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Question 1
Correct
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A 59-year-old man presents to the hospital with haemoptysis and cough. In the past two weeks, he has also had three episodes of epistaxis. The systemic review reveals that he has had a headache for more than three months that originates from his forehead and worsens on bending forwards. His urine has also been dark for the past one month.
Physical examination shows a purpuric rash on both legs. His laboratory test results are:
Hb 97 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 250 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 8.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Urea 35 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 430 µmol/L (55 - 120)
There is evidence of proteinuria and red cell casts on urinalysis. Chest X-ray demonstrates multiple lesions in both lungs. A lung biopsy is taken which on histopathology shows granulomas surrounded by histiocytes. Immunofluorescence reveals heavy granular staining in the cytoplasm suggestive of an autoantibody.
Which target is this antibody most likely to react with?Your Answer: Serine proteinase 3 (PR3)
Explanation:ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.
To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.
Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is being examined on the geriatric ward during the morning ward round. He reports feeling fine this morning. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, recurrent falls, severe asthma and diverticulosis.
During the examination, the doctor notices twitching of the facial muscles when tapping his face. Other than that, no abnormalities are found.
What could be causing the facial muscle twitching in this patient?Your Answer: Indapamide
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Denosumab has been known to cause hypocalcaemia, which can be identified through the examination finding of facial twitching upon tapping of the face, also known as Chvostek’s sign. This is due to the drug’s ability to inhibit the formation, function, and survival of osteoclasts, which are responsible for releasing calcium into the blood through bone resorption.
On the other hand, lithium is a mood stabilizer that can cause hypercalcaemia by resetting the setpoint for PTH. However, since there is no mention of the patient being on lithium in their medical history, this is unlikely to be the cause of their condition.
Rhabdomyolysis, which can result in hypercalcaemia, is often seen in patients who have experienced falls or prolonged bed rest, particularly in geriatric wards where patients may be less mobile.
Thiazide-like diuretics, such as indapamide, can also cause hypercalcaemia by increasing urinary calcium resorption. However, this usually resolves once the diuretic is discontinued.
Finally, milk-alkali syndrome is a condition characterized by high blood calcium levels caused by excessive intake of calcium and absorbable alkali, often through dietary supplements or antacids taken to prevent osteoporosis.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is receiving community physiotherapy after a prolonged period of immobility caused by depression. He is experiencing difficulty with hip abduction. Which muscle is primarily responsible for this movement?
Your Answer: Iliopsoas
Correct Answer: Gluteus medius
Explanation:The correct muscle for hip abduction is the gluteus medius, which has anterior and posterior parts. The anterior part contributes to hip flexion and internal rotation, while the posterior part contributes to hip extension and external rotation. When both parts work together, they abduct the hip. The gluteus maximus primarily functions for hip extension and external rotation, while the hamstrings coordinate flexion and extension of the hip and knee joints but do not contribute to abduction. The iliopsoas primarily functions for hip extension.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following muscles does not attach to the radius?
Your Answer: Biceps
Correct Answer: Brachialis
Explanation:The ulna serves as the insertion point for the brachialis muscle, while the remaining muscles are inserted onto the radius.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 77-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of loose teeth and mucosal ulcers that won't heal. She has a medical history of asthma, diabetes, and recurrent falls, as well as having undergone bilateral hip replacement surgery. Upon examination, the doctor notes periodontal disease, while radiology reports reveal sclerotic lesions in the mandible and maxilla that are indicative of osteonecrosis. Which medication could be responsible for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Denosumab
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a potential side effect of bisphosphonates, particularly alendronate, and the risk increases with prolonged use. However, the other options listed are not associated with this condition. While denosumab is also linked to osteonecrosis of the jaw, it is less common than with bisphosphonates. It is unlikely that the patient is taking denosumab as there is no mention of any contraindications to bisphosphonates, and alendronate is the first-line drug for bone protection. Additionally, denosumab is significantly more expensive than alendronate.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP for a routine health check-up. She has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with a daily dose of ACE inhibitor. During a screening DEXA scan, her pelvis and femur show T-scores of -2.6 and -2.9, respectively.
What results would you anticipate from her laboratory tests?Your Answer: Decreased serum calcium and serum phosphate; increased ALP and PTH
Correct Answer: Normal serum calcium, serum phosphate, ALP and PTH
Explanation:Osteoporosis is the diagnosis for this patient, as indicated by a T-score of less than -2.5 on their DEXA scan. Their lab results for serum calcium, serum phosphate, ALP, and PTH are all within normal ranges for osteoporosis.
