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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after being found on the floor following a night out. There are suspicions that he may have taken drugs, although the exact substance is unknown. Upon examination, he is found to be semi-conscious with a rapid respiratory rate. A catheterisation procedure yields 25 mls of dark brown coloured urine which tests positive for haemoglobin using urinalysis.

      What potential blood and electrolyte imbalances should be anticipated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperuricaemia with acidosis

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyolysis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with several biochemical abnormalities, including elevated levels of creatine kinase (CK), potassium, urate, and myoglobinuria. Additionally, calcium levels may be elevated intracellularly in myocytes, but normal or low in the blood during the early stages of the disease. However, as the disease progresses, calcium levels in the blood may increase. Acidosis is also a common symptom of rhabdomyolysis.

      Early and aggressive treatment is crucial in managing rhabdomyolysis. Rehydration and managing hyperkalemia can help reduce the likelihood of developing complications such as arrhythmias due to electrolyte disturbance, renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and compartment syndrome. By the symptoms and seeking prompt medical attention, individuals with rhabdomyolysis can receive the necessary treatment to manage the condition and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. The following blood results are obtained:

      - Adjusted calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      - Phosphate 0.7 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      - PTH 15.21 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      - Urea 4.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      - Creatinine 81 µmol/L (60-120)
      - 25 OH Vit D 12 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D Deficiency and its Effects on the Body

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can be caused by a lack of dietary vitamin D or insufficient exposure to sunlight. This deficiency is more common in certain populations, such as the elderly, institutionalized patients, and ethnic groups with dark skin tones. Additionally, reduced sunlight exposure due to cultural dress codes, poor intake of dairy foods, and malabsorption states affecting fat-soluble vitamins can also contribute to vitamin D deficiency.

      When the kidneys are functioning normally, they activate vitamin D through the 1-alpha hydroxylase mechanism. The actions of 1,25(OH)2 Vitamin D have various effects on the body. It has a direct effect on the gut, increasing the absorption of calcium and phosphate. It also has a direct effect on the kidney, inhibiting its own synthesis by reducing 1-alpha hydroxylase activity. Furthermore, it has a direct effect on the parathyroids, inhibiting PTH synthesis. At high concentrations, activated vitamin D increases osteoclastic activity, promoting bone resorption.

      In conclusion, the risk factors and effects of vitamin D deficiency is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing related conditions. Adequate exposure to sunlight and a balanced diet can help prevent vitamin D deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 3 - A patient in his 60s visits his GP clinic complaining of general malaise,...

    Correct

    • A patient in his 60s visits his GP clinic complaining of general malaise, severe itch, and breathlessness that have been progressively worsening for several months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: adjusted calcium of 2.0 mmol/L (normal range: 2.2-2.4), phosphate of 2.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0), PTH of 12.53 pmol/L (normal range: 1.05-6.83), urea of 32.8 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.8), creatinine of 540 µmol/L (normal range: 60-120), 25 OH Vit D of 32 nmol/L (optimal level >75), and eGFR of 8 ml/min/1.73m2. What is the most effective treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dialysis

      Explanation:

      Dialysis as the Best Option for CKD 5 Patients with Severe Symptoms

      Patients with CKD 5 and an eGFR less than 15 ml/min/1.73m2 are likely to benefit most from dialysis, especially when they experience severe symptoms. Itch, for instance, is a common symptom of uraemia that can be very difficult to treat. On the other hand, breathlessness is often due to fluid buildup in the peritoneum and pleurae, which can be addressed by dialysis. While patients with CKD 5 are regularly reviewed by a renal department, the decision to start dialysis is usually made in a non-emergency setting.

