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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, fever and two episodes of vomiting. She states that she has had previous episodes of right upper-quadrant pain with radiation to the right shoulder blade but has never sought medical attention for this.
Her past medical history is significant for obesity and hypertension.
Examination reveals an obese abdomen with tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastric region. No jaundice is evident.
Observations are as follows:
Temperature 38.5°C
Heart rate 87 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 19 breaths per minute
SpO2 98% (room air)
Blood pressure 145/86 mmHg
Laboratory results reveal an elevated white cell count and C-reactive protein. An abdominal ultrasound reveals multiple gallstones in the body of the gallbladder. The gallbladder is thickened, with the largest stone measuring 17 mm.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation:Differentiating between surgical interventions for gallbladder disease
Gallbladder disease can present in various ways, and the appropriate surgical intervention depends on the specific clinical scenario. In the case of acute cholecystitis, which is characterized by right upper quadrant pain, fever, and an elevated white cell count, immediate surgical input is necessary. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended course of action, but it is important to wait for the settling of acute symptoms before proceeding with surgery.
Exploratory laparotomy, on the other hand, is indicated in patients who are haemodynamically unstable and have a rigid, peritonitic abdomen on examination. If the patient has a soft abdomen without haemodynamic instability, exploratory laparotomy is not necessary.
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is indicated in patients who have common bile duct stones. However, if the patient has gallstones in the body of the gallbladder, ERCP is not the appropriate intervention.
Intravenous (IV) proton pump inhibitors, such as pantoprazole, are indicated in patients suffering from severe peptic ulcer disease, which typically presents with deep epigastric pain in a patient with risk factors for peptic ulcers, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use or Helicobacter pylori infection.
Finally, percutaneous cholecystostomy is mainly reserved for patients who are critically unwell or are poor surgical candidates. This procedure involves the image-guided placement of a drainage catheter into the gallbladder lumen with the aim of stabilizing the patient so that a more measured surgical approach can be taken in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her partner due to increasing confusion and abdominal distension. Collateral history indicates increasing forgetfulness over the last 12 months and that other members of the family have had similar symptoms although further details are not available. Examination identifies hepatomegaly and ascites. The patient is noted to have a shuffling gait and tremor. Ultrasound of the liver confirms the presence of cirrhosis.
Which one of the following tests would most likely confirm the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: α-fetoprotein
Correct Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin
Explanation:Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Wilson’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes copper to accumulate in the liver and brain, leading to a range of symptoms including neuropsychiatric issues, liver disease, and parkinsonism. Diagnosis is typically based on low serum ceruloplasmin and low serum copper, as well as the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea. Treatment involves a low copper diet and the use of copper chelators like penicillamine, with liver transplant as a potential option for severe cases. Other conditions, such as α-1-antitrypsin deficiency and autoimmune hepatitis, can cause liver disease but do not typically present with parkinsonian symptoms. Understanding the unique features of Wilson’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old yoga instructor presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling constantly fatigued. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing widespread, non-specific itching. Upon examination, the GP observes generalised excoriation, but no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level, leading to a suspicion of primary biliary cholangitis. What is the most specific symptom of primary biliary cholangitis?
Your Answer: p-ANCA antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune conditions
Autoimmune conditions are characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own tissues and organs. Autoantibodies, or antibodies that target the body’s own cells, are often present in these conditions and can be used as diagnostic markers. Here are some examples of autoantibodies and their association with specific autoimmune conditions:
1. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (type M2) are highly specific for primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune condition affecting the liver.
2. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are associated with type 1 autoimmune hepatitis, a condition in which the immune system attacks the liver.
3. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies are classically associated with type 2 autoimmune hepatitis, another condition affecting the liver.
4. Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a systemic autoimmune condition that can affect multiple organs.
5. p-ANCA antibodies occur in several autoimmune conditions, including microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child is brought to the paediatrician by his parents for a follow-up examination after diagnosis of a genetically inherited disease. During the examination, the paediatrician observes a yellow-brown discoloration around the iris.
Which type of renal dysfunction is typically treated as the first-line approach for this child's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Membranous nephropathy
Explanation:Common Glomerular Diseases and Their Associations
Glomerular diseases are a group of conditions that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some common glomerular diseases and their associations:
1. Membranous nephropathy: This disease is associated with Wilson’s disease, an inherited disorder of copper metabolism. Treatment involves the use of penicillamine, which is associated with membranous nephropathy.
2. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis: This disease is associated with intravenous drug abuse, HIV, being of African origin, and obesity.
3. Minimal change disease: This nephrotic syndrome is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma and recent upper respiratory tract infection or routine immunisation.
4. Type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis: This disease is associated with C3 nephritic factor, an antibody that stabilises C3 convertase and causes alternative complement activation.
5. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis: This nephritic syndrome is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Understanding the associations between glomerular diseases and their underlying causes can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore inside her mouth that has been bothering her for the past week. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin for it.
During the mouth examination, the GP observes an oval-shaped, shallow ulcer with a red rim around it. The ulcer is sensitive to touch, and no other lesions are visible. The patient does not have swollen lymph nodes and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Management of Aphthous Ulcers: Topical Steroids and Pain Control
Aphthous ulcers are a common benign oral lesion that can be triggered by local trauma or certain foods. The first-line management for this condition typically involves topical steroids and topical lidocaine for pain control. Biopsy of the lesion is not indicated unless the ulcer is not healing after three weeks and malignancy needs to be excluded. Epstein-Barr virus testing is only necessary if there are signs of oral hairy leucoplakia. Immediate specialist referral is necessary if there are signs of malignancy. Oral steroids can be considered in refractory cases, but should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and vomiting. His vital signs are stable upon triage.
During the physical examination, he appears to be in significant distress and has a tense abdomen upon palpation.
What initial test should be performed to confirm a perforation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erect chest X-ray
Explanation:The Importance of an Erect Chest X-Ray in Diagnosing Perforated Abdominal Viscus
When a patient presents with acute abdominal pain, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a perforated abdominal viscus, which requires immediate surgical intervention. The first-line investigation for this condition is an erect chest X-ray, which can detect the presence of free air under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum). To ensure accuracy, the patient should be in a seated position for 10-15 minutes before the X-ray is taken. If the patient cannot sit up due to hypotension, a lateral decubitus abdominal film may be used instead. However, in most cases, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis will be requested by the surgical team.
Other diagnostic methods, such as a urine dipstick, liver function tests, and bedside ultrasound, are not effective in detecting a perforation. While plain abdominal films may show signs of perforation, they are not the preferred method of diagnosis. In cases of perforation, the presence of free abdominal air can make the opposite side of the bowel wall appear clearer, which is known as the Rigler’s signs or the double wall sign.
In conclusion, an erect chest X-ray is a crucial diagnostic tool in identifying a perforated abdominal viscus. Early detection and intervention can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old alcoholic with known cirrhotic liver disease is admitted to the Gastroenterology Ward with a distended abdomen, jaundice and confusion. During examination, he is found to be clinically jaundiced and has a massively distended abdomen with evidence of a fluid level on percussion. A sample of fluid is taken from his abdomen and sent for analysis, which reveals that the fluid is an exudate.
What is an exudative cause of ascites in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malignancy
Explanation:Causes of Ascites: Differentiating between Transudative and Exudative Ascites
Ascites refers to the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. The causes of ascites can be classified based on the protein content of the fluid. Transudative ascites, which has a protein content of less than 30 g/l, is commonly associated with portal hypertension, cardiac failure, fulminant hepatic failure, and Budd-Chiari syndrome. On the other hand, exudative ascites, which has a protein content of more than 30 g/l, is often caused by infection or malignancy. In the case of the patient scenario described, a malignant cause is more likely. It is important to differentiate between transudative and exudative ascites to determine the underlying cause and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the most likely diagnosis for a 45-year-old woman who has had severe itching for three weeks and presents to your clinic with abnormal liver function tests and a positive anti-TPO antibody?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Autoimmune Diseases and Hepatic Disorders: A Comparison of Symptoms and Diagnostic Findings
Primary biliary cholangitis is characterized by severe itching, mild jaundice, and elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, ALT, and AST. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is positive, and LDL and TG may be mildly elevated. Patients may also exhibit microcytic anemia and elevated anti-TPO levels, as seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. In contrast, primary sclerosing cholangitis affects men and is associated with colitis due to inflammatory bowel disease. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is often negative, and p-ANCA is often positive. Addison’s disease is characterized by fatigue, weakness, weight loss, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia, and may coexist with other autoimmune diseases. Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by elevated levels of ANA, anti-smooth muscle antibody, anti-mitochondrial antibody, and anti-LKM antibody, with normal or slightly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Chronic viral hepatitis is indicated by elevated levels of HBs antigen and anti-HBC antibody, with anti-HBs antibody indicating a history of prior infection or vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history of fatigue, irritability and bronzing of the skin. She would like to know more about the prognosis of the condition and is concerned about the risks of passing on the condition to any children that she may have in the future.