Patients with osteomalacia typically have decreased serum calcium and serum phosphate levels, along with increased ALP and PTH levels.
Paget’s disease is characterized by an isolated increase in ALP, while the rest of the lab values are normal.
Hyperparathyroidism is indicated by increased PTH levels, with the specific lab values depending on whether the patient has primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by raised PTH, calcium, and ALP levels, as increased bone resorption leads to high serum calcium and ALP levels. PTH also causes increased phosphate excretion by the kidneys, resulting in low serum phosphate levels.
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is indicated by raised PTH, phosphate, and ALP levels, typically seen in patients with chronic kidney disease. In this case, the kidneys cannot excrete phosphate, leading to increased serum phosphate levels, which in turn causes increased PTH secretion. PTH causes bone resorption, leading to high ALP levels. Chronic kidney disease also impairs vitamin D activation, resulting in hypocalcemia.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is recuperating from a fall that resulted in a fracture of his left fibular neck. He has observed that his left foot drags on the ground when he attempts to walk. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The patient is likely to have suffered damage to their common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop, following a fibular neck fracture. This is a common occurrence in such cases.
It is important to note that damage to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, obturator nerve, or pudendal nerve is unlikely to cause foot drop. These nerves are associated with different symptoms and conditions.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to the respiratory system is false?
Your Answer: The lumbar vertebrae do not have a transverse process foramina
Correct Answer: The spinous process is formed by the junction of the pedicles posteriorly
Explanation:The spinous process is created by the fusion of two laminae at the back.
Anatomy of the Vertebral Column
The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae, which are divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral. The cervical region has seven vertebrae, the thoracic region has twelve, the lumbar region has five, and the sacral region has five. However, the spinal cord segmental levels do not always correspond to the vertebral segments. For example, the C8 cord is located at the C7 vertebrae, and the T12 cord is situated at the T8 vertebrae.
The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck and are responsible for controlling the muscles of the upper extremities. The C3 cord contains the phrenic nucleus, which controls the diaphragm. The thoracic vertebrae are defined by those that have a rib and control the intercostal muscles and associated dermatomes. The lumbosacral vertebrae are located in the lower back and control the hip and leg muscles, as well as the buttocks and anal regions.
The spinal cord ends at the L1-L2 vertebral level, and below this level is a spray of spinal roots called the cauda equina. Injuries below L2 represent injuries to spinal roots rather than the spinal cord proper. Understanding the anatomy of the vertebral column is essential for diagnosing and treating spinal cord injuries and other related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her left big toe. Her first MTP joint is swollen, hot, and red. She is seen biting her nails and hitting her head against the wall. Her caregiver informs you that this is her usual behavior.
Upon joint aspiration, negative birefringent needle-shaped crystals are found. Sarah's medical history includes a learning disability, depression, and asthma. She takes sertraline for depression and frequently uses hydrocortisone cream for eczema. Sarah does not consume red meat and prefers a vegetable-based diet.
What factors predispose Sarah to this type of crystalline arthritis?Your Answer: Lack of red meat in the diet
Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Explanation:If an individual with learning difficulties and a history of gout exhibits self-mutilating behaviors such as head-banging or nail-biting, it may indicate the presence of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. However, risk factors for gout do not include sertraline, hydrocortisone, or asthma, but rather red meat consumption. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition caused by a deficiency in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) and is characterized by hyperuricemia, learning disability, self-mutilating behavior, gout, and renal failure.
Predisposing Factors for Gout
Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.
Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.
In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.
It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can you identify which muscle in her forearm may be impacted by this condition?
Your Answer: Flexor carpi radialis
Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The ulnar nerve supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, while all other flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a crush injury to his left lower leg. Despite taking opiates, he is still in excruciating pain.
During the examination, the patient experiences pain when his left lower leg is passively dorsiflexed. The dorsalis pedis pulse is present, but the posterior tibial pulse is absent. Additionally, there is weakness in the left big toe's plantar flexion.
Which muscle is most likely affected by this condition?Your Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment are:
Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb
The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.
The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.
The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.
Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.
Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Correct
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A 74-year-old woman has been brought to the emergency department by her husband after a fall at home. Upon assessment by the orthopaedics team, it is observed that she is holding her right arm adducted to her side and there is deformity of the proximal arm and shoulder with overlying skin ecchymosis and swelling. Neurovascular examination reveals palpable distal pulses and some paraesthesia over the deltoid region, but loss of active shoulder abduction is noted. What structure is likely to have been affected by this patient's injury?
