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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old male is admitted to the respiratory ward for severe community-acquired pneumonia...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male is admitted to the respiratory ward for severe community-acquired pneumonia and is being treated with amoxicillin. He has a medical history of a heart attack 2 years ago, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. His current medications include aspirin 75 mg, atorvastatin 40 mg, ramipril 5mg, bendroflumethiazide 5mg, and metformin 500 mg BD. On the third day of treatment, the medical team noticed that the patient's creatinine levels increased from a baseline of 67 micromol/litre to 190 micromol/litre. His eGFR is found to be 25 ml/min, and he is diagnosed with acute kidney injury. Which of the patient's current medications can he continue taking in his current condition?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), it is important to identify drugs that may worsen renal function and those that can result in toxicity. AKI is defined as a 50% or greater rise in serum creatinine within the past 7 days or a fall in urine output to less than 0.5 ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours.

      For patients on aspirin for secondary prevention of acute coronary syndrome, the cardioprotective dose of 75 mg per day should be continued as there is strong evidence supporting its use. Aspirin is a COX-inhibitor that inhibits thromboxane synthesis via the COX-1 pathway, exhibiting antithrombotic effects.

      Drugs that should be stopped in AKI as they may worsen renal function include diuretics, aminoglycosides, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, and NSAIDs that are not at cardioprotective doses. On the other hand, drugs that do not worsen renal function but can result in toxicity include metformin, lithium, and digoxin. A helpful mnemonic to remember the drugs to stop in AKI is DAMN AKI: Diuretics, Aminoglycosides and ACE inhibitors, Metformin, and NSAIDs.

      Understanding Acute Kidney Injury: A Basic Overview

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where the kidneys experience a reduction in function due to an insult. In the past, the kidneys were often neglected in acute medicine, resulting in slow recognition and limited action. However, around 15% of patients admitted to the hospital develop AKI. While most patients recover their renal function, some may have long-term impaired kidney function due to AKI, which can result in acute complications, including death. Identifying patients at increased risk of AKI is crucial in reducing its incidence. Risk factors for AKI include chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, and the use of drugs with nephrotoxic potential.

      AKI has three main causes: prerenal, intrinsic, and postrenal. Prerenal causes are due to a lack of blood flow to the kidneys, while intrinsic causes relate to intrinsic damage to the kidneys themselves. Postrenal causes occur when there is an obstruction to the urine coming from the kidneys. Symptoms of AKI include reduced urine output, fluid overload, arrhythmias, and features of uraemia. Diagnosis of AKI is made through blood tests, urinalysis, and imaging.

      The management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review being crucial. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Prompt review by a urologist is required for patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction, while specialist input from a nephrologist is necessary for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
      What should this woman avoid?

      Your Answer: Injectable contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.

      If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.

      While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.

      The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.

      The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high blood pressure despite being on medication. His current treatment includes atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, but his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, grade II hypertensive retinopathy is observed. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What possible diagnosis should be considered as the cause of his resistant hypertension?

      Your Answer: Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperaldosteronism and Resistant Hypertension

      This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should typically increase their potassium concentration. Additionally, their potassium levels are low, which is a strong indication of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (known as Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be difficult to manage, but identifying it early can help prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      107
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and confusion that have been present for one day. Upon further examination, she is found to have an elevated heart rate and body temperature. The patient has a history of depression and has been taking sertraline for several years without any changes in dosage or overdose incidents. However, her partner reports that she was recently prescribed a new medication by her general practitioner, which may have interacted with her regular medication. What is the most likely medication responsible for this interaction?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Correct Answer: Zolmitriptan

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      528.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 14-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. She...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. She has widespread aches in multiple joints, including the hips, wrists and knees. She is normally fit and well, and the only medical history to note was eczema as a child, which she has now grown out of. The patient’s mother mentions that she did have a sore throat around two weeks ago, which was self-limiting. From the history and examination findings, the examining doctor feels that the patient is likely to have rheumatic fever.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Streptococcus Bacteria and Their Associated Infections

      Streptococcus bacteria are a group of Gram-positive bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Here are some of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they are associated with:

      1. Group A Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause rheumatic fever, tonsillitis, erysipelas, scarlet fever, cellulitis, septic arthritis, Henoch–Schönlein purpura, post-streptococcal autoimmunity, and erythema multiforme.

