00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old female patient visits your clinic with complaints of mouth and genital...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits your clinic with complaints of mouth and genital ulcers, accompanied by redness in her eyes. You suspect Behcet's syndrome as the possible diagnosis. What skin manifestation would provide the strongest evidence to support your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema marginatum

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Behcet’s syndrome is linked to several skin symptoms, including genital ulcers, aphthous ulcers, acne-like lesions, and painful red lesions known as erythema nodosum. These lesions are caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat and are commonly found on the shins. In contrast, erythema marginatum is a rare rash characterized by pink rings on the extensor surfaces and is associated with rheumatic fever. Asteatotic eczema, also known as crazy paving eczema, has a unique appearance and is linked to hypothyroidism and lymphoma.

      Behcet’s syndrome is a complex disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the arteries and veins due to an autoimmune response, although the exact cause is not yet fully understood. The condition is more common in the eastern Mediterranean, particularly in Turkey, and tends to affect young adults between the ages of 20 and 40. Men are more commonly affected than women, although this varies depending on the country. Behcet’s syndrome is associated with a positive family history in around 30% of cases and is linked to the HLA B51 antigen.

      The classic symptoms of Behcet’s syndrome include oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. Other features of the condition may include thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, gastrointestinal problems like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis, and erythema nodosum. Diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome is based on clinical findings, as there is no definitive test for the condition. A positive pathergy test, where a small pustule forms at the site of a needle prick, can be suggestive of the condition. HLA B51 is also a split antigen that is associated with Behcet’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 79-year-old male with a history of dementia arrived at the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old male with a history of dementia arrived at the emergency department with a suspected hip fracture. After an x-ray, it was determined that he had a subcapital fracture of the femur with partial displacement. What would be the probable surgical treatment for this type of fracture?

      Your Answer: Hemiarthroplasty

      Explanation:

      For patients with a displaced hip fracture, the preferred treatment is either hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement. The most common type of intracapsular fracture of the proximal femur is a subcapital fracture. Fractures that occur proximal to the intertrochanteric line are classified as intracapsular, while those that occur distal to it are classified as extracapsular. Due to the potential threat to the blood supply in intracapsular fractures, the general recommendation is to perform hemiarthroplasty. For extracapsular femoral fractures, a dynamic hip screw is typically used.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a 37-year-old man who is experiencing worsening pain in his left knee. He is unable to bear weight on the affected leg and reports no injury or trauma. The patient is a known IV drug user and has no known drug allergies or regular medications. On examination, the knee is swollen and hot to touch. His vital signs are heart rate 107 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, oxygen saturations 95%, blood pressure 106/65mmHg, and temperature 38.9ºC. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of Hb, WBC, CRP, and ESR. The synovial fluid culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate first-line IV antibiotic therapy for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is likely in an intravenous drug user presenting with an acute, swollen and hot knee, accompanied by fever, inability to weight-bare, and raised inflammatory markers. The Kocher criteria can assist in confirming this diagnosis. According to the BNF, the preferred initial intravenous antibiotic is flucloxacillin, which targets gram-positive cocci and is commonly used for musculoskeletal and soft tissue infections in patients without allergies. Clindamycin may be an alternative, but only for those with a penicillin allergy.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has not responded to methotrexate and sulfasalazine...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has not responded to methotrexate and sulfasalazine and is now being considered for etanercept injections. What potential side effect is linked to the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Triggering Churg-Strauss syndrome

      Correct Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      The reactivation of TB is a possible side effect of TNF-α inhibitors.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis with Disease-Modifying Therapies

      The management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has significantly improved with the introduction of disease-modifying therapies (DMARDs) in the past decade. Patients with joint inflammation should start a combination of DMARDs as soon as possible, along with analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Monitoring response to treatment is crucial, and NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity to assess it. Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, while methotrexate is the most widely used DMARD. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine. TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients with an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept, infliximab, and adalimumab are some of the TNF-inhibitors available, each with their own risks and administration methods. Rituximab and Abatacept are other DMARDs that can be used, but the latter is not currently recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of generalised...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of generalised fatigue and weakness. He reports difficulty walking or standing for extended periods and struggles to get up from chairs. During examination, a violaceous non-oedematous rash is observed around his eyes, and his hands are extremely dry. Additionally, rough red papules are present over the extensor surfaces of his fingers. He has smoked 20 cigarettes a day for the last 45 years.
      What is the most crucial next step in managing his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignancy screening