Which of the following statements best describes haemochromatosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron, leading to iron overload and deposition in vital organs such as the liver and pancreas. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with a frequency of homozygotes in the population of 1:500. The disorder is most commonly found in Celtic nations. Symptoms typically present in the third to fourth decade of life in men and post-menopause in women and include weakness, fatigue, skin bronzing, diabetes, cirrhosis, and cardiac disease. Treatment involves venesection, and in severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary. Haemochromatosis increases the risk of developing liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma by up to 200-fold. Iron deposition in the pancreas can also lead to diabetes, and patients with haemochromatosis who develop diabetes usually require insulin treatment. Arthropathy associated with haemochromatosis is the result of pseudogout, as iron deposits impair cartilage nutrition and enhance the formation and deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Heterozygotes for the HFE gene typically do not develop cirrhosis and remain asymptomatic due to the disorder’s low penetrance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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As the F1 on call, you have been summoned to attend to a 36-year-old man who has been admitted with decompensated alcoholic liver disease. Upon examination, you observe widespread stigmata of chronic liver disease with tense ascites and mild peripheral oedema. There is no indication of encephalopathy, and all vital signs are within acceptable limits. The most recent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 115 g/L (120-140), a white cell count of 5.6 ×109/L (4.0-11.0), and a platelet count of 79 ×109/L (150-400), among other things. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain. What is the safest analgesic agent to prescribe to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Special Considerations for Drug Prescribing in Patients with Advanced Liver Disease
Patients with advanced liver disease require special attention when it comes to drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. The liver’s poor synthetic function can lead to impaired enzyme formation, reducing the ability to excrete hepatically metabolized drugs. Concurrent use of enzyme-inducing drugs can lead to the accumulation of toxic metabolites. Additionally, reduced synthesis of blood clotting factors by a damaged liver means that these patients can often auto-anticoagulate, and drugs that interfere with the clotting process are best avoided.
Aspirin and other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and diclofenac should be avoided in liver disease patients. These drugs promote gastric irritation, increasing the likelihood of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is significantly increased if there are upper gastrointestinal varices present. NSAIDs can also promote fluid retention and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Morphine sulfate and tramadol hydrochloride are both opioid analgesics that should only be considered in patients with advanced liver disease by hepatologists as they can promote the development of hepatic encephalopathy. Paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients, even in severe liver disease, as long as the doses are halved.
In conclusion, patients with advanced liver disease require special care in drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. It is important to avoid drugs that interfere with the clotting process, promote gastric irritation, and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Opioid analgesics should only be considered by hepatologists, and paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). He reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by his primary care physician for a sinus infection two weeks ago.
During the physical examination, the patient's BMI is found to be 40 kg/m2, indicating obesity. The LFTs reveal:
- ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
- AST 130 U/L (10-40)
- Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
What is the most likely cause of this liver function test derangement?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) as a Cause of Liver Enzyme Abnormalities
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common cause of liver enzyme abnormalities, characterized by the accumulation of fat in the liver leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance, which are part of the metabolic syndrome. However, other causes of hepatitis should be ruled out before making a diagnosis of NAFLD.
Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver.
It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary. Therefore, if a patient presents with liver enzyme abnormalities, NAFLD should be considered as a possible cause and appropriate investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An obese 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with ongoing vague abdominal pain and fatigue for the last three months. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
Physical examination suggests hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies reveal a negative hepatitis panel and normal iron studies. Antibodies for autoimmune liver disease are also normal.
A diagnosis of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is likely.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Management of Hepatomegaly and Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
Hepatomegaly and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) are common conditions that require appropriate management to prevent progression to liver cirrhosis and other complications. The following are important considerations in the management of these conditions:
Diagnosis: Diagnosis of NAFLD involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology.