      2. Group B Streptococcus: This type of bacteria can cause septic abortion and bacterial meningitis.

      3. Gamma-haemolytic Streptococcus: This type of bacteria is classified as gamma-haemolytic because it does not break down red blood cells on blood agar plates.

      4. Streptococcus pneumoniae: This type of bacteria is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia.

      5. Streptococcus viridans: This type of bacteria is an important cause of bacterial endocarditis.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the different types of Streptococcus bacteria and the infections they can cause in order to properly diagnose and treat these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      70.1
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  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old female student presents to the GP clinic complaining of dysuria and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female student presents to the GP clinic complaining of dysuria and frequent urination. Upon urinalysis, proteinuria, haematuria, and nitrite positivity are detected. The patient is currently taking Microgynon 30 as a contraceptive. The physician prescribes a five-day course of Augmentin. What recommendations should be provided to the patient?

      Your Answer: She should use alternative contraception whilst taking antibiotics and for the following seven days.

      Correct Answer: Augmentin does not affect the OCP

      Explanation:

      BNF Guidance on Antibiotics and Oral Contraceptives

      The British National Formulary (BNF) has recently updated its guidance on the interaction between antibiotics and oral contraceptives. It is now believed that only drugs that induce hepatic enzyme activity can reduce the efficacy of the pill. This is a departure from previous thinking, which suggested that broad-spectrum antibiotics could impair the effect of intestinal flora responsible for recycling ethinyl oestradiol from the large bowel, thereby reducing the effectiveness of the pill. However, there is currently no evidence to support this theory, and the BNF no longer suggests that non-hepatic enzyme inducing antibiotics can impair the efficacy of the oral contraceptive pill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump in his scrotum that he noticed while showering. He reports feeling some discomfort in the area but denies any pain. He has been in a committed relationship with his girlfriend and had a clear sexual health screen two weeks ago.

      Upon examination, the GP notes a soft mass on the anterior aspect of the right testis that cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. The lump is not tender to touch and transilluminates.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydrocoele

      Explanation:

      Hydrocoeles are distinguishable from other testicular lumps as they are not separate from the testis and can be transilluminated.

      When evaluating scrotal lumps, it is crucial to determine if the mass is solid or cystic in nature and if it is continuous or separate from the testis. A hydrocoele is a fluid collection in the tunica vaginalis that surrounds the testis, making it cystic or fluctuant and indistinguishable from the testis itself. Therefore, this is the correct answer in this situation. Although benign, hydrocoeles can often be caused by testicular tumors, which should be ruled out with an ultrasound scan.

      Testicular tumors would be continuous with the testis, but they may be distinct and irregular in shape. They would not be cystic or transilluminate, but they may also present with a secondary hydrocoele.

      Varicocoeles and epididymal cysts would be separate from the testis during examination.

      Causes and Management of Scrotal Swelling

      Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.

      The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man without prior medical history is experiencing increasing back pain and right hip pain for the past decade. The pain worsens towards the end of the day. He has bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joints. Radiographs reveal prominent osteophytes involving the vertebral bodies and sclerosis with narrowing of the joint space at the right acetabulum. What is the most likely pathologic process occurring in this patient?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Arthritis

      Degenerative osteoarthritis is a condition that becomes more prevalent and symptomatic as one ages. It is characterized by the erosion and loss of articular cartilage. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the small joints of the hands and feet, leading to marked joint deformity due to a destructive pannus. Gouty arthritis, on the other hand, is more likely to cause swelling and deformity with joint destruction, and the pain is not related to usage. Osteomyelitis, meanwhile, is an ongoing infection that produces marked bone deformity, not just joint narrowing. Lastly, Lyme disease produces a chronic arthritis, but it is typically preceded by a deer tick bite with a skin lesion. It is much less common than osteoarthritis. By the differences between these types of arthritis, proper diagnosis and treatment can be given to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presents to her dermatologist with a 4-year history of acne on her back, chest and face. She has comedones, pustules and scars that have not improved with previous treatments. The dermatologist decides to prescribe isotretinoin. What other medication should be prescribed alongside this?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      The patient has severe acne and topical treatment has not been effective. The dermatologist will prescribe oral isotretinoin, which is a specialist drug that can only be prescribed in secondary care. However, isotretinoin is teratogenic, so women of reproductive age must use at least two methods of contraception while taking the drug. The combined oral contraceptive pill is often co-prescribed with isotretinoin to help balance the hormonal profile and improve the skin condition. Topical retinoids are the treatment of choice for mild to moderate acne, but they are not indicated for severe acne. Oral oxytetracycline can be used in combination with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide for moderate acne, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Topical erythromycin is used for mild to moderate acne and should always be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide to prevent microbial resistance. Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for mild or moderate acne and can be combined with a topical retinoid or antibiotic, or an oral antibiotic for moderate acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned...