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is often associated with an underlying malignancy, therefore malignancy screening is necessary. The patient’s symptoms, including proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash, dry hands, and Gottron’s papules, suggest a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. While an electromyogram may aid in diagnosis, it is not essential. Fundoscopy and referral to ophthalmology are not necessary as there are no eye-related symptoms. Instead, screening for malignancy through chest x-rays, CT scans, and blood tests is crucial.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A twenty-seven-year-old male presents to the emergency department with an ache-like pain in his back that radiates to his right groin. The pain started three days ago, has been progressively worsening, and is exacerbated by walking. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with paracetamol and ibuprofen, but to no avail. He also reports feeling feverish and experiencing chills for the past 24 hours.

      The patient has no significant medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, drinks 30 units of alcohol per week, and injects heroin daily. Upon examination, his heart rate is 96/minute, respiratory rate is 14/minute, blood pressure is 116/72 mmHg, and oxygen saturations are 98%. His temperature is 38.4 ºC.

      During examination of the spine and right hip, he experiences pain on movement of the hip joint, particularly flexion, but is not tender on palpation of the spine or hip joint. There is no evidence of swelling or erythema of the spine or hips, and no difference in temperature. Abdominal examination reveals a soft and non-tender abdomen, without organomegaly and present bowel sounds. The kidneys are non-ballotable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vertebral osteomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Iliopsoas abscess

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with fever and back or flank pain, it is important to consider the possibility of an iliopsoas abscess. This condition is indicated by pain in the hip joint area, along with a fever and pain during movement. Iliopsoas abscess occurs when there is a collection of pus within the iliopsoas muscle, which extends from the T12 – L5 vertebrae to the femur’s lesser trochanter. Intravenous drug use is a risk factor for developing this condition.

      Vertebral osteomyelitis, on the other hand, usually presents with tenderness, swelling, and weakness of the surrounding muscles over the infected vertebrae. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head may cause groin pain, but given the patient’s fever and IVDU status, an iliopsoas abscess is more likely. Kidney stones can cause constant pain from the loin to the groin, while appendicitis usually presents with pain in the umbilical region or right iliac fossa. The patient’s normal abdominal exam also makes appendicitis less likely.

      An iliopsoas abscess is a condition where pus accumulates in the iliopsoas compartment, which includes the iliacus and psoas muscles. There are two types of iliopsoas abscesses: primary and secondary. Primary abscesses occur due to the spread of bacteria through the bloodstream, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. Secondary abscesses are caused by underlying conditions such as Crohn’s disease, diverticulitis, colorectal cancer, UTIs, GU cancers, vertebral osteomyelitis, femoral catheterization, lithotripsy, endocarditis, and intravenous drug use. Secondary abscesses have a higher mortality rate compared to primary abscesses.

      The clinical features of an iliopsoas abscess include fever, back/flank pain, limp, and weight loss. During a clinical examination, the patient is positioned supine with the knee flexed and the hip mildly externally rotated. Specific tests are performed to diagnose iliopsoas inflammation, such as placing a hand proximal to the patient’s ipsilateral knee and asking the patient to lift their thigh against the hand, which causes pain due to contraction of the psoas muscle. Another test involves lying the patient on the normal side and hyperextending the affected hip, which should elicit pain as the psoas muscle is stretched.

