      26.1
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  • Question 14 - Which symptom is not commonly linked to PTSD? ...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is not commonly linked to PTSD?

      Your Answer: Hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Common signs of PTSD may include:

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      4.7
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man with Cushing's syndrome is brought to the hospital with a...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with Cushing's syndrome is brought to the hospital with a sudden onset of schizophrenia. His son informs you that he is quite 'delicate' and has had several bone fractures in the past due to minor accidents. Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for this patient until further assessments are conducted?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Given that Cushing’s disease causes excessive secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal glands, resulting in osteoporosis, the most suitable initial treatment option would be aripiprazole. This would be recommended until a DEXA scan is conducted to confirm of rule out the presence of osteoporosis. Aripiprazole is the preferred choice as it has the lowest likelihood of causing hyperprolactinemia compared to the other options, which reduces the risk of developing osteoporosis.

      Management of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.

      Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.

      Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      13.1
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  • Question 16 - What is the most suitable medication for a pregnant woman experiencing symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable medication for a pregnant woman experiencing symptoms of a mixed affective state?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Due to the patient’s pregnancy, mood stabilisers cannot be used as a traditional treatment for their mixed affective state, which presents symptoms of both mania and depression. Instead, an antipsychotic is the preferred course of action.

      Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential

      Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.

      Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      25.3
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  • Question 17 - Which antiepileptic medication is associated with a higher risk of causing aggression when...

    Correct

    • Which antiepileptic medication is associated with a higher risk of causing aggression when used for epilepsy treatment?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.

      Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old pregnant patient with a family history of bipolar disorder presents in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant patient with a family history of bipolar disorder presents in a manic state. What is the recommended initial medication for treatment?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman experiences mania of psychosis without taking any psychotropic medication, the first-line treatment option should be an antipsychotic. If the patient does not respond to the maximum dose of the antipsychotic of if the mania is severe, lithium can be considered as an alternative. However, if the patient does not respond to lithium, ECT may be considered, although the question specifically asks about pharmacological treatment. It is not recommended to use valproate to treat mental health problems in women of childbearing age due to the risk of fetal abnormalities. Diazepam is unlikely to be effective, and if benzodiazepines are necessary during pregnancy, drugs with a shorter half-life should be preferred to avoid the risk of ‘floppy baby’ syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.6
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  • Question 19 - What is the relationship between Takotsubo cardiomyopathy and anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the relationship between Takotsubo cardiomyopathy and anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Cardiac enzymes are not raised in Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: It results from coronary vasospasm

      Explanation:

      Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a form of cardiomyopathy that is not caused by a lack of blood flow to the heart. It is believed to be caused by spasms in the coronary arteries and can resemble a heart attack. Typically, levels of cardiac enzymes are elevated. In individuals with anorexia, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy is a rare event that usually occurs after stress of low blood sugar. Although it is usually self-limiting and only requires supportive care, in rare cases, it can progress to cardiogenic shock.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      11.1
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  • Question 20 - What was the tool utilized in the Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) research? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the tool utilized in the Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) research?

      Your Answer: Structured Clinical Interview for DSM (SCID)

      Correct Answer: Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS)

      Explanation:

      Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.

      The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.

      These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - Which receptors have been linked to excessive salivation caused by clozapine? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptors have been linked to excessive salivation caused by clozapine?

      Your Answer: Muscarinic and adrenergic

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It includes a total of 21 questions

      Explanation:

      The Beck’s depression inventory consists of 21 questions with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored from 0 to 3 and is used to evaluate the severity of depression. It is a self-rated assessment that covers the two weeks leading up to the evaluation.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - What is the impact of lithium on the white blood cell count? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the impact of lithium on the white blood cell count?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophil levels are increased

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - What is the most well-supported option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most well-supported option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that are resistant to clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - What is accurate about the management of eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about the management of eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: People with an eating disorder who are vomiting should be encouraged to rinse with non-acid mouthwash after vomiting

      Explanation:

      Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines

      Anorexia:
      For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Bulimia:
      For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Binge Eating Disorder:
      The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.

      Advice for those with eating disorders:
      Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.

      Additional points:
      Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.

      Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - If a man has had 3 episodes of depression and has been in...

    Incorrect

    • If a man has had 3 episodes of depression and has been in full remission for the past 2 months, how long should he continue taking his antidepressant medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 years following remission

      Explanation:

      Depression Treatment Duration

      It is recommended to treat a single episode of depression for 6-9 months after complete remission. Abruptly stopping antidepressants after recovery can lead to a relapse in 50% of patients within 3-6 months. For patients who have experienced 2 of more depressive episodes in recent history, NICE recommends a minimum of 2 years of antidepressant treatment. These guidelines are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old woman who has frequently attended in the past with multiple somatic...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman who has frequently attended in the past with multiple somatic complaints is diagnosed with generalised anxiety disorder. She is initially treated with a low intensity psychological interventions which unfortunately fails to improve her symptoms. What is the most appropriate medication to offer her next line?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Anxiety (NICE guidelines)

      The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 52-year-old individual with a history of hypertension and transient ischaemic attacks experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old individual with a history of hypertension and transient ischaemic attacks experiences sudden onset of nausea, vomiting and falls to the ground. Upon neurological examination, cerebellar signs, Horner's syndrome and sensory deficits are observed. Which region of the cerebral vasculature is the most probable site of damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The patient has Wallenberg’s syndrome, which is caused by a blockage in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. Symptoms typically appear suddenly and include severe dizziness, which can cause the patient to fall. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, difficulty with coordination on the same side as the blockage, muscle stiffness, difficulty judging distance, and a tendency to lean to one side. The patient may also experience pain, tingling, of numbness on one side of the face, as well as involuntary eye movements, hiccups, difficulty swallowing, speaking, of breathing, and double vision. Horner’s syndrome, which affects the eye, is also common. Sensory changes may include a loss of pain and temperature sensation on one side of the face and reduced sensation on the opposite side of the body. This condition is most commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - For which condition is lithium the most suitable treatment option? ...

    Incorrect

    • For which condition is lithium the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroid-induced psychosis

      Explanation:

      The preferred treatment for pseudologia fantastica (pathological lying) is psychotherapy.

      Lithium – Clinical Usage

      Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.

      Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.

      Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.

      Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.

      The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - What is the estimated occurrence of schizophrenia among individuals with learning disabilities? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated occurrence of schizophrenia among individuals with learning disabilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Epidemiology

      Prevalence:
      – In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
      – Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
      – The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
      – Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.

      Incidence:
      – In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
      – Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.

      Gender:
      – The male to female ratio is 1:1.

      Course and Prognosis:
      – Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
      – Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
      – Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
      – Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
      – Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
      – People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.

      Winter Births:
      – Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.

      Urbanicity:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.

      Migration:
      – There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.

      Class:
      – There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.

      Learning Disability:
      – Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (14/21) 67%
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