    Correct

    • A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.

      Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.

      Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.

      A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      83.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his right upper quadrant. He reports that the pain is sharp and worsens when he takes a breath. Over the past few days, he has been feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath, and he has been coughing up bloody, purulent sputum. He has a fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. He recently returned from a week-long vacation during which he consumed 20 units of alcohol per day. What is the most probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Upper quadrant abdominal pain can be a symptom of lower lobe pneumonia.

      Despite the patient’s complaint of abdominal pain, their other symptoms suggest that they may have pneumonia. The presence of signs of infection (such as fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea), along with shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum, all point towards a diagnosis of pneumonia. This question serves to emphasize that pneumonia can sometimes manifest as abdominal pain, particularly in cases of lower lobe pneumonia.

      It is important to note that hepatitis, gallstones, and pancreatitis do not typically cause shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum. Additionally, the patient’s history of high alcohol intake is not relevant to this question.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      54.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A child with leukaemia is given etoposide.
    What is the mechanism of action...

    Incorrect

    • A child with leukaemia is given etoposide.
      What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Microtubule inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Topoisomerase II inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy agents can be classified into different categories based on their mechanism of action. Topoisomerase II inhibitors, such as etoposide, prevent the re-ligation of DNA strands by forming a complex with the topoisomerase II enzyme, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. Microtubule inhibitors, like paclitaxel and vinblastine, block the formation of microtubules, which are essential for cell proliferation and signaling, resulting in cell death. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, interfere with DNA replication by attaching an alkyl group to the guanine base of DNA. Antimetabolites, including base analogues, nucleoside analogues, nucleotide analogues, and antifolates, disrupt cell metabolism and inhibit DNA replication and repair. Topoisomerase I inhibitors, like irinotecan and topotecan, inhibit DNA transcription and replication by binding to the topoisomerase I-DNA complex. These chemotherapy agents have various side effects, including bone marrow suppression, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, and allergic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      10.4
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  • Question 13 - You see a 50-year-old male patient for discussion of his recent oral glucose...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old male patient for discussion of his recent oral glucose tolerance test. He has a family history of type 2 diabetes and he wanted to be tested for it. He has no symptoms. You inform him that based on the result of his oral glucose tolerance test, he has impaired glucose tolerance. What is the accepted definition of impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Fasting glucose <8 mmol/L (144 mg/dL) and 2 hour glucose >6 mmol/L (108 mg/dL) but <15 mmol/L (270 mg/dL)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      WHO Recommendations for Diabetes and Intermediate Hyperglycaemia Diagnosis

      The World Health Organization (WHO) has established diagnostic criteria for diabetes and intermediate hyperglycaemia. According to the 2006 recommendations, a fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) or higher, or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) or higher indicates diabetes. On the other hand, impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is diagnosed when the fasting plasma glucose level is less than 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) and the 2-hour plasma glucose level is between 7.8 and 11.1 mmol/L (140 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL). Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is diagnosed when the fasting plasma glucose level is between 6.1 and 6.9 mmol/L (110 mg/dL to 125 mg/dL) and the 2-hour plasma glucose level is less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL), if measured.

      It is important to note that if the 2-hour plasma glucose level is not measured, the status of the individual is uncertain as diabetes or IGT cannot be excluded. These recommendations serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and managing diabetes and intermediate hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      37.8
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man has a high thoracic spine injury at T2 sustained from...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man has a high thoracic spine injury at T2 sustained from a motorbike accident. He is now 10 days post injury and has had a spinal fixation. He is paraplegic with a sensory level at T2. He has had a normal blood pressure today requiring no haemodynamic support. You are called to see him on the trauma ward as he has a tachycardia at about 150/beat per minute and very high blood pressure, up to 230/110 mmHg. The nurses have just changed his catheter. He says he feels slightly strange, sweaty and flushed in his face.
      What would explain this?