      The investigation of choice for an iliopsoas abscess is a CT scan of the abdomen. Management involves antibiotics and percutaneous drainage, which is successful in around 90% of cases. Surgery is only indicated if percutaneous drainage fails or if there is another intra-abdominal pathology that requires surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of haemoptysis and symmetrical polyarthritis in...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of haemoptysis and symmetrical polyarthritis in his hands and feet for the past four weeks. He has also noticed blood in his urine recently. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the results show positive for blood and protein, but negative for nitrites, leucocytes, and ketones, with a pH of 7.5. The doctor orders various blood tests to aid in the diagnosis.
      What blood test is most likely to assist in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ANCA antibodies

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, joint pain, and systemic features, ANCA associated vasculitis should be considered. This is especially true if the patient has haematuria and proteinuria on dipstick, as well as haemoptysis and inflammatory arthritis. ANCA associated vasculitis can be diagnosed by testing for various serum ANCA antibodies. While a raised eosinophil count may suggest eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, it is not specific enough to make a diagnosis. IgA levels can help diagnose IgA nephropathy, but this is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Similarly, IgG is commonly raised in multiple myeloma, but this is not the diagnosis here.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitis such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic after tripping while walking his dog....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the clinic after tripping while walking his dog. He stumbled forward but managed to catch himself with his hands. He did not experience any head trauma or loss of consciousness.
      Upon examination, he reports persistent discomfort in his left hand, and the pain intensifies when pressure is applied through the metacarpal of his thumb.
      An X-ray shows an unsteady fracture in the proximal pole of a carpal bone.
      What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to orthopaedic surgery

      Explanation:

      Surgical fixation is necessary for all proximal scaphoid pole fractures, including this patient’s unstable fracture. The positive scaphoid compression test indicates instability, and the retrograde blood supply increases the risk of avascular necrosis. Rest, ice, compression, and elevation are not sufficient treatments in this case. While a long-arm thumb spica cast may be helpful for waist scaphoid fractures, it is less effective for unstable scaphoid pole fractures. Repeating a wrist x-ray after 10 days is appropriate when radiological signs are absent but clinical suspicion remains high. Attempting manual reduction is not recommended for scaphoid fractures, which require surgical fixation for optimal healing.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy complains of dull, throbbing pain and swelling in his left...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy complains of dull, throbbing pain and swelling in his left knee that is aggravated by his routine basketball practices. The boy also experiences a sensation of the left knee joint getting stuck and a painful 'click' when bending or straightening the left knee. Physical examination of the knee joint reveals a slight accumulation of fluid and a detectable loose body. Furthermore, tenderness is noticeable upon palpating the femoral condyles while the knee is flexed. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Osteochondritis dissecans is commonly seen in the knee joint and is characterized by knee pain after exercise, locking, and ‘clunking’. This condition is often caused by overuse of joints due to sports activities and can lead to secondary effects on joint cartilage, including pain, swelling, and possible formation of free bodies. Baker’s cyst, Osgood-Schlatter disease, and osteoarthritis are not the correct diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and causes.

      Understanding Osteochondritis Dissecans

      Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) is a condition that affects the subchondral bone, usually in the knee joint, and can lead to secondary effects on the joint cartilage. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults and can progress to degenerative changes if left untreated. Symptoms of OCD include knee pain and swelling, catching, locking, and giving way, as well as a painful clunk when flexing or extending the knee. Signs of the condition include joint effusion and tenderness on palpation of the articular cartilage of the medial femoral condyle when the knee is flexed.

      To diagnose OCD, X-rays and MRI scans are often used. X-rays may show the subchondral crescent sign or loose bodies, while MRI scans can evaluate cartilage, visualize loose bodies, stage the condition, and assess the stability of the lesion. Early diagnosis is crucial, as clinical signs may be subtle in the early stages. Therefore, there should be a low threshold for imaging and/or orthopedic opinion.

      Overall, understanding OCD is important for recognizing its symptoms and seeking appropriate medical attention. With early diagnosis and management, patients can prevent the progression of the condition and maintain joint health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor with a lump on the back...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to his doctor with a lump on the back of his right arm that has been getting bigger for the past three months. Recently, the lump has become very painful. The doctor orders a shoulder X-ray, which shows a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right humerus with an 'onion skin' appearance. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing's sarcoma

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is Ewing’s sarcoma, which is a malignant bone tumour that primarily affects children and adolescents. It is commonly found in the pelvis and long bones and can cause severe pain. X-rays may show an onion skin appearance. Fine-needle aspiration may be performed, and the presence of EWS-FLI1 protein is a key finding in cases of Ewing’s sarcoma.