Conservative management: Most patients with NAFLD can be managed conservatively with maximized control of cardiovascular risk factors, weight loss, immunizations to hepatitis A and B viruses, and alcohol abstinence. Weight loss in a controlled manner is recommended, with a 10% reduction in body weight over a 6-month period being an appropriate recommendation to patients. Rapid weight loss should be avoided, as it can worsen liver inflammation and fibrosis. Unfortunately, no medications are currently licensed for the management of NAFLD.
Liver transplant: Patients with NAFLD do not require a liver transplant at this stage. Conservative management with weight loss and controlling cardiovascular risk factors is the recommended approach.
Oral steroids: Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune hepatitis. Patients with autoimmune hepatitis typically present with other immune-mediated conditions like pernicious anemia and ulcerative colitis.
Penicillamine: Penicillamine is the treatment for patients with Wilson’s disease, a rare disorder of copper excretion that leads to excess copper deposition in the liver and brain. Patients typically present with neurological signs like tremor, ataxia, clumsiness, or abdominal signs like fulminant liver failure.
Ursodeoxycholic acid: Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in the management of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a condition more common in women. Given this patient’s normal autoimmune screen, PBC is an unlikely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man patient who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his general practitioner with complaints of white lesions in his mouth.
On examination, the white lesions inside the patient’s mouth can easily be scraped off with minimal bleeding. The patient does not have cervical lymph node enlargement and is otherwise well.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nystatin
Explanation:Management of Oral Candidiasis: Understanding the Treatment Options and Indications for Referral
Oral candidiasis is a common fungal infection that can affect individuals of all ages, particularly infants, older patients who wear dentures, diabetics, and immunosuppressed patients. The infection is caused by the yeast Candida albicans and typically presents as white lesions in the mouth that can be easily scraped off with a tongue blade.
The first-line treatment for localised disease involves topical treatment with nystatin suspension, which is swished and swallowed in the mouth three to four times a day. However, immunosuppressed patients may suffer from widespread C. albicans infections, such as oesophageal candidiasis and candidaemia, which require more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications like amphotericin B.
It is important to note that testing for Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is not required in patients with isolated oral thrush. However, immediate specialist referral would be necessary if oropharyngeal cancer was being considered in the differential diagnosis. The two-week wait referral is also indicated for unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks and persistent, unexplained cervical lymph node enlargement.
In conclusion, understanding the appropriate treatment options and indications for referral is crucial in managing oral candidiasis effectively. Topical treatment with nystatin suspension is the first-line therapy for localised disease, while more aggressive treatment with intravenous antifungal medications is necessary for disseminated fungal infections. Referral to a specialist is necessary in cases where oropharyngeal cancer is suspected or when there is unexplained oral ulceration or persistent cervical lymph node enlargement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman is concerned about the possibility of having bowel cancer. She has been experiencing bloating and abdominal discomfort for the past 6 months, as well as unintentional weight loss. Her cousin was recently diagnosed with colorectal cancer, which has prompted her to seek medical attention.
What is a red flag symptom for colorectal cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Red Flag Symptoms for Suspected Cancer Diagnosis
When it comes to suspected cancer diagnosis, certain symptoms should be considered as red flags. Unintentional weight loss is one such symptom, which should be taken seriously, especially in older women. Bloating, while a general symptom, may also require further investigation if it is persistent and accompanied by abdominal distension. A family history of bowel cancer is relevant in first-degree relatives, but a diagnosis in a cousin may not be significant. Abdominal pain is a non-specific symptom, but if accompanied by other signs like weight loss and altered bowel habits, it may be a red flag. Finally, persistent abdominal distension in women over 50 should be investigated further to rule out ovarian malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with a family history of colorectal cancer presents for genetic screening. Genetic testing is performed and he is diagnosed with hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer syndrome (HNPCC, or Lynch syndrome).
What is his lifetime risk for developing colorectal cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50–70%
Explanation:Understanding the Lifetime Risk of Colorectal Cancer in Hereditary Syndromes
Hereditary syndromes such as HNPCC and FAP are associated with an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer. HNPCC syndrome has a lifetime risk of approximately 50-70% for colorectal cancer, as well as an increased risk for endometrial and ovarian cancer. Screening is recommended from age 25 and should include annual colonoscopy and other tests for women. FAP, on the other hand, has a 100% lifetime risk for colorectal cancer. Underestimating the lifetime risk for HNPCC syndrome can be dangerous, as it may lead to delayed or inadequate screening. It is important to understand the risks associated with these hereditary syndromes and to follow recommended screening guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:
Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.
Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.
Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.
Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old obese woman, who recently returned from a trip to Japan, presents with chronic diarrhoea, fatigue, and greasy, bulky stools. She is a non-smoker and non-drinker who consumes meat. Stool examination confirms steatorrhoea, and blood tests reveal elevated folic acid levels and reduced vitamin B12 levels. The only abnormal finding on a CT scan of the abdomen is multiple diverticula in the jejunum. What is the most likely cause of this patient's macrocytic anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased utilisation of vitamin B12 by bacteria
Explanation:Causes of Vitamin B12 Deficiency: An Overview
Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by various factors, including bacterial overgrowth syndrome, acquired deficiency of intrinsic factor, chronic pancreatic insufficiency, dietary deficiency, and fish tapeworm infestation.
Bacterial Overgrowth Syndrome: This disorder is characterized by the proliferation of colonic bacteria in the small bowel, resulting in diarrhea, steatorrhea, and macrocytic anemia. The bacteria involved are usually Escherichia coli or Bacteroides, which can convert conjugated bile acids to unconjugated bile acids, leading to impaired micelle formation and steatorrhea. The bacteria also utilize vitamin B12, causing macrocytic anemia.
Acquired Deficiency of Intrinsic Factor: This condition is seen in pernicious anemia, which does not have diarrhea or steatorrhea.
Chronic Pancreatic Insufficiency: This is most commonly associated with chronic pancreatitis caused by high alcohol intake or cystic fibrosis. However, in this case, the patient has no history of alcohol intake or CF, and blood tests do not reveal hyperglycemia. CT abdomen can detect calcification of the pancreas, characteristic of chronic pancreatitis.
Dietary Deficiency of Vitamin B12: This is unlikely in non-vegetarians like the patient in this case.
Fish Tapeworm Infestation: This infestation can cause vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is more common in countries where people commonly eat raw freshwater fish. In this case, the presence of diarrhea, steatorrhea, and CT abdomen findings suggestive of jejunal diverticula make bacterial overgrowth syndrome more likely.
In conclusion, vitamin B12 deficiency can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation
Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.
The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.
Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.
It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.
Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
Explanation:Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen
The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.
Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladderThe fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.
Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleenThe transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.
Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric arteryThe origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.
Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the leftAt the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.
Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the leftAt the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now worsened, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in 3 days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, heart rate 110 bpm, and blood pressure 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced. During rectal examination, tenderness is the only finding. The patient has no history of gastrointestinal issues and only sees her general practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away 2 years ago. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Differential Diagnoses
Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of diverticula, which are mucosal herniations through the muscle of the colon. While most people over 50 have diverticula, only 25% of them become symptomatic, experiencing left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel emptying. Low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking are risk factors for diverticular disease, which can lead to complications such as perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.
Bowel perforation is a potential complication of diverticulitis, but it is rare and usually accompanied by peritonitis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a possible differential diagnosis in women, but it is unlikely in this case due to the lack of sexual partners for two years. Inflammatory bowel disease is more common in young adults, while diverticulosis is more prevalent in people over 50. Colorectal cancer is another differential diagnosis to consider, especially in older patients with a change in bowel habit and fever or tachycardia.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and differential diagnoses of diverticulitis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice and signs of hepatic encephalopathy. He was treated with a biliary stent (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)) and discharged when his jaundice, confusion and pruritus had started to improve. He re-presented shortly after discharge with rigors, pyrexia and feeling generally unwell. His blood cultures showed Gram-negative rods.
What is the most likely cause of his current presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Fever and Rigors in a Patient with a Biliary Stent
Introduction:
A patient with a biliary stent inserted via endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) presents with fever and rigors. This article discusses the possible causes of these symptoms.Possible Causes:
1. Ascending Cholangitis: This is the most likely option as the patient’s biliary stent and the ERCP procedure are both well-known risk factors for acute cholangitis. The obstruction caused by the stent can lead to recurrent biliary sepsis, which can be life-threatening and requires prompt treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.2. Lower Respiratory Tract Infection: Sedation and endoscopy increase the risk of pulmonary infection, particularly aspiration. However, the biliary stent itself is the biggest risk factor, and the patient’s symptoms point towards ascending cholangitis.