      Your Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autonomic Dysreflexia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differentiation from Other Conditions

      Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition characterized by hypertension, sweating, and flushing, with bradycardia being a common feature. It occurs due to excessive sympathetic activity in the absence of parasympathetic supply in a high spinal lesion, typically above the level of T6. The exact physiology of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to be a reaction to a stimulus below the level of the spinal lesion. Simple stimuli such as urinary tract infection, a full bladder, or bladder or rectal instrumentation can trigger autonomic dysreflexia. It usually occurs at least 10 days after the injury and after the initial spinal shock has resolved.

      Differentiating autonomic dysreflexia from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Pulmonary embolus, for instance, is associated with sinus tachycardia but rarely causes hypertension. Neurogenic shock, on the other hand, causes hypotension and occurs at the acute onset of the injury. Stress cardiomyopathy is typically associated with head injury and causes heart failure and hypotension. Anxiety and depression are unlikely to cause such a swift and marked rise in blood pressure and heart rate and would typically be associated with hyperventilation. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and differentiation of autonomic dysreflexia is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman has been prescribed tranexamic acid to alleviate symptoms of heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has been prescribed tranexamic acid to alleviate symptoms of heavy menstrual bleeding. Can you explain the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid?

      Your Answer: Factor X inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Inhibits fibrin degradation

      Explanation:

      Anticoagulant Medications and Their Mechanisms

      Anticoagulant medications are used to prevent and treat thromboembolic disease. Tranexamic acid is a potent inhibitor of fibrinolysis, which is the process of breaking down blood clots. It works by blocking the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which is necessary for the breakdown of clots. Compared to aminocaproic acid, tranexamic acid is about 10 times more effective in inhibiting fibrinolysis.

      Factor X inhibitors and vitamin K inhibitors, such as warfarin, are also used to prevent thromboembolic events. These medications work by interfering with the clotting cascade, which is a series of chemical reactions that lead to the formation of blood clots. By inhibiting the production of clotting factors, these medications can prevent the formation of new clots and reduce the risk of further events.

      Aspirin and clopidogrel are medications that inhibit platelet aggregation. Platelets are small cells in the blood that play a key role in clot formation. By inhibiting platelet aggregation, these medications can reduce the risk of clot formation and prevent thromboembolic events. Aspirin works by blocking the production of thromboxane, a chemical that promotes platelet aggregation, while clopidogrel works by blocking the activation of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead,...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a patient who presents with diplopia. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye is elevated and abducted. When attempting to gaze to the left, the diplopia exacerbates.
      What is the probable underlying cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Right 4th nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is the perception of seeing two images stacked on top of each other. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding these symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment of fourth nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old woman with mild chronic heart failure and a baseline eGFR of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman with mild chronic heart failure and a baseline eGFR of 58 ml/min (> 90 ml/min) and normal electrolytes, reports to her doctor about breathlessness and increasing pedal oedema. She is prescribed a diuretic and her serum biochemistry is rechecked after two weeks, revealing hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypocalcaemia. What is the most probable diuretic that she was prescribed?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action and Side-Effects

      Diuretics are commonly used medications that increase urine output and help to reduce fluid overload in various medical conditions. There are different types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action and associated side-effects. Here is an overview of some of the most commonly used diuretics:

      Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that works by blocking the reabsorption of sodium, potassium, and chloride in the thick ascending loop of Henle. It can cause side-effects such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and gout.

      Amiloride: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by preventing sodium binding in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to natriuresis and diuresis while conserving potassium. It can cause hyperkalaemia and other side-effects such as hypotension and dehydration.

      Bendroflumethiazide: This is a thiazide diuretic that works by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. It can cause side-effects such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia.

      Indapamide: This is a thiazide-like diuretic that works similarly to bendroflumethiazide and can cause similar side-effects.

      Spironolactone: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct, leading to natriuresis, diuresis, and reabsorption of potassium. It can cause hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia.