      Chondrosarcoma is an incorrect diagnosis as it is a malignant tumour of cartilage that typically affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-aged individuals.

      Giant cell tumour is also an incorrect diagnosis as it is a benign tumour of multinucleated giant cells that is commonly found in the epiphysis of long bones and has a double-bubble or soap bubble appearance on x-ray. It is more commonly seen in patients aged 20-40 years old.

      Osteochondroma is another incorrect diagnosis as it is the most common benign bone tumour and typically presents as a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. It is most commonly found in males under 20 years old and is therefore unlikely given the presentation.

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphysis of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Rheumatology clinic for evaluation. She complains of experiencing arthralgia and swelling in the MCP joints of both hands for the past six months. Upon examination, boggy swelling is observed in the third, fourth, and fifth MCP joints bilaterally, along with erythema and mild tenderness upon palpation. No significant deformities are noted, and she has normal motor function and range of motion in both hands. The following are the results of her investigations:
      Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibody titre 48U (<20)
      What are the most probable X-ray findings for this patient's hands?

      Your Answer: Peri-articular erosions

      Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteopaenia

      Explanation:

      Juxta-articular osteopenia is an early X-ray finding commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who presents with symmetrical arthropathy affecting multiple hand joints and a positive anti-CCP titre. Joint subluxation is an unlikely finding on initial X-rays at the time of diagnosis, and peri-articular erosions and subchondral cysts are typically seen in progressive disease rather than at the early stages.

      X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.

      As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.

      It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What...

    Correct

    • A newly born infant is observed to have clubfoot on both feet. What is the preferred treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Manipulation and progressive casting starting soon after birth

      Explanation:

      Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Foot Deformity in Newborns

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a foot deformity characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot. It is a common condition that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns, with a higher incidence in males. In about 50% of cases, the deformity is present in both feet. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.

      Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically made during the newborn exam, and imaging is not usually necessary. The deformity is not passively correctable, and the diagnosis is based on clinical examination.

      In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management of talipes equinovarus, with the Ponseti method being the preferred approach. This method involves manipulation and progressive casting of the foot, starting soon after birth. The deformity is usually corrected within 6-10 weeks, and an Achilles tenotomy may be required in some cases. Night-time braces are then used until the child is 4 years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in about 15% of cases.

      Overall, talipes equinovarus is a common foot deformity in newborns that can be effectively managed with conservative methods such as the Ponseti method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old woman has been experiencing jaw pain and difficulty chewing for the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman has been experiencing jaw pain and difficulty chewing for the past 2 months. She describes her jaw as feeling heavy, but there is no clicking or locking, and no changes to her vision or scalp tenderness. She has a history of well-controlled polymyalgia rheumatica and depression, and recalls a medical student mentioning that this could be a side effect of one of her medications. Her current medications include vitamin D and calcium supplements, prednisolone, alendronic acid, and sertraline. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonate use

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old woman visits your clinic after experiencing a fall in her kitchen...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits your clinic after experiencing a fall in her kitchen last week. She was evaluated in the emergency department and was found to have some bruising, but no fractures. She expresses concern about the possibility of falling again and the risk of future fractures. You recommend an evaluation of her fracture risk. What would be the most suitable method for assessing her fracture risk?

      Your Answer: FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      The Fracture Risk Assessment tool (FRAX) was created by the World Health Organisation (WHO) to evaluate the risk of fractures in patients aged 40 to 90 years old, regardless of whether they have a bone mineral density (BMD) value. NICE recommends using FRAX or QFRACTURE to assess the risk of fragility fractures, with FRAX being the only option available in this case. While DEXA is used to measure BMD, FRAX should be used initially to determine the patient’s risk, and further investigation with a DEXA scan may be necessary based on the results. X-rays of the carpal bones or head of the humerus would not be appropriate, and a bone scan (bone scintigraphy) would not provide information on the patient’s risk of fracture. The source for this information is NICE 2012 guidelines on assessing the risk of fragility fracture in patients with osteoporosis.

      Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.

      NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.

      If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old man complains of left knee pain, dysuria, and a painful right...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man complains of left knee pain, dysuria, and a painful right eye. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand where he had unprotected sex. Upon examination, his left knee is slightly swollen and painful with limited range of motion. The right conjunctiva is inflamed. His respiratory rate is 18/min, heart rate is 78 bpm, and temperature is 37.6 ºC. Joint aspiration reveals turbid synovial fluid with a white cell count of 35,000 cells/mm3 (<200) and 65% polymorphonuclear cells (<30%). Culture results are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis is a condition that can develop after an infection, where the organism responsible cannot be detected in the joint. A patient who presents with arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis, and has recently traveled, is highly suspicious of reactive arthritis. This condition is often associated with sexually transmitted diseases, with Chlamydia trachomatis being the most likely causative organism. However, the synovial fluid culture is negative as the organism cannot be recovered from the joint.

      Gonococcal arthritis, on the other hand, is caused by disseminated gonococcal infection. It typically presents with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome and can progress to septic arthritis if left untreated. While it is a good differential diagnosis for young, sexually active males with mono- or oligoarthritis, it does not explain the other symptoms of dysuria and painful eye movements.

      Gout is unlikely in a young male without predisposing factors and would not account for the patient’s urethritis and conjunctivitis. Rheumatoid arthritis, which typically presents as symmetrical arthritis affecting small joints such as PIP, MCP, or wrist joints, is also an unlikely diagnosis. Additionally, keratoconjunctivitis sicca is the most common ocular complication associated with rheumatoid arthritis, rather than conjunctivitis.

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, further studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA). Reactive arthritis is defined as arthritis that occurs after an infection where the organism cannot be found in the joint. The post-STI form is more common in men, while the post-dysenteric form has an equal incidence in both sexes. The most common organisms associated with reactive arthritis are listed in the table below.

      Management of reactive arthritis is mainly symptomatic, with analgesia, NSAIDs, and intra-articular steroids being used. Sulfasalazine and methotrexate may be used for persistent disease. Symptoms usually last for less than 12 months. It is worth noting that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that Reiter was a member of the Nazi party.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      102.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 59 year old female visits her GP with complaints of fatigue and body aches. Upon further inquiry, the patient reports feeling increasingly tired for the past several months and experiencing joint and muscle pains. Her medical history indicates chronic heart failure, which is being treated with isosorbide dinitrate and hydralazine. As hydralazine can lead to drug-induced lupus, what investigation would be most helpful in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti smooth muscle antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-histone antibodies

      Explanation:

      ALP can be rewritten as alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      65.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a fever and...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of a fever and intense pain in his knee. Upon examination, the right knee is visibly swollen and red, with limited range of motion in both flexion and extension. The joint is warm to the touch. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 94/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 130/72 mmHg, and temperature 39.2 ºC. He has no medical history and does not take any regular medications. He is sexually active and lives with his girlfriend. What is the most likely causative organism for his condition?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The most common organism found in young adults with septic arthritis is Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This is especially true for sexually active individuals, like the patient in this case, who present with a hot, swollen joint, reduced range of motion, and fever. To confirm the source of infection, a synovial fluid sample should be taken before administering antibiotics. While Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of septic arthritis overall, it is not the most common in young adults. Chlamydia trachomatis and Campylobacter can also cause reactive arthritis, but they present with different symptoms than what this patient is experiencing.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with an acutely swollen and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with an acutely swollen and red left leg, which she reports first noticing around 12-hours ago. She denies any medical conditions, medications, or family history of similar events. A negative pregnancy test rules out pregnancy. Upon examination and doppler ultrasound scan, she is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Routine blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), leading to an antibody screen and a subsequent diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome. What is the most appropriate long-term anticoagulation strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer: 3-months of Low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Correct Answer: Lifelong warfarin

      Explanation:

      Patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced their first venous-thromboembolism (VTE) should be on warfarin for the rest of their lives. This autoimmune condition increases the risk of arterial and venous thrombosis and is characterized by CLOTS (clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia). If a patient is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome but has not had a VTE, they should take low-dose aspirin daily as a preventive measure. Pregnant patients may be treated with LMWH, but in this case, the patient requires lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin. A 6-month course of anticoagulation is insufficient, and warfarin is the preferred anticoagulant for non-pregnant patients without comorbidities.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man presents to the rheumatologist with persistent pain, swelling, and soreness...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the rheumatologist with persistent pain, swelling, and soreness in his right knee, lower back, and eyes. He reports feeling generally well and is currently taking ciprofloxacin for a UTI. He was treated for Chlamydia and gonococcus co-infection four weeks ago. Blood tests reveal Hb levels of 132 (115 - 160), WBC count of 10.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and CRP levels of 55 mg/L (< 5). On examination, the right knee and ankle are swollen and tender. What auto-antibody is typically associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient’s presentation is reactive arthritis, which is associated with HLA-B27. This condition is characterized by arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s acute onset arthritis and suspected UTI that has not resolved after three days of treatment suggest the presence of urethritis. Additionally, the patient’s history of a Chlamydia infection is a common trigger for reactive arthritis.

      It is important to note that HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease, which presents with ulcers of the genitals and oral mucosa, skin lesions, and inflammation of parts of the eye. HLA-DQ2 is associated with Coeliac disease, which causes symptoms of malabsorption. HLA-DR3 is associated with Addison’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Grave’s disease, and myasthenia gravis, none of which would explain the patient’s presentation.

      HLA Associations and Disease

      HLA antigens are proteins that are encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA-A, B, and C) and class II (HLA-DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens.

      For example, HLA-A3 is strongly associated with haemochromatosis, while HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-B27 is associated with several conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-DQ2/DQ8 is associated with coeliac disease, and HLA-DR2 is associated with narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s syndrome. HLA-DR3 is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Finally, HLA-DR4 is associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis.

      It is important to note that some diseases may be associated with multiple HLA antigens, and that the strength of the association can vary. Understanding these associations can help with diagnosis and treatment of these diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman presents at the one-stop breast clinic for triple assessment following...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents at the one-stop breast clinic for triple assessment following a suspicious lesion detected on a screening mammogram. You review recent blood tests from her GP and are asked to identify the most probable underlying cause of the abnormal result.

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 242 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 10.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Calcium 2.6 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)

      Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)

      Free thyroxine (T4) 12 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      Amylase 203 U/L (70 - 300)

      Uric acid 0.46 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)

      Creatine kinase 1200 U/L (35 - 250)

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The patient is suspected to have breast cancer based on her age and abnormal mammogram results. Additionally, her blood tests show an elevated creatinine kinase (CK) level. This combination of malignancy and raised CK suggests the possibility of polymyositis, a condition that is often associated with cancer. However, a thorough medical history should be obtained before making any definitive diagnosis. The patient may report experiencing muscle weakness and tenderness, particularly in the proximal areas such as the shoulders. It is unlikely that drug-induced factors are causing the raised CK, as there is no indication of this in the patient’s case. Myocardial infarction (MI) is another potential cause of elevated CK, but there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case here. Polymyalgia rheumatica may present with similar symptoms to polymyositis, but it does not typically cause a raised CK. Instead, it is associated with elevated inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP. Therefore, CK levels can be a useful tool in distinguishing between polymyalgia rheumatica and polymyositis.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      86.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old diabetic female comes in with cellulitis of the left foot, spreading...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old diabetic female comes in with cellulitis of the left foot, spreading from an ulcer on the plantar surface of the head of the left third metatarsal that had been present for 3 weeks before the onset of cellulitis. She was given oral flucloxacillin and the cellulitis improved, but after a week of treatment, the ulcer was still discharging and there was a tender area of swelling over the ulcer on examination. What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: The pathology present is not infective in nature

      Correct Answer: The patient has a collection of pus which requires surgical drainage

      Explanation:

      Surgical drainage is necessary for the patient’s pus collection, indicating possible osteomyelitis of the metatarsal. The patient’s diabetes history and chronic ulcer elevate the risk.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.