3. Hepatitis: This is an unlikely cause of fever and rigors as there are no risk factors for common causes of acute hepatitis, and Gram-negative rods are not a common cause of hepatitis.
4. Metastatic Pancreatic Cancer: While this condition can increase the risk of infection due to immunocompromised, it does not fully explain the patient’s presentation as it would not cause frank fever and rigors.
5. Pyelonephritis: This bacterial infection of the kidney can cause pyrexia, rigors, and malaise, with Gram-negative rods, especially E. coli, as common causes. However, the recent biliary stent insertion puts this patient at high risk of ascending cholangitis.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the most likely cause of fever and rigors in a patient with a biliary stent is ascending cholangitis. However, other possible causes should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate diagnostic tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a long history of ulcerative colitis (UC) presents to the clinic for evaluation. Although his inflammatory bowel disease is currently under control, he reports experiencing increased lethargy and itching. During the physical examination, his blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 68 bpm. The patient displays mildly jaundiced sclerae and evidence of scratch marks on his skin.
Lab Results:
Test Result Normal Range
Hemoglobin 112g/L 135–175 g/L
White blood cell count (WBC) 8.9 × 109/L 4–11 × 109/L
Platelets 189 × 109/L 150–400 × 109/L
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/L 135–145 mmol/L
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/L 3.5–5.0 mmol/L
Creatinine 115 μmol/L 50–120 µmol/L
Alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L 30–130 IU/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 205 U/L 5–30 IU/L
Bilirubin 80 μmol/L 2–17 µmol/L
Ultrasound Evidence of bile duct dilation
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
Explanation:Differentiating Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis from Other Liver Conditions
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects the liver and bile ducts, causing autoimmune sclerosis and irregularities in the biliary diameter. Patients with PSC may present with deranged liver function tests, jaundice, itching, and chronic fatigue. PSC is more common in men, and up to 50% of patients with PSC also have ulcerative colitis (UC). Ultrasound, endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) can show intrahepatic biliary duct stricture and dilation, often with extrahepatic duct involvement. Cholangiocarcinoma is a long-term risk in cases of PSC.
Alcoholic-related cirrhosis is a possibility, but it is unlikely in the absence of a history of alcohol excess. Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an autoimmune condition that causes destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts, resulting in a cholestatic pattern of jaundice. PBC mostly affects middle-aged women and does not cause bile duct dilation on ultrasound. Ascending cholangitis is a medical emergency that presents with a triad of jaundice, fever, and right upper quadrant tenderness. Autoimmune hepatitis most often occurs in middle-aged women presenting with general malaise, anorexia, and weight loss of insidious onset, with abnormal liver function tests. It normally causes hepatitis, rather than cholestasis.
In summary, differentiating PSC from other liver conditions requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 26-year old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at her GP's office after her blood test results showed an elevated level of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. What condition is linked to this antibody?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Autoimmune Diseases: Causes and Symptoms
Autoimmune diseases are conditions where the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues and organs. Here are some examples of autoimmune diseases and their causes and symptoms:
Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is caused by an autoimmune reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat. Symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and fatigue.Graves’ Disease
This autoimmune disease affects the thyroid gland, resulting in hyperthyroidism. It is associated with anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibodies.Pemphigus Vulgaris
This rare autoimmune disease causes blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces due to autoantibodies against desmoglein.Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
This multisystem autoimmune disease is associated with a wide range of autoantibodies, including anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded (ds) DNA. Symptoms can include joint pain, fatigue, and skin rashes.Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
This autoimmune disease results in the destruction of islet cells in the pancreas. Islet cell autoantibodies and antibodies to insulin have been described as causes. Symptoms include increased thirst and urination, weight loss, and fatigue.In summary, autoimmune diseases can affect various organs and tissues in the body, and their symptoms can range from mild to severe. Understanding their causes and symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman reports difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids, with occasional food getting stuck and needing to be washed down with a large drink. Achalasia of the oesophagus is suspected. Which nerve supplies the muscularis externa of the oesophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vagus nerves
Explanation:The vagus nerves are part of the tenth pair of cranial nerves and work with sympathetic nerves to form the oesophageal plexus. They have a parasympathetic function, stimulating peristalsis and supplying smooth muscle. The lower oesophageal sphincter, which relaxes to allow food into the stomach, is influenced by the vagus nerve. Oesophageal achalasia can occur when there is increased tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter, incomplete relaxation, and lack of peristalsis, leading to dysphagia and regurgitation.