      It is important to note that diuretics can have significant effects on electrolyte balance and other aspects of fluid and electrolyte homeostasis. Therefore, their use should be carefully monitored and adjusted as needed to avoid adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man was prescribed antibiotics for a UTI by his GP a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man was prescribed antibiotics for a UTI by his GP a few days ago. He also has a medical history of G6PD deficiency. He returned to the GP surgery a few days later, feeling generally ill, with a pale appearance and jaundice.
      Which antibiotic could have been prescribed that may have caused these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Drug Safety in G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a genetic disorder that can cause acute haemolytic anaemia in response to certain drugs and foods. Patients with G6PD deficiency should avoid fava beans and drugs such as quinolones, nitrofurantoin, sulfonamides, and antimalarials, which can trigger haemolysis. Ciprofloxacin is a quinolone that falls under the definite risk category for haemolysis. However, penicillins, macrolides, cephalosporins, and chloramphenicol are generally considered safe in G6PD deficiency. Co-amoxiclav, a type of penicillin, would not have caused symptoms in a patient with G6PD deficiency. Erythromycin, a macrolide, and cephalexin, a cephalosporin, are also safe in G6PD deficiency. Chloramphenicol, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, is also considered safe. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of drug safety in G6PD deficiency to avoid triggering haemolysis in affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      42.4
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  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old man experiences a sensation of something ‘giving way’ in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man experiences a sensation of something ‘giving way’ in his right arm while lifting a heavy bag of garden waste. The arm is visibly bruised, and upon flexing the elbow, a lump appears in the middle of the anterior aspect of the arm. The diagnosis is a rupture of the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii. Where does this tendon typically attach to a bony point?

      Your Answer: Greater tuberosity of the humerus

      Correct Answer: Supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

      Explanation:

      The supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula is where the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii attaches within the shoulder joint capsule. The lesser tuberosity of the humerus is where the subscapularis muscle inserts, while the crest of the lesser tuberosity is where the latissimus dorsi and teres major muscles attach. The coracoid process of the scapula is where the short head of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, and pectoralis minor muscles attach. The greater tuberosity of the humerus is where the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor muscles insert. Lastly, the long head of the triceps brachii attaches to the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula. These attachments and insertions are important for understanding the anatomy and function of the shoulder and arm muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received all the recommended vaccines for his age group and has not experienced any adverse reactions. He is in good health and his height and weight are within normal range. The child's family migrated from India six years ago. What vaccinations should the doctor administer during this visit?

      Your Answer: BCG vaccination

      Correct Answer: 4-in-1 booster and MMR vaccination

      Explanation:

      For a child between 3 and 4 years old, the recommended immunisations are the MMR vaccine and the 4-in-1 booster, which includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, and polio. It is important to note that the child should have already received a BCG vaccination when they were between 0 and 12 months old if their parents were born in a country with a high incidence of tuberculosis. The HPV vaccine is not recommended for children of this age. The 3-in-1 booster and meningococcal B vaccine is an inappropriate combination, as is the 6-in-1 vaccine and meningococcal ACWY vaccine.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.8
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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a history of her...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with a history of her fingers turning white, blue, and red intermittently for the past four months. She also reports tightness of the skin on her fingers, hands, and face, without involvement of the skin on her upper arm or chest. Additionally, she experiences troubling reflux symptoms. On examination, there is fibrotic skin overlying the hands and face with telangiectasia. Which autoantibody is most likely to be positive in this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-centromere antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of skin tightening, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and telangiectasia in this patient suggests a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis. The limited subtype is most likely as there is no involvement of the upper arm and chest. Anti-centromere antibodies are commonly associated with this subtype. Anti-RNA polymerase III and anti-Scl-70 antibodies are more commonly associated with diffuse systemic sclerosis, which involves the chest and upper arms and more severe internal organ involvement. Anti-Ro antibodies are typically associated with Sjögren’s syndrome, which is unlikely in this patient. Anti-dsDNA antibodies are commonly associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), but systemic sclerosis is more likely given the absence of a butterfly rash and the presence of oesophageal dysmotility.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 58-year-old man is admitted for a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma....

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man is admitted for a radical nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma. He has an uncomplicated postoperative course and after one week is ready for discharge home. You are the house officer on the urology team and have attended him daily. He hands you an envelope and inside you find a thank you card with a voucher for a department store for £500. What should you do regarding the gift you have received?