      In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man with a recent chest infection arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a recent chest infection arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe pain in his right knee. Upon conducting a joint aspirate, analysis of the synovial fluid reveals the presence of positively birefringent crystals. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with desferrioxamine for his iron overload. What would be the most suitable initial management for his musculoskeletal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout, which is caused by an excess of calcium pyrophosphate levels in the body, has several risk factors including haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, hypophosphataemia, hypothyroidism, hypomagnesemia, and old age. This patient, who has haemochromatosis, is currently taking iron chelating agents to manage their iron overload. The recommended first line treatment for pseudogout is NSAIDs and colchicine. Allopurinol is not effective for pseudogout as it is not caused by uric acid overload. Methotrexate may be used for chronic pseudogout, but it is not typically the first line treatment. Sulfasalazine is not indicated for pseudogout.

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is more common in older individuals, but those under 60 years of age may develop it if they have underlying risk factors such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease. The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints, and joint aspiration may reveal weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals. X-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which appears as linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage in the knee. Treatment involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, as well as the use of NSAIDs or steroids, as with gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to your GP practice with recurrent headaches. These have been ongoing for the past 3 weeks and she describes them as severe (8/10) and throbbing in nature. She reports that the headaches worsen whenever she talks for extended periods of time. Additionally, she has been experiencing fatigue and slight blurred vision since the onset of the headaches, which is unusual for her. Based on the probable diagnosis, what investigation and treatment options would you prioritize?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone and vision testing

      Explanation:

      After being diagnosed with temporal arthritis, it is important to conduct vision testing as a crucial investigation. This autoimmune condition affects blood vessels and can be effectively treated with steroids, with an initial dose of 40-60 mg being recommended to alleviate symptoms and prevent further progression. If left untreated, temporal arthritis can lead to irreversible blindness due to occlusion of the ophthalmic artery, which may be preceded by transient visual problems. Unlike renal function, which is not significantly impacted by temporal arthritis, aspirin and a CT head are typically used to diagnose ischemic stroke or TIA. While co-codamol can effectively treat tension headaches, an MRI head is not a primary investigation for temporal arthritis due to its high cost. Additionally, fludrocortisone is not the first line of treatment for this condition.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      79.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of back pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of back pain. He describes experiencing poorly localised lower back pain for the past 2 weeks, which began after doing some yard work. The patient works as a carpenter and reports that the pain has not improved with the use of a heating pad or over-the-counter pain medication. He denies any fever or neurological symptoms. During the examination, paraspinal tenderness is noted, and the straight-leg test is negative. The patient reports intentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 3 months, and his body mass index is 30 kg/m².

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Order an x-ray of lumbar spine

      Correct Answer: Add a NSAID

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing musculoskeletal lower back pain, which may have been worsened by physical labor. There is no indication of infection or cancer, and an MRI is not necessary at this point as it would not alter the treatment plan. It is recommended that patients with back pain remain physically active instead of being on strict bed rest. NSAIDs are the preferred initial treatment for back pain and are more effective than using only paracetamol. Opioids should not be the first choice for treatment.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with gradual onset proximal shoulder and pelvic girdle muscular pains and stiffness. She is experiencing difficulty getting dressed in the morning and cannot raise her arms above the horizontal. She is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and recently completed a course of clarithromycin for a lower respiratory tract infection (penicillin-allergic). Blood tests were conducted, and the results are as follows:

      Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      WBC 12.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 6.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 66 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 64 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 32 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 55 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 37 g/L (35 - 50)
      CRP 72 mg/L (< 5)
      ESR 68 mg/L (< 30)
      Creatine kinase 58 U/L (35 - 250)

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is not associated with an increase in creatine kinase levels. Instead, blood tests typically reveal signs of inflammation, such as elevated white blood cell count, C-reactive protein, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. These findings, combined with the patient’s medical history and demographic information, strongly suggest polymyalgia rheumatica as the diagnosis. In contrast, conditions such as polymyositis and dermatomyositis typically involve a significant rise in creatine kinase levels, and dermatomyositis also presents with a distinctive rash. Fibromyalgia does not typically show any signs of inflammation on blood tests. While statin-induced myopathy is a possibility based on the patient’s history, the absence of elevated creatine kinase levels makes this diagnosis less likely.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Samantha is a 65-year-old woman who loves going on hikes and spends a...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 65-year-old woman who loves going on hikes and spends a lot of time tending to her flower garden. Unfortunately, she recently fell and suffered an undisplaced intracapsular neck of femur fracture. What is the best course of action for managing Samantha's hip fracture?

      Your Answer: Internal fixation (cannulated hip screw)

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an intracapsular NOF fracture, internal fixation is the preferred method for patients who have a good pre-existing functional ability. This is crucial in determining the appropriate course of action. Conservative management is not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis. Surgical intervention is typically necessary for most patients. Hemiarthroplasty is typically reserved for patients with poor pre-existing functioning, while total hip replacements are used for displaced intracapsular fractures. Cannulated hip screws are commonly used for internal fixation, while intramedullary devices are used for extracapsular fractures.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of muscle weakness and constipation for the past three weeks. He also reports feeling increasingly tired and thirsty during this time. The patient has a history of a previous STEMI and stage 1 chronic kidney disease. Upon examination, the GP orders some blood tests, which reveal the following results:

      - Calcium: 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      - Phosphate: 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      - ALP: 174 u/L (30 - 100)
      - Na+: 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient in the vignette is primary hyperparathyroidism. This is indicated by the patient’s symptomatic hypercalcaemia, as well as their blood test results showing a raised calcium, reduced phosphate level, and a raised ALP. Multiple myeloma, Paget’s disease of bone, and sarcoidosis are all incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the patient’s symptoms and blood test results.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old female patient arrives with an abrupt onset of hemiparesis on the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient arrives with an abrupt onset of hemiparesis on the right side, affecting the face, arm, and leg. During the examination, you observe right-sided hemiparesis, aphasia, and a right homonymous hemianopia. The patient has a medical history of recurrent miscarriages, pulmonary embolisms, and deep vein thrombosis. The blood test results show a prolonged APTT. What could be the probable reason for the stroke?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms indicate the possibility of antiphospholipid syndrome, which can be confirmed by a positive anti-Cardiolipin antibody test. It is crucial to keep in mind that hypercoagulable states and hyperviscosity can lead to strokes. Antiphospholipid syndrome is a type of thrombophilia disorder that causes hypercoagulation and a higher likelihood of forming clots, both arterial and venous. This increases the risk of ischaemic strokes.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking a referral to an obstetrician as she has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking a referral to an obstetrician as she has been trying to conceive and her menstrual period is now one month late. She has tested positive on a home pregnancy test. She has a history of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis for the past two years and is currently only taking hydroxychloroquine as methotrexate was stopped six months ago in anticipation of conception.

      During the physical examination, swelling is noted on the second and third metacarpophalangeal joints of her right hand. The pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her at this time?

      Your Answer: No change in therapy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) can safely continue using hydroxychloroquine as a treatment without any changes. While the medication does cross the placenta, it has not been shown to cause harm to the fetus at the doses used for RA treatment. Etanercept may be considered if there is a significant flare of disease during pregnancy, but it is not necessary at this time. Leflunomide is strictly contraindicated due to its high teratogenicity. Methotrexate must be discontinued at least 3 months before pregnancy as it is highly teratogenic and abortifacient. Steroids are not necessary for this patient who is not experiencing a flare.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A young child develops an eczematous, weeping rash on their wrist after receiving...

    Correct

    • A young child develops an eczematous, weeping rash on their wrist after receiving a new bracelet. In the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Type IV reaction

      Explanation:

      Allergic contact dermatitis, which is often caused by nickel, is the type IV hypersensitivity reaction observed in this patient.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (20/30) 67%
Passmed