The glossopharyngeal nerves are mixed cranial nerves that supply motor fibres to the stylopharyngeus muscle and parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland. They also form the pharyngeal plexus with the vagus nerve, supplying the palate, larynx, and pharynx.
The greater splanchnic nerves contribute to the coeliac plexus, which supplies the enteric nervous system and the adrenals. The intercostal nerves arise from the anterior rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves and supply various structures in their intercostal space. The phrenic nerves supply the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain that has been going on for 5 weeks. She also reports unintentional weight loss during this time. A colonoscopy is performed, revealing abnormal, inflamed mucosa in the rectum, sigmoid, and descending colon. The doctor suspects ulcerative colitis and takes multiple biopsies. What finding is most indicative of ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:When it comes to distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, one key factor is the presence of crypt abscesses. These are typically seen in ulcerative colitis, which is the more common of the two inflammatory bowel diseases. In ulcerative colitis, inflammation starts in the rectum and spreads continuously up the colon, whereas Crohn’s disease often presents with skip lesions. Patients with ulcerative colitis may experience left-sided abdominal pain, cramping, bloody diarrhea with mucous, and unintentional weight loss. Colonoscopy typically reveals diffuse and contiguous ulceration and inflammatory infiltrates affecting the mucosa and submucosa only, with the presence of crypt abscesses being a hallmark feature. In contrast, Crohn’s disease is characterized by a transmural inflammatory phenotype, with non-caseating granulomas and stricturing of the bowel wall being common complications. Patients with Crohn’s disease may present with right-sided abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, and weight loss, and may have a more systemic inflammatory response than those with ulcerative colitis. Barium enema and colonoscopy can help to differentiate between the two conditions, with the presence of multiple linear ulcers in the bowel wall (rose-thorn appearance) and bowel wall thickening being suggestive of Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. She suffers with osteoarthritis in both her knees and often takes codeine and ibuprofen. She admits that she often consumes an excessive amount of alcohol. On examination, she appears unwell and is tachycardic. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness with guarding and reduced bowel sounds. The computerised tomography (CT) scan of her abdomen is shown below.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis, given the clinical scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Abdominal Pain: Perforated Peptic Ulcer vs Other Conditions
Acute abdominal pain is a common presentation in medical practice, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. One of the most likely diagnoses in a patient with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, diffuse tenderness, and guarding is a perforated peptic ulcer. This is especially true if the patient has a history of regular ibuprofen use and excess alcohol consumption without gastric protection. However, it is important to consider other potential causes of acute abdominal pain and rule them out through a thorough differential diagnosis.
Some of the other conditions that may present with acute abdominal pain include acute appendicitis, gastritis, acute cholecystitis, and small bowel obstruction with strangulation. Each of these conditions has its own characteristic symptoms and signs that can help differentiate it from a perforated peptic ulcer. For example, acute appendicitis typically presents with a gradual onset of dull umbilical pain that shifts to the right iliac fossa, while acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant pain and Murphy’s sign. Gastritis may cause severe pain, but the abdomen is usually soft, and bowel sounds are not reduced. Small bowel obstruction typically presents with colicky pain, vomiting, and distension, and may be associated with a history of abdominal surgery or hernias.
In summary, while a perforated peptic ulcer is a likely diagnosis in a patient with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, it is important to consider other potential causes and perform a thorough differential diagnosis to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man complained of abdominal pain and weight loss. Upon investigation, he was diagnosed with coeliac disease. The biopsy of his small intestine revealed blunting of villi with crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocytes ++. What is the stage of his disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: III
Explanation:The Marsh Criteria: A Morphological Classification of Coeliac Disease Biopsy
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine, causing damage to the lining and leading to malabsorption of nutrients. The Marsh criteria is a morphological classification system used to diagnose coeliac disease through intestinal biopsy.
The classification system consists of four stages, with stage 0 indicating a normal biopsy and stage IV indicating total villous atrophy. In between, stages I-III show varying degrees of damage to the duodenal villi, intraepithelial lymphocytes, and crypts.
Recently, the Marsh-Oberhuber classification was introduced, which subdivides stage III into three classes based on the degree of villous atrophy. Stage IV has been eliminated from this modified version.