Your Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The correct nerve that is likely injured in a patient with difficulty abducting their arm following a humeral neck fracture is the axillary nerve. This nerve provides motor function to the deltoid muscle, which is responsible for arm abduction at the shoulder joint, and cutaneous sensation to the deltoid region. Proximal humerus fractures, which are common in individuals of the patient’s age and gender, can often result in injury to the axillary nerve.
The brachial plexus is an incorrect answer as injuries to this nerve bundle are rare and would likely result in neurological dysfunction beyond the shoulder. The musculocutaneous nerve is also an incorrect answer as it provides motor function to the anterior compartment of the arm and sensation to the lateral forearm, but not to the deltoid region. The radial nerve is also an incorrect answer as it is typically injured in humeral shaft fractures and would result in wrist drop and paresthesia over the dorsal hand and wrist. The suprascapular nerve is also an incorrect answer as it provides motor innervation to different muscles and sensation to different joints than those affected in this case.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male is seeking information about his prescribed secondary prophylaxis medications following a recent myocardial infarction. He expresses concern about taking aspirin due to his history of acid reflux, despite being given gastric protection. As an alternative, he is prescribed celecoxib, another COX inhibitor. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Non-reversible COX-1 inhibitor
Correct Answer: Reversible COX-2 inhibitor
Explanation:Celecoxib inhibits COX-2 in a reversible manner, while aspirin inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 irreversibly. Celecoxib is classified as a selective NSAID that works by reducing the production of prostaglandins.
Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.
However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.
Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department following a fall on the street. He reports experiencing difficulty breathing and sharp, stabbing pain upon inhalation. A chest X-ray reveals a pneumothorax located at the lung's apex. Which bone is most likely fractured, resulting in the pneumothorax?
Your Answer: 1st rib
Correct Answer: Clavicle
Explanation:The apex of the pleural cavity is situated behind the middle third of the clavicle, which can be susceptible to breaking if there is force applied through the shoulders. Unlike the clavicle, the 1st and 2nd ribs are not commonly broken except in severe trauma such as road traffic accidents. The acromion is also an uncommon site for fractures, typically occurring from falling on outstretched hands. Similarly, the coracoid process is rarely fractured and is usually associated with shoulder dislocation.
Anatomy of the Clavicle
The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.
The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.
In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the piriformis muscle in the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh
Correct Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:The greater sciatic foramen does not serve as a pathway for the obturator nerve.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Correct
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Which nerve is situated in the groove between the oesophagus and trachea, on the medial side of the thyroid gland?
Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The inferior thyroid artery ligation can cause injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve at this location.
Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland
The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.
The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.
In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following anatomical structures is located in the spiral groove of the humerus?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Fractures involving the shaft can compromise the radial nerve, which is located in this groove.
The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old gardener presents to her GP with a two week history of elbow swelling. She reports a gradual onset of the swelling, with no apparent triggers, and experiences pain and warmth upon touch. She denies any swelling in other areas and is generally in good health.
The patient has a medical history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. There are no other known medical conditions.
During the physical examination, a tender, soft, fluctuant mass is palpated on the posterior aspect of the patient's elbow.
Based on the above information, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid nodule
Correct Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Understanding Olecranon Bursitis
Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. The inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows.
The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, which is often the only symptom. Some patients may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. On the other hand, patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.
Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.
Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-coloured bursal fluid favours a non-infective cause. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and signs of olecranon bursitis can help in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of limited mobility in his left shoulder for the past 3 days. He has been using crutches to move around due to a recent tibia fracture, but he denies any shoulder injury.
During the examination, the doctor observes decreased external rotation of the left shoulder. The patient also has slightly reduced flexion, extension, and abduction of the shoulder.
Which nerve is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the teres minor and deltoid muscles, which are involved in external rotation, flexion, extension, and abduction of the shoulder. Injuries to the axillary nerve can occur from compression, such as prolonged use of crutches.
The other nerves mentioned are not responsible for the patient’s presentation. The lateral pectoral nerve innervates the pectoralis major muscle, which is involved in different movements than those affected in this patient. The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle, which is not involved in external rotation. The subscapular nerve innervates the subscapularis muscle, which is involved in internal rotation. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are not involved in flexion or extension of the shoulder.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents to the urgent care centre with complaints of back pain after spending the day replanting hedges. During the examination, he exhibits weakness in hip abduction and great toe dorsiflexion, foot drop, and some sensory loss on the dorsum of his foot. There is no apparent change in his reflexes.
What could be the probable reason behind these symptoms?Your Answer: S1 radiculopathy
Correct Answer: L5 radiculopathy
Explanation:Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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