      Your Answer: Return it to the patient and explain you cannot accept such a gift

      Explanation:

      How to Handle a Valuable Gift from a Patient as a Doctor

      As a doctor, it is important to maintain a professional relationship with your patients. This includes being cautious about accepting gifts, especially those valued over £50. Here are some options for handling a valuable gift from a patient:

      1. Return it to the patient and explain you cannot accept such a gift. This may cause embarrassment, but it is the most professional option.

      2. Keep it and share it with your team. Explain to the patient that gifts over £50 should only be accepted on behalf of an organisation, not an individual staff member.

      3. Give it to a charity. Be open and honest with the patient and suggest they donate the money to a charitable organisation.

      4. Thank the patient and keep it. However, this could raise questions about your professionalism and could leave you vulnerable to criticism.

      5. Thank the patient and use the money to buy something nice for the ward. While this is a kind gesture, the patient should directly give the money to the hospital and doctors should be cautious about accepting valuable gifts.

      Remember, maintaining a professional relationship with your patients is crucial and accepting gifts should be done with caution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      27.3
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the GP with a three-day history of vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the GP with a three-day history of vaginal itching and thick, non-odorous white discharge. She had a similar complaint four months ago but has no other medical history. The patient is married and sexually active with her husband, and her menstrual cycle is regular, following a 28-day cycle. Vaginal pH testing shows a value of 4.3. What further tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?

      Your Answer: None needed, the diagnosis is clinical

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis does not require a high vaginal swab if the symptoms are highly suggestive. In fact, the diagnosis can be made clinically based on the patient’s symptoms. For example, if a patient presents with thickened, white discharge that resembles cottage cheese and vaginal itching, along with a normal vaginal pH, it is very likely that they have vaginal candidiasis. It is important to note that glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is not necessary for diagnosis unless the patient has recurrent episodes of vaginal candidiasis, which may indicate diabetes mellitus. Additionally, a midstream urine sample is not useful in diagnosing vaginal candidiasis and should only be used if a sexually-transmitted infection is suspected.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      45.7
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  • Question 24 - Samantha is 89-years-old and has been admitted to hospital for being 'off-legs'. She...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 89-years-old and has been admitted to hospital for being 'off-legs'. She is usually fit and well, walking 3 miles a day. Her only past medical history is of osteoarthritis in her hands for which she takes regular paracetamol with omeprazole for gastro-protection. Samantha's daughter reports that Samantha has become gradually more confused over the preceding weeks. She has a NEWs (national early warning score) of 0. Her U&Es are reported back as:

      Na+ 134 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Mg 2+ 0.5 mmol/L (0.85 - 1.10)

      Her renal function is at her baseline. What is the most appropriate initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Electrolyte replacement with oral potassium chloride and initiate cardiac monitoring

      Correct Answer: Withhold regular medications and begin electrolyte replacement with a magnesium infusion

      Explanation:

      The primary step in managing hypomagnesaemia caused by proton pump inhibitors is to discontinue the medication. The next step is to slowly replace the lost magnesium through infusion. Although dehydration is a common cause of hospitalization in elderly patients, it is not the case with George, who has normal renal function and a NEWs score of 0. Therefore, magnesium replacement is the most appropriate solution.

      While potassium replacement and cardiac monitoring may be necessary, administering potassium orally before magnesium replacement is unlikely to be effective in correcting the electrolyte imbalance. Additionally, there is no mention of discontinuing George’s regular medications, which are likely the underlying cause of the electrolyte disturbance.

      A fluid challenge of 500ml is appropriate for patients in shock, but George does not exhibit any signs of shock. Given his age, a smaller fluid challenge may be more appropriate.

      Although urosepsis is a common cause of confusion in the elderly, George does not exhibit any symptoms of a urinary tract infection and has a NEWs score of 0. Therefore, the electrolyte disturbance is more likely to be the cause of his confusion.

      Administering a magnesium infusion before potassium replacement is necessary because magnesium deficiency can worsen potassium loss. While holding George’s medications is appropriate, fluid replacement may not be necessary. Administering the fluid over 12 hours seems excessive for someone without known cardiac or renal disease.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.