      In cases where patients experience side effects that are difficult to treat without dialysis, supplementing calcium or vitamin D may not significantly change their current condition. Moreover, supplementing phosphate would be inappropriate as most patients with CKD 5 already have high serum phosphate levels and should be on a low phosphate diet. Therefore, dialysis remains the best option for CKD 5 patients with severe symptoms, as it can effectively address the underlying causes of their discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old woman has been referred to the hypertension clinic due to her...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has been referred to the hypertension clinic due to her two-year history of hypertension and current use of chlorthalidone. Her physician suspects that there may be an underlying secondary cause for her hypertension and wants to investigate further. During her clinic visit, she mentions recent illness with gastroenteritis. Blood tests taken today show a renin level of 120 pmol/l (normal range: 10-60) and an aldosterone level of 1215 pmol/l (normal range: 100-800). What is the most likely explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Renin and Aldosterone Levels

      Renin and aldosterone levels are important in diagnosing primary hyperaldosteronism, but they can be influenced by various factors. Hypervolaemia can cause a decrease in both renin and aldosterone levels, while hypovolaemia can lead to an increase in both. In primary hyperaldosteronism, renin levels decrease while aldosterone levels increase. The use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs can also affect renin and aldosterone levels, causing an increase in renin and a decrease in aldosterone.

      In cases where renin and aldosterone levels are abnormal, it is important to consider other factors that may be contributing to the results. For example, hypovolaemia can be caused by diuretic therapy or an intercurrent illness such as gastroenteritis. When hypovolaemia occurs, it stimulates the production of renin and activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), leading to an increase in aldosterone production. Aldosterone then acts to increase sodium and water retention by the kidneys, ultimately increasing intravascular volume.

      In summary, the various factors that can affect renin and aldosterone levels is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating conditions such as primary hyperaldosteronism. Repeat testing may be necessary in cases where other factors, such as hypovolaemia, may be influencing the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 5 - In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation,...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs have unwanted side effects that increase the risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects are associated with each drug due to their unique mechanism of action. What is the immunosuppressant drug that is commonly linked to hirsutism and gingival hypertrophy in patients? Also, is there any age group that is more susceptible to these side effects?

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin’s Side Effects and Decreased Popularity as a Transplantation Maintenance Therapy

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is commonly linked to gingival hypertrophy and hirsutism. These side effects can be unpleasant for patients and may lead to decreased compliance with the medication regimen. Additionally, ciclosporin is not as effective as tacrolimus at inhibiting calcineurin, which is a key factor in preventing transplant rejection. As a result, ciclosporin is becoming less popular as a maintenance therapy for transplantation. Physicians are increasingly turning to other medications that have fewer side effects and are more effective at preventing rejection. While ciclosporin may still be used in some cases, it is no longer considered the first-line treatment for transplantation maintenance therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man underwent a renal transplant four weeks ago. The transplant was...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man underwent a renal transplant four weeks ago. The transplant was complicated by delayed graft function, which required haemodialysis on days one and three post-surgery due to hyperkalaemia. By day six, the transplant began to function, and he was discharged on day 10 with decreasing creatinine levels. He is currently taking immunosuppressants (tacrolimus, azathioprine, prednisolone), prophylaxis against opportunistic infections (co-trimoxazole, valganciclovir), aspirin, and amlodipine. Despite regular clinic visits, his potassium levels remain persistently high at 6.5 mmol/l. Which medication is likely causing this issue?

      Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      Co-trimoxazole and its Side Effects

      Co-trimoxazole is a medication that is commonly used to treat and prevent Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, which is more prevalent in immunocompromised individuals. It is a combination of two drugs, trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole, and is known to cause side effects such as gastrointestinal discomfort, rashes, and hyperkalaemia. Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood, and it is a well-known side effect of co-trimoxazole. This is because the medication inhibits sodium channels in the distal nephron, similar to the potassium-sparing diuretic amiloride.

      Although co-trimoxazole is generally safe, it can cause rare but serious side effects such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bone marrow depression, and agranulocytosis. Patients who have documented allergies to either component of the medication should avoid it and use pentamidine nebulisers as an alternative. Additionally, co-trimoxazole may be teratogenic, meaning it can cause harm to a developing fetus, so female patients should be advised to use contraception and stop taking the medication if they plan to become pregnant. Overall, co-trimoxazole is an effective medication for treating and preventing Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      84.6
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  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old girl presents with proteinuria at 1500 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with proteinuria at 1500 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, her urine reveals the presence of significant amounts of large proteins, including albumin and transferrin. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Tubular proteinuria

      Correct Answer: Glomerular proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Glomerular Proteinuria

      Although a small amount of protein is typically found in urine, an elevated level of protein indicates a potential health issue. The diagram below illustrates the various sources of protein in urine, with glomerular proteinuria being the likely cause in this case due to the presence of larger proteins. This type of proteinuria can result in significant loss of protein through urine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of glomerular proteinuria and seek appropriate medical treatment to prevent further damage to the kidneys. Proper management can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of epistaxis and has been experiencing a fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of epistaxis and has been experiencing a fever. Upon examination by an ENT specialist, she was found to have serous otitis media. Further tests revealed protein +++ and 20 RBC/hpf in her urine, while her serum rheumatoid factor was negative. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a disease that can develop slowly or suddenly, and its full range of symptoms may take years to appear. The initial symptoms of GPA include severe nosebleeds, sinusitis, nasal ulcers, ear infections, hearing loss, coughing, and chest pain. Renal involvement is also common, with glomerulonephritis causing proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

      Symptoms of GPA can be varied and may take time to develop fully. Renal involvement is a common feature of the disease, and proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts are often seen. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the ESR is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of ANCA are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      164.6
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  • Question 9 - What is the name of the drug used to quickly achieve disease control...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the drug used to quickly achieve disease control in ANCA associated vasculitides by inducing DNA crosslinkage and apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells during induction therapy?

      Your Answer: Rituximab

      Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis

      ANCA vasculitis is a condition that causes inflammation of blood vessels, leading to organ damage. To treat this condition, induction agents such as cyclophosphamide and rituximab are used in severe or very active cases. Cyclophosphamide is a chemotherapy drug that causes DNA crosslinking, leading to apoptosis of rapidly dividing cells, including lymphocytes. On the other hand, rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, causing profound B cell depletion.

      For maintenance or steroid-sparing effects, azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are commonly used. However, they take three to four weeks to have their maximal effect, making them unsuitable for severe or very active cases. Ciclosporin, a calcineurin inhibitor, is not widely used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis, despite its use in transplantation to block IL-2 production and proliferation signals to T cells.

      In summary, the treatment options for ANCA vasculitis depend on the severity of the disease. Induction agents such as cyclophosphamide and rituximab are used in severe or very active cases, while maintenance agents like azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are used for mild cases. Ciclosporin is not commonly used in the treatment of ANCA vasculitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 10 - A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for six years contacts the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for six years contacts the clinic with concerns. The patient reports infusing 1.5 litres of fluid into their abdomen but only being able to remove 1 litre at the end of their dwell. However, the patient is not experiencing any symptoms and does not have ankle oedema.

      What could be causing this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Catheter Outflow Obstruction in Peritoneal Dialysis Patients

      Constipation is a frequent cause of catheter outflow obstruction in patients who have been on peritoneal dialysis for a while. This can happen at any point and is due to the low-fiber renal diet that is recommended to avoid potassium and phosphate excess. The design of PD fluid with osmotic agents means that fluid should not be absorbed in significant quantities. If absorption is occurring, patients will show signs of fluid overload, such as swollen ankles, indicating that a higher concentration of osmotic agent is required. Leakage is noticeable as either fluid coming from the exit site or swelling around the exit site as fluid leaks into subcutaneous tissues.

      Catheter malposition is often painful and tends to occur early on after insertion, not years after catheter placement. Kinking of the catheter also usually occurs early after insertion and may vary with position. It tends to cause problems with fluid inflow as well as outflow. By these common causes of catheter outflow obstruction, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat peritoneal dialysis patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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