In coeliac disease and other inflammatory conditions, such as milk protein allergy, the pattern of intraepithelial lymphocytes may be reversed. In stage I disease, only increased intraepithelial lymphocytes would be seen on biopsy, while stage 0 would appear normal. Class II disease would show normal duodenal villi, and stage IV would be associated with crypt atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a four month history of bloating, diarrhoea and failure to gain weight. Her development is otherwise normal. What is the most suitable screening antibody test for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antitissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Reliable Antibody Test for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that targets the gliadin epitope in gluten. It often presents in children with symptoms such as failure to thrive and diarrhoea, which can start during weaning. To diagnose coeliac disease, doctors use antibody tests such as anti-TTG, anti-endomysial antibody, and antigliadin. Among these, anti-TTG is the most reliable and is used as a first-line screening test due to its sensitivity of nearly 100%. Anti-endomysial antibodies are more expensive and observer-dependent, so they are not recommended as a first-line screening test. Antigliadin is rarely measured due to its lower accuracy. It is also important to measure IgA levels because IgA-deficient patients may be asymptomatic and cause a false-negative anti-TTG test.
Autoimmune Conditions and Antibody Tests
Autoimmune conditions can cause a variety of symptoms, including diarrhoea and bloating. Graves’ autoimmune thyroid disease, for example, may present with diarrhoea, but bloating is not commonly associated. To diagnose autoimmune conditions, doctors use antibody tests such as ANCA, which is raised in many autoimmune conditions, including some patients with ulcerative colitis. However, ANCA is not raised in coeliac disease. Therefore, it is important to use the appropriate antibody test for each autoimmune condition to ensure an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a witnessed fall. He struck his head on the pavement. He is known to the nursing staff, having been brought in on numerous occasions for the management of alcohol intoxication. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits, but he is minimally responsive to verbal commands and has slurred speech. He has an elevated serum alcohol level. A computed tomography (CT) brain is reported as normal. He is admitted for overnight observation, hydrated with intravenous dextrose and given acetaminophen for pain relief.
By day 2 of his admission, he remains confused and inappropriate. He appears at times indifferent and does not pay attention to questioning. When he does respond, his answers are tangential and he does not appear to know his own name. On morning ward rounds, you notice that he has a bilateral rectus palsy which was not present at the time of admission. A repeat CT of his brain is normal.
To which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is this presentation is most likely due?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The Importance of B Vitamins in Neurological Health
B vitamins play a crucial role in neurological health, and deficiencies can lead to a range of symptoms and conditions. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, characterized by encephalopathy, oculomotor dysfunction, and gait ataxia, is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B1 and is commonly seen in chronic alcohol users and those with anorexia nervosa or hyperemesis gravidarum. Vitamin B3 deficiency can cause neurologic symptoms, photosensitivity dermatitis, and GI upset, while vitamin B2 deficiency can lead to normochromic, normocytic anemia, pharyngitis, cheilitis, glossitis, and stomatitis. Vitamin B5 deficiency is rare but can cause paraesthesiae of the extremities and GI upset. Vitamin B12 deficiency has multi-system effects, including neurologic syndromes, haematologic syndrome, and skeletal changes. It is crucial to address any potential deficiencies in B vitamins to prevent these neurological complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A middle aged male patient presents with jaundice and epigastric abdominal pain, he describes an intermittent history of similar pain over the past 3 months, however, this time it is much worse. He has markedly raised bilirubin and mildly deranged LFTs, with a predominantly obstructive picture. Other pertinent history includes mild alcohol use.
What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Possible Causes of Obstructive Jaundice: A Case Analysis
The patient’s symptoms suggest that the most probable cause of obstructive jaundice is gallstones lodged in the common bile duct. Recurrent episodes of biliary colic and/or cholecystitis may have caused the intermittent abdominal pain, which has now worsened and led to hepatic obstruction. Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder due to gallstones, would not cause obstructive jaundice unless the gallstones leave the gallbladder and become lodged in the common bile duct. Alcohol-induced pancreatitis is a common cause of acute pancreatitis in the UK, but it will not cause obstructive jaundice. Hepatitis C may cause cirrhosis and subsequently jaundice, but there is no evidence that the patient is an intravenous drug user. Pancreatic carcinoma, particularly if located in the head of the pancreas, can cause obstructive jaundice, but it is usually painless in origin. Courvoisier’s law states that a non-tender palpable gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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