      When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      74
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal pain in...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department with intermittent abdominal pain in the right upper quadrant (RUQ). The pain started 3 hours ago, and is described as a sharp pain that comes and goes. The pain does not radiate anywhere, but it has progressively worsened throughout the day.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be in pain at rest, but does not appear clammy or pale. He is very tender in the right upper quadrant, but no guarding or rebound tenderness is felt.

      His vital signs are as follows:
      Heart rate = 105 beats per minute.
      Respiratory rate = 20 breaths per minute.
      Blood pressure = 130/85 mmHg.
      Temperature = 38.5ºC.

      What is the most appropriate next investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      When acute cholecystitis is suspected, ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic method. The main differential diagnoses are biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis. Acute cholecystitis is the most probable cause, given the duration of abdominal pain (which typically lasts less than 2 hours in biliary colic) and the mild systemic symptoms (as opposed to the severe illness seen in ascending cholangitis). Ultrasound is preferred due to its accuracy in detecting gallstones and assessing gallbladder abnormalities, as well as its non-invasive and cost-effective nature. CT and X-rays are less desirable due to their radiation risks. While MRCP is a non-invasive imaging technique that can visualize the hepatopancreatobiliary tract, it is recommended to start with ultrasound before considering more detailed investigations such as MRCP. ERCP is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure, but it is usually preceded by other imaging tests due to the potential for complications such as perforation.

      Acute cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed. This is usually caused by gallstones, which are present in 90% of cases. The remaining 10% of cases are known as acalculous cholecystitis and are typically seen in severely ill patients who are hospitalized. The pathophysiology of acute cholecystitis is multifactorial and can be caused by gallbladder stasis, hypoperfusion, and infection. In immunosuppressed patients, it may develop due to Cryptosporidium or cytomegalovirus. This condition is associated with high morbidity and mortality rates.

      The main symptom of acute cholecystitis is right upper quadrant pain, which may radiate to the right shoulder. Patients may also experience fever and signs of systemic upset. Murphy’s sign, which is inspiratory arrest upon palpation of the right upper quadrant, may be present. Liver function tests are typically normal, but deranged LFTs may indicate Mirizzi syndrome, which is caused by a gallstone impacted in the distal cystic duct, causing extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.

      Ultrasound is the first-line investigation for acute cholecystitis. If the diagnosis remains unclear, cholescintigraphy (HIDA scan) may be used. In this test, technetium-labelled HIDA is injected IV and taken up selectively by hepatocytes and excreted into bile. In acute cholecystitis, there is cystic duct obstruction, and the gallbladder will not be visualized.

      The treatment for acute cholecystitis involves intravenous antibiotics and cholecystectomy. NICE now recommends early laparoscopic cholecystectomy, within 1 week of diagnosis. Previously, surgery was delayed for several weeks until the inflammation had subsided. Pregnant women should also proceed to early laparoscopic cholecystectomy to reduce the chances of maternal-fetal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      692.5
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  • Question 26 - You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old woman who underwent a left mastectomy...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old woman who underwent a left mastectomy yesterday to treat breast cancer. Her potassium level is low at 3.1 mmol/L (normal range is 3.5-4.9), but she is asymptomatic and currently having her lunch. She has a history of hypertension and takes a thiazide diuretic regularly. What would be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe an oral potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Mild Hypokalaemia

      Mild hypokalaemia can be treated with oral supplementation. If a patient is able to eat, intravenous fluids are unnecessary. It is best to advise the patient to take oral supplements for a few days. Foods such as tomatoes and bananas contain high levels of potassium and could be offered as well. However, it is important to note that the maximum concentration of potassium that can be given via a peripheral line is 40 mmol/L. It is also important to avoid loop diuretics as they can make the patient’s potassium levels even lower. As long as the patient is asymptomatic and able to eat, mild hypokalaemia can be easily treated with oral supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      45.8
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of itching symptoms. She is currently 29 weeks pregnant and has had no complications thus far. She reports that her palms and soles of her feet have been extremely itchy for the past few days, and the sensation has now spread to her abdomen. However, she feels otherwise healthy and denies experiencing nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be in good health, without signs of jaundice or rash. Her vital signs are normal, and her blood tests are generally unremarkable, except for a slightly elevated bilirubin level.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate topic to discuss with her regarding definitive management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and normal vaginal delivery at term

      Correct Answer: Induction of labour at 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing intense pruritus and has elevated bilirubin levels, which are common symptoms of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Due to the heightened risk of stillbirth, induction of labor at 37 weeks is typically recommended. While a caesarian section at 37 weeks may be considered, there is insufficient evidence to support this approach over induction. Induction at 34 weeks is not advisable, and reassurance with a normal delivery at term is not appropriate. Therefore, a discussion regarding induction at 37 weeks is necessary.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      43.2
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  • Question 28 - You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from a 27-year-old woman who is 8-weeks pregnant with twins. Last week she had severe nausea and vomiting despite a combination of oral cyclizine and promethazine. She continued to vomit and was admitted to the hospital briefly where she was started on metoclopramide and ondansetron which helped control her symptoms.

      Today she tells you she read a pregnancy forum article warning about the potential risks of ondansetron use in pregnancy. She is concerned and wants advice on whether she should continue taking it.

      How would you counsel this woman regarding the use of ondansetron during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: There is some evidence of an increased rate of developing HELLP syndrome in the 3rd trimester

      Correct Answer: There is a small increased risk of cleft lip/palate in the newborn if used in the first trimester

      Explanation:

      The use of ondansetron during pregnancy has been associated with an increased risk of 3 oral clefts per 10,000 births, according to a study. However, this risk is not included in the RCOG guideline on nausea and vomiting of pregnancy, and there is currently no official NICE guidance on the matter. A draft of NICE antenatal care guidance, published in August 2021, acknowledges the increased risk of cleft lip or palate with ondansetron use, but notes that there is conflicting evidence regarding the drug’s potential to cause heart problems in babies. It is important to note that the risk of spontaneous miscarriage in twin pregnancies is not supported by evidence, and there is no established risk of severe congenital heart defects in newborns associated with ondansetron use.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and prescribed medication to lower her blood pressure. However, she stopped taking the medication due to reported dizziness. Her blood pressure readings usually run at 150/100 mmHg. She denies any chest pain, shortness of breath, leg swelling, or visual problems. She has a history of occasional migraines but no other medical conditions. She has no known drug allergies. Her vital signs are within normal limits, other than high blood pressure. The S1 and S2 sounds are normal. There is no S3 or S4 sound, murmur, rub, or gallop. The peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. The serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride), creatinine, and urea nitrogen are within normal range. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      The best medication for the patient in the scenario would be indapamide, a thiazide diuretic that blocks the Na+/Cl− cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubules, increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing the risk of osteoporotic fractures. Common side-effects include hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperuricaemia, gout, postural hypotension and hypochloraemic alkalosis.

      Prazosin is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia.

      Enalapril is not preferred for patients over 55 years old and can increase osteoporosis risk.

      Propranolol is not a preferred initial treatment for hypertension, and amlodipine can cause ankle swelling and should be avoided in patients with myocardial infarction and symptomatic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED) after hitting his head...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED) after hitting his head on a low-hanging branch while hiking 3 hours ago. He recalls feeling dizzy and disoriented immediately after the incident but has since felt fine.

      Upon examination, the patient has a small bump on his head and a mild headache. His neurological exam is normal, and his GCS is 15. He reports feeling nauseous but has not vomited since the incident.

      The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: CT head within 1 hour

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences more than one episode of vomiting after a head injury, it is necessary to perform a CT head within 1 hour to check for any intracranial pathology. This is the case for a 24-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department with a severe head injury and multiple vomiting episodes. Other criteria for an urgent CT head within 1 hour include evidence of basal skull fracture, depressed skull fractures, and altered GCS. Admitting the patient for neuro-observations only is not appropriate, as a CT head is necessary to rule out any intracranial pathology. Similarly, a CT head within 8 hours is not appropriate for this patient, as it is indicated for head injuries with altered consciousness or amnesia following the event. Discharging the patient with safety netting is also not appropriate, as the patient is experiencing repeated vomiting after a head injury, which requires urgent CT head imaging within 1 hour.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (2/3) 67%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/5) 20%
Surgery (4/4) 100%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Ethics And Legal (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (0/2) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed