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Question 1
Correct
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A 68-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sharp and stabbing central chest pain that radiates to his back, neck, and left shoulder. He reports feeling feverish and states that sitting forward relieves the pain while lying down worsens it. The patient also mentions a recent hospitalization for a heart attack three weeks ago. During auscultation at the left sternal border, a scratchy sound is heard while the patient leans forward and holds his breath. His ECG shows widespread ST-segment saddle elevation and PR-segment depression. Can you identify the nerve responsible for his shoulder pain?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:The referred pain to the shoulder in this case is likely caused by Dressler’s syndrome, a type of pericarditis that occurs after a heart attack. The scratchy sound heard during auscultation is a pericardial friction rub, which is a common characteristic of pericarditis. The phrenic nerve, which supplies the pericardium, travels from the neck down through the thoracic cavity and can cause referred pain to the shoulder in cases of pericarditis.
The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the teres minor and deltoid muscles, and dysfunction of this nerve can result in loss of sensation or movement in the shoulder area.
While the accessory nerve does innervate muscles in the neck that attach to the shoulder, it has a purely motor function and is not responsible for sensory input. Additionally, the referred pain in this case is not typical of musculoskeletal pain, but rather a result of pericarditis.
Injuries involving the long thoracic nerve often result in winging of the scapula and are commonly caused by axillary surgery.
Although the vagus nerve does supply parasympathetic innervation to the heart, it is not responsible for the referred pain in this case, as the pericardium is innervated by the phrenic nerve.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain that started last night and kept him awake. He missed school today because of the pain and reports muffled sounds on the affected side. During otoscopy, you observe a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid behind it, indicating a middle ear infection. Can you identify which nerves pass through the middle ear?
Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear nerve
Correct Answer: Chorda tympani
Explanation:The chorda tympani is the correct answer. It is a branch of the seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, and carries parasympathetic and taste fibers. It passes through the middle ear before exiting and joining with the lingual nerve to reach the tongue and salivary glands.
The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve and carries balance and hearing information.
The maxillary nerve is the second division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the upper teeth, nasal cavity, and skin.
The mandibular nerve is the third division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the lower teeth, tongue, mandible, and skin. It also carries motor fibers to certain muscles.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and carries taste and sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, as well as sensation from various areas. It also carries motor and parasympathetic fibers.
The patient in the question has ear pain, likely due to otitis media, as evidenced by a bulging tympanic membrane and fluid level on otoscopy.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden worsening of his asthma symptoms. He is experiencing difficulty in speaking and breathing, with cyanosis of the lips and a respiratory rate of 33 breaths per minute. He reports feeling lightheaded. Although his airways are open, his chest sounds are faint upon auscultation. The patient is administered oxygen, nebulized salbutamol, and intravenous aminophylline.
What is the mechanism of action of aminophylline?Your Answer: Activates phosphodiesterase inhibitor resulting in smooth muscle relaxation
Correct Answer: Binds to adenosine receptors and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction
Explanation:Aminophylline works by binding to adenosine receptors and preventing adenosine-induced bronchoconstriction. This mode of action is different from antihistamines like loratadine, which is an incorrect option. Theophylline, a shorter acting form of aminophylline, competitively inhibits type III and type IV phosphodiesterase enzymes responsible for breaking down cyclic AMP in smooth muscle cells, leading to possible bronchodilation. Additionally, theophylline binds to the adenosine A2B receptor and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction. In inflammatory conditions, theophylline activates histone deacetylase, which prevents the transcription of inflammatory genes that require histone acetylation for transcription to begin. Therefore, the last three options are incorrect. (Source: Drugbank)
Aminophylline infusions are utilized to manage acute asthma and COPD. In patients who have not received xanthines (theophylline or aminophylline) before, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg is administered through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least 20 minutes. For the maintenance infusion, 1g of aminophylline is mixed with 1 litre of normal saline to create a solution of 1 mg/ml. The recommended dose is 500-700 mcg/kg/hour, or 300 mcg/kg/hour for elderly patients. It is important to monitor plasma theophylline concentrations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to the GP complaining of wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years but has reduced his smoking recently.
The GP orders spirometry, which confirms a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The results also show an elevated functional residual capacity.
What is the method used to calculate this metric?Your Answer: Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Explanation:Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Correct
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Control of ventilation. Which statement is false?
Your Answer: Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in O2
Explanation:The central chemoreceptors increase ventilation in response to an increase in H+ in the brain interstitial fluid.
The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body
The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.
Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.
Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A father brings his 9-year-old daughter to your general practice, as he is worried about her hearing. He notices that he has to repeat himself when talking to her, and thinks she is often 'in her own little world'. During the examination, the Rinne test is positive on the left and negative on the right. What conclusions can be drawn from this?
Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss on the left.
Correct Answer: Can not tell if both sides are affected.
Explanation:The Rinne and Weber tests are used to diagnose hearing loss. The Rinne test involves comparing air and bone conduction, with a positive result indicating a healthy or sensorineural loss and a negative result indicating a conductive loss. The Weber test involves placing a tuning fork on the forehead and determining if the sound is symmetrical or louder on one side, with a conductive loss resulting in louder sound on the affected side and a sensorineural loss resulting in louder sound on the non-affected side. When used together, these tests can provide more information about the type and affected side of hearing loss.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Correct
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An 85-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of worsening breathlessness in the past 6 months. She has been smoking 10 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years. The doctor suspects that she may have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is one of the mechanisms by which smoking damages the lungs and leads to emphysema?
Your Answer: Inactivation of alpha-1 antitrypsin
Explanation:The function of alpha-1 antitrypsin is to inhibit elastase. However, smoke has a negative impact on this protein in the lungs, resulting in increased activity of elastases and the breakdown of elastic tissue, which leads to emphysema.
Contrary to popular belief, smoke actually activates polymorphonuclear leucocytes, which contributes to the development of emphysema.
Mucous gland hyperplasia, basal cell metaplasia, and basement membrane thickening are all examples of how smoke affects the lungs to cause chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.
COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause is smoking, which can lead to inflammation and damage in the lungs over time. Another potential cause is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can result in lung damage. Additionally, exposure to certain substances such as cadmium (used in smelting), coal, cotton, cement, and grain can also contribute to the development of COPD. It is important to identify and address these underlying causes in order to effectively manage and treat COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the ansa cervicalis?
Your Answer: Mylohyoid
Explanation:The muscles of the ansa cervicalis are: GenioHyoid, ThyroidHyoid, Superior Omohyoid, SternoThyroid, SternoHyoid, and Inferior Omohyoid. The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the mylohyoid branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. A mnemonic to remember these muscles is GHost THought SOmeone Stupid Shot Irene.
The ansa cervicalis is a nerve that provides innervation to the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid muscles. It is composed of two roots: the superior root, which branches off from C1 and is located anterolateral to the carotid sheath, and the inferior root, which is derived from the C2 and C3 roots and passes posterolateral to the internal jugular vein. The inferior root enters the inferior aspect of the strap muscles, which are located in the neck, and should be divided in their upper half when exposing a large goitre. The ansa cervicalis is situated in front of the carotid sheath and is an important nerve for the proper functioning of the neck muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient complains of sore throat, malaise, and fatigue for the past 5 days. During the examination, a significant peritonsillar abscess is observed. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Streptococcal organisms are the most frequent cause of bacterial tonsillitis, which can lead to quinsy.
Understanding Acute Tonsillitis
Acute tonsillitis is a condition that is characterized by pharyngitis, fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy. It is caused by bacterial infections in over half of all cases, with Streptococcus pyogenes being the most common organism. The tonsils become swollen and may have yellow or white pustules. It is important to note that infectious mononucleosis may mimic the symptoms of acute tonsillitis.
Treatment for bacterial tonsillitis involves the use of penicillin-type antibiotics. Failure to treat bacterial tonsillitis may result in the formation of a local abscess known as quinsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Correct
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Mrs. Johnson is an 82-year-old woman who visited her General practitioner complaining of gradual worsening shortness of breath over the past two months. During the medical history, it was discovered that she has had Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) for 20 years.
Upon examination, there are no breath sounds at both lung bases and a stony dull note to percussion over the same areas. Based on this clinical scenario, what is the probable cause of her recent exacerbation of shortness of breath?Your Answer: Pleural transudate effusion secondary to cor pulmonale
Explanation:The most likely cause of a pleural transudate is heart failure. This is due to the congestion of blood into the systemic venous circulation, which can result from long-standing COPD and increase in pulmonary vascular resistance leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. Other options such as infective exacerbation of COPD or pulmonary edema secondary to heart failure are less likely to explain the clinical signs. Pleural exudate effusion secondary to cor pulmonale is also not the most appropriate answer as it would cause a transudate pleural effusion, not an exudate.
Understanding the Causes and Features of Pleural Effusion
Pleural effusion is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the area between the lungs and the chest wall. The causes of pleural effusion can be classified into two types: transudate and exudate. Transudate is characterized by a protein concentration of less than 30g/L and is commonly caused by heart failure, hypoalbuminemia, liver disease, and other conditions. On the other hand, exudate is characterized by a protein concentration of more than 30g/L and is commonly caused by infections, pneumonia, tuberculosis, and other conditions.
The symptoms of pleural effusion may include dyspnea, non-productive cough, and chest pain. Upon examination, patients may exhibit dullness to percussion, reduced breath sounds, and reduced chest expansion. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pleural effusion to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following would cause a rise in the carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO)?
Your Answer: Emphysema
Correct Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage
Explanation:When alveolar haemorrhage takes place, the TLCO typically rises as a result of the increased absorption of carbon monoxide by haemoglobin within the alveoli.
Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing
The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.
KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a recent episode of coughing up blood in the morning. He has also experienced significant weight loss of over 12 lbs and loss of appetite. Upon physical examination, conjunctival pallor is noted. The patient has a 30 pack year history of smoking. A chest x-ray reveals a mediastinal mass and ipsilateral elevation of the right diaphragm. What structure is being compressed by the mediastinal mass to explain these findings?
Your Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:Lung cancer can cause the hemidiaphragm on the same side to rise due to pressure on the phrenic nerve. Haemoptysis is a common symptom of lung cancer, along with significant weight loss and a history of smoking. A chest x-ray can confirm the presence of a mediastinal mass, which is likely to be lung cancer.
A rapidly expanding lung mass can cause compression of surrounding structures, leading to complications. For example, an apical tumor can compress the brachial plexus, causing sensory symptoms in the arms or Erb’s or Klumpke’s palsies. Compression of the cervical sympathetic chain can cause Horner’s syndrome, which includes meiosis, anhidrosis, ptosis, and enophthalmos.
A mediastinal mass can also compress the recurrent laryngeal nerve as it winds around the aortic arch, resulting in hoarseness of voice or aphonia. Superior vena caval syndrome is a medical emergency that can cause swelling of the face, neck, upper chest, and arms, as well as the development of collaterals on the chest wall. Malignancy is the most common cause, but non-malignant causes can include an aortic aneurysm, fibrosing mediastinitis, or iatrogenic factors.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer arrives at the acute medical unit with sudden shortness of breath. A chest x-ray shows a malignant pleural effusion encasing the right lung. The medical registrar intends to perform a pleural tap to drain the effusion and send a sample to the lab. The registrar takes into account the effusion's position around the lung. What is the minimum level of the effusion in the mid-axillary line?
Your Answer: 9th rib
Correct Answer: 10th rib
Explanation:The parietal pleura can be found at the 10th rib in the mid-axillary line, while the visceral pleura is closely attached to the lung tissue and can be considered as one. The location of the parietal pleura is more inferior than that of the visceral pleura, with the former being at the 8th rib in the midclavicular line and the 10th rib in the midaxillary line. The location of the parietal pleura in the scapular line is not specified.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a typical feature of central chemoreceptors in the regulation of respiration?
Your Answer: During acute hypercapnia the carotid receptors will be stimulated first
Correct Answer: They are stimulated primarily by venous hypercapnia
Explanation:Arterial carbon dioxide stimulates them, but it takes longer to reach equilibrium compared to the carotid peripheral chemoreceptors. They are not as responsive to acidity because of the blood-brain barrier.
The Control of Ventilation in the Human Body
The control of ventilation in the human body is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration. The respiratory centres, chemoreceptors, lung receptors, and muscles all play a role in this process. The automatic, involuntary control of respiration occurs from the medulla, which is responsible for controlling the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
The respiratory centres consist of the medullary respiratory centre, apneustic centre, and pneumotaxic centre. The medullary respiratory centre has two groups of neurons, the ventral group, which controls forced voluntary expiration, and the dorsal group, which controls inspiration. The apneustic centre, located in the lower pons, stimulates inspiration and activates and prolongs inhalation. The pneumotaxic centre, located in the upper pons, inhibits inspiration at a certain point and fine-tunes the respiratory rate.
Ventilatory variables, such as the levels of pCO2, are the most important factors in ventilation control, while levels of O2 are less important. Peripheral chemoreceptors, located in the bifurcation of carotid arteries and arch of the aorta, respond to changes in reduced pO2, increased H+, and increased pCO2 in arterial blood. Central chemoreceptors, located in the medulla, respond to increased H+ in brain interstitial fluid to increase ventilation. It is important to note that the central receptors are not influenced by O2 levels.
Lung receptors also play a role in the control of ventilation. Stretch receptors respond to lung stretching, causing a reduced respiratory rate, while irritant receptors respond to smoke, causing bronchospasm. J (juxtacapillary) receptors are also involved in the control of ventilation. Overall, the control of ventilation is a complex process that involves various components working together to regulate the respiratory rate and depth of respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father, who is worried about his son's hearing. The father has noticed that his son frequently asks him to repeat himself and tends to turn up the volume on the TV. During Weber's test, the patient indicates that the sound is louder on the right side. What conclusion can be drawn from this finding?
Your Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss of right ear.
Correct Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.
Explanation:The Weber test alone cannot determine which side of the patient’s hearing is affected. The test involves placing a tuning fork on the forehead and asking the patient to report if the sound is symmetrical or louder on one side. If the sound is louder on the left side, it could indicate a conductive hearing loss on the left or a sensorineural hearing loss on the right. To obtain more information, the Weber test should be performed in conjunction with the Rinne test, which involves comparing air conduction and bone conduction.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 24-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a decreased level of consciousness. Upon examination, the patient exhibits Kussmaul respiration and an acetone-like breath odor.
What type of metabolic disturbance is most consistent with the symptoms and presentation of this patient?Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis, oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right
Explanation:The correct answer is that metabolic acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This is seen in the condition described in the question, diabetic ketoacidosis, which is associated with metabolic acidosis. Acidosis causes more oxygen to be unloaded from haemoglobin, leading to a rightward shift in the curve. The other answer options are incorrect, as they either describe a different type of acidosis or an incorrect direction of the curve shift.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a feeling of food stuck in his throat. He experienced this sensation 2 hours ago after consuming fish at a nearby seafood restaurant. The patient reports no breathing difficulties. Upon laryngoscopy, a fish bone is found lodged in the left piriform recess. While removing the fish bone, a nerve located deep to the mucosa covering the recess is damaged.
Which function is most likely to be affected in this individual?Your Answer: Pharyngeal reflex
Correct Answer: Cough reflex
Explanation:Foreign objects lodged in the piriform recess can cause damage to the internal laryngeal nerve, which is located just beneath a thin layer of mucosa covering the recess. This nerve plays a crucial role in the cough reflex, as it carries sensory information from the area above the vocal cords. Attempts to remove foreign objects from the piriform recess can also lead to nerve damage.
Other functions, such as mastication, the pharyngeal reflex, salivation, and taste sensation, are mediated by different nerves and are not directly related to the piriform recess or the internal laryngeal nerve.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 26-year-old man has been referred to ENT by his doctor as he has swallowed a small chicken bone that feels stuck in his throat. During laryngoscopy, a chicken bone is observed lodged in the piriform recess. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be affected by the chicken bone?
Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:When foreign objects get stuck in the piriform recess, particularly sharp items like bones from fish or chicken, they can harm the internal laryngeal nerve that lies beneath the mucous membrane in that area. Retrieving these objects also poses a risk of damaging the internal laryngeal nerve. However, the other nerves are not likely to be impacted.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. What is the number of pack years equivalent to his smoking history?
Your Answer: 15
Explanation:Pack Year Calculation
Pack year calculation is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day by the number of years of smoking. One pack of cigarettes contains 20 cigarettes. For instance, if a person smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15).
The pack year calculation is a standardized method of measuring tobacco exposure. It helps healthcare professionals to estimate the risk of developing smoking-related diseases such as lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart disease. The higher the pack year history, the greater the risk of developing these diseases. Therefore, it is important for individuals who smoke or have a history of smoking to discuss their pack year history with their healthcare provider to determine appropriate screening and prevention measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been going on for three months and recent episodes of haemoptysis. He stopped smoking five years ago and has had two bouts of pneumonia in his left lower lobe in the last year. On examination, he is apyrexial and there are no notable findings.
What would be your first step in investigating this patient?Your Answer: Chest x ray
Explanation:Diagnosis of Bronchial Carcinoma
The patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of bronchial carcinoma. The most appropriate initial investigation to confirm this diagnosis is a chest x-ray. Other tests such as blood cultures may not be useful for an apyrexial patient. However, additional investigations may be considered after the chest x-ray. It is important to prioritize the chest x-ray as the first line investigation to detect any abnormalities in the lungs. Proper diagnosis is crucial for timely treatment and management of bronchial carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with thyroid cancer is hospitalized for dyspnea. What is the most appropriate test to evaluate potential compression of the upper respiratory tract?
Your Answer: Transfer factor
Correct Answer: Flow volume loop
Explanation:Understanding Flow Volume Loops
A flow volume loop is a graphical representation of the amount of air that a person can inhale and exhale over time. It is often described as a triangle on top of a semi-circle. This loop is useful in assessing the compression of the upper airway, which can be caused by various conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and sleep apnea.
To interpret a flow volume loop, the vertical axis represents the flow rate, while the horizontal axis represents the volume of air. The loop starts at the bottom left corner, where the person begins to inhale. As the person inhales, the flow rate increases, creating the upward slope of the triangle. At the top of the triangle, the person reaches their maximum inhalation volume.
The person then begins to exhale, creating the downward slope of the triangle. The flow rate decreases as the person exhales, until they reach their maximum exhalation volume, represented by the semi-circle. The loop then returns to the starting point, completing one full cycle.
Overall, flow volume loops are a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring respiratory conditions. By analyzing the shape and size of the loop, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in lung function and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nerves conveys sensory information from the nasal mucosa?
Your Answer: Laryngeal branches of the trigeminal
Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus
Explanation:The larynx receives sensory information from the laryngeal branches of the vagus.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is found on his bathroom floor next to needles and syringes and is brought into the hospital. He has a Glasgow coma score of 10 and a bedside oxygen saturation of 88%. On physical examination, he has pinpoint pupils and needle track marks on his left arm. His arterial blood gases are as follows: PaO2 7.4 kPa (11.3-12.6), PaCO2 9.6 kPa (4.7-6.0), pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44), and HCO3 25 mmol/L (20-28). What do these results indicate?
Your Answer: Chronic type I respiratory failure
Correct Answer: Acute type II respiratory failure
Explanation:Opiate Overdose
Opiate overdose is a common occurrence that can lead to slowed breathing, inadequate oxygen saturation, and CO2 retention. This classic picture of opiate overdose can be reversed with the use of naloxone. The condition is often caused by the use of illicit drugs and can have serious consequences if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with a solitary, painless tumour in her left cheek. Upon further examination, she is diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma. What is the recommended management for this condition?
Your Answer: Surgical resection
Explanation:Surgical resection is the preferred treatment for pleomorphic adenoma, a benign tumor of the parotid gland that may undergo malignant transformation. Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not effective in managing this condition. Additionally, salivary stone removal is not relevant to the treatment of pleomorphic adenoma.
Understanding Pleomorphic Adenoma
Pleomorphic adenoma, also known as a benign mixed tumour, is a non-cancerous growth that commonly affects the parotid gland. This type of tumour usually develops in individuals aged 40 to 60 years old. The condition is characterized by the proliferation of epithelial and myoepithelial cells of the ducts, as well as an increase in stromal components. The tumour is slow-growing, lobular, and not well encapsulated.
The clinical features of pleomorphic adenoma include a gradual onset of painless unilateral swelling of the parotid gland. The swelling is typically movable on examination rather than fixed. The management of pleomorphic adenoma involves surgical excision. The prognosis is generally good, with a recurrence rate of 1-5% with appropriate excision (parotidectomy). However, recurrence may occur due to capsular disruption during surgery. If left untreated, pleomorphic adenoma may undergo malignant transformation, occurring in 2-10% of adenomas observed for long periods. Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma is the most common type of malignant transformation, occurring most frequently as adenocarcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 25
Correct
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Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of muscle weakness and blurred vision. She works as a librarian, drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week, and has smoked about 25 cigarettes a day for 35 years.
During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be elevated at 152/98 mmHg. There are reduced breath sounds over the area of the right lower lobe. Some of her blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 120 g/L (Female: 115-160)
- Platelets 420 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC 9.1 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+ 148 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55-120)
- 24-hour urine free cortisol 260 ug/l (10-100)
- Glucose 17.8 mmol/l (4.0-7.0)
She mentions that, aside from a persistent cough due to smoking, which occasionally produces blood, she feels fine.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma
Explanation:A small cell lung carcinoma that secretes ACTH can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, as seen in this patient. The history and examination findings suggest lung cancer, and the raised cortisol level can be explained by the paraneoplastic syndrome caused by ACTH release. Muscle weakness and blurred vision are typical symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome. Squamous cell lung carcinoma and adrenal adenoma are less likely causes, while Cushing’s disease is not applicable in this case.
Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of lethargy, headache, and shortness of breath. Upon examination, he is found to be cyanotic and hypoxic, and is admitted to the respiratory ward for oxygen therapy.
Following some initial tests, the consultant informs the patient that his hemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen, resulting in reduced oxygen delivery to the tissues.
What is the probable reason for this alteration in the oxygen dissociation curve?Your Answer: Low 2,3-DPG
Explanation:The correct answer is low 2,3-DPG. The professor’s description refers to a left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, which indicates that haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen and is less likely to release it to the tissues. Factors that cause a left shift include low temperature, high pH, low PCO2, and low 2,3-DPG. 2,3-DPG is a substance that helps release oxygen from haemoglobin, so low levels of it result in less oxygen being released, causing a left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve.
The answer high temperature is incorrect because it causes a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, promoting oxygen delivery to the tissues. Hypercapnoea also causes a right shift in the curve, promoting oxygen delivery. Hyperglycaemia has no effect on haemoglobin’s ability to release oxygen, so it is also incorrect.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for the past month. She was previously diagnosed with tinnitus by one of your colleagues at the practice 11 months ago. The patient reports that she can hear better when outside but struggles in quiet environments. Upon otoscopy, no abnormalities are found. Otosclerosis is one of the differential diagnoses for this patient, which primarily affects the ossicle that connects to the cochlea. What is the name of the ossicle that attaches to the cochlea at the oval window?
Your Answer: Stapes
Explanation:The stapes bone is the correct answer.
The ossicles are three bones located in the middle ear. They are arranged from lateral to medial and include the malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is the most lateral bone and its handle and lateral process attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible on otoscopy. The head of the malleus articulates with the incus. The stapes bone is the most medial of the ossicles and is also known as the stirrup.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 28
Correct
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You are clerking a 45-year-old patient on the neurosurgery ward who is scheduled to undergo a pituitary tumour removal surgery. During your conversation, the patient inquires about the procedure. As you are aware, the neurosurgeon gains access to the pituitary gland through the patient's nasal cavity, specifically through one of the paranasal sinuses. Can you identify which of the paranasal sinuses is situated on the roof of the posterior nasal cavity, below the pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Sphenoid sinus
Explanation:Paranasal Air Sinuses and Carotid Sinus
The paranasal air sinuses are air-filled spaces found in the bones of the skull. They are named after the bone in which they are located and all communicate with the nasal cavity. The four paired paranasal air sinuses are the frontal sinuses, maxillary sinuses, ethmoid air cells, and sphenoid sinuses. The frontal sinuses are located above each eye on the forehead, while the maxillary sinuses are the largest and found in the maxillary bone below the orbit. The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells located lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity, while the sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity.
On the other hand, the carotid sinus is not a paranasal air sinus. It is a dilatation of the internal carotid artery, located just beyond the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. It contains baroreceptors that enable it to detect changes in arterial pressure.
Overall, understanding the location and function of these sinuses and the carotid sinus is important in various medical procedures and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not found in the anterior mediastinum?
Your Answer: Arch of the azygos vein
Correct Answer: Thoracic duct
Explanation:The posterior and superior mediastinum contain the thoracic duct.
The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.
The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.
In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is playing with some small ball bearings. Regrettably, she inhales one. In which of the following lung regions is the ball expected to settle?
Your Answer: Right lower lobe
Explanation:Due to the angle of the right main bronchus from the trachea, small objects are more likely to get stuck in the most dependent part of the right lung. This makes the right lung the preferred location for most objects to enter.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 31
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She recently returned from a trip to Italy with her family. She has no significant medical history but takes oral contraceptives. On examination, her pulse is 100 bpm, temperature is 37°C, oxygen saturation is 95%, respiratory rate is 28/min, and blood pressure is 116/76 mmHg. Chest examination is unremarkable and chest x-ray is normal. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolism in a Woman with Chest Pain and Dyspnoea
This woman is experiencing chest pain and difficulty breathing, with a rapid heart rate and breathing rate. However, there are no visible signs on chest examination and her chest x-ray appears normal. Despite having no fever, her oxygen levels are lower than expected for a healthy person. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, doctors must consider risk factors such as recent air travel and use of oral contraceptives.
The gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism is a CT pulmonary angiogram, as it can detect even large saddle embolus near the pulmonary arteries. While VQ scanning was previously used, it can miss these larger emboli. Additionally, doctors may perform Doppler ultrasounds of the venous system to check for deep vein thrombosis.
This presentation is not indicative of atypical pneumonia, such as Legionella, as the patient’s temperature would be expected to be high and chest signs would be present. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat a pulmonary embolism in a patient with chest pain and dyspnoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old Caucasian man presents to the ENT clinic with complaints of gradual hearing loss over the past year. He reports having to turn up the volume on his television to the maximum to hear it comfortably. There are no associated symptoms such as tinnitus or dizziness, and the patient has no significant medical history.
Upon examination, a Weber and Rinne test reveal conductive hearing loss in the left ear. Otoscope examination shows no signs of middle ear effusion or tympanic membrane involvement in either ear. A pure tone audiometry confirms conductive hearing loss in the left ear, with a Carhart's notch present.
The physician diagnoses the patient with otosclerosis and discusses treatment options.
What is the underlying pathology of otosclerosis?Your Answer: Dislodgement of otoliths into the semicircular canals
Correct Answer: Replacement of normal bone by vascular spongy bone
Explanation:Otosclerosis is a condition where normal bone is replaced by spongy bone with a high vascularity. This leads to progressive conductive hearing loss, without any other neurological impairments. The replacement of the normal endochondral layer of the bony labyrinth by spongy bone affects the ability of the stapes to act as a piston, resulting in the conduction of sound from the middle ear to the inner ear being affected. Caucasians are most commonly affected by this condition.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is caused by the dislodgement of otoliths into the semicircular canals. This condition results in vertiginous dizziness upon positional changes, but does not affect auditory function.
Meniere’s disease is caused by endolymphatic hydrops, which is the accumulation of fluid in the inner ear. The pathophysiology of this condition is not well understood, but it leads to vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness.
Cholesteatoma is caused by the accumulation of desquamated, stratified squamous epithelium. This leads to the formation of a mass that can gradually enlarge and erode the ossicle chain, resulting in conductive hearing loss.
Presbycusis is a type of sensorineural hearing loss that occurs as a result of aging. The degeneration of the organ of Corti is one of the underlying pathological mechanisms that causes this condition. This leads to the destruction of outer hair cells and a decrease in hearing sensitivity.
Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 33
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with her mother. The mother reports that her daughter has been experiencing worsening breathlessness and facial puffiness for the past 30 minutes. Apart from eczema, the girl has been healthy and is currently taking oral contraceptives. On examination, the girl appears to be in distress, with laboured breathing and stridor but no wheezing. What is the probable cause of her breathlessness?
Your Answer: Angio-oedema
Explanation:Noisy Breathing and Atopy in Adolescents
The presence of noisy breathing in an adolescent may indicate the possibility of stridor, which can be caused by an allergic reaction even in an otherwise healthy individual. The history of atopy, or a tendency to develop allergic reactions, further supports the diagnosis of angio-oedema. The sudden onset of symptoms also adds to the likelihood of this diagnosis.
While asthma is a possible differential diagnosis, it typically presents with expiratory wheezing. However, if the chest is silent, it may indicate a severe and life-threatening form of asthma. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of noisy breathing and atopy in adolescents to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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John, a 55-year-old man, arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward. He also mentions that the pain spreads to his left shoulder. The diagnosis is pericarditis.
Which nerve is accountable for the referred pain in this case?Your Answer: Vagus nerve
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:The phrenic nerve provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensory innervation to the pleura and pericardium. Pericarditis can cause referred pain to the shoulder due to the supraclavicular nerves originating at C3-4. It is important to note that there are no pericardial nerves. The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, while the trochlear nerve supplies the superior oblique muscle. Although the vagus nerve has various functions, it does not supply the pericardium.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 35
Correct
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A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. The patient's spirometry results are forwarded to you in clinic for review.
Tidal volume (TV) = 400 mL.
Vital capacity (VC) = 3,300 mL.
Inspiratory capacity (IC) = 2,600 mL.
FEV1/FVC = 60%
Body plethysmography is undertaken, demonstrating a residual volume (RV) of 1,200 mL.
What is this patient's total lung capacity (TLC)?Your Answer: 4,500 mL
Explanation:To calculate the total lung capacity, one can add the vital capacity and residual volume. For example, if the vital capacity is 3300 mL and the residual volume is 1200 mL, the total lung capacity would be 4500 mL. It is important to note that tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, and the FEV1/FVC ratio are other measurements related to lung function. Residual volume refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation, while total lung capacity refers to the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inhalation.
Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology
In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.
Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.
Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.
Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.
Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath. He has no medical history and takes no regular medications.
Upon examination, coarse crackles and bronchial breathing are heard at the right lung base.
Chest radiography reveals consolidation in the lower right zone.
Arterial blood gas results are as follows:
pH 7.36 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 7.2 kPa (11-13)
pCO2 4.1 kPa (4-6)
SaO2 87% (94-98)
Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected initial physiological response?Your Answer: Reduced tidal volume
Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction of the pulmonary arteries
Explanation:When hypoxia is present, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction, which is the appropriate response. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of pneumonia and type 1 respiratory failure, as evidenced by clinical and radiographic findings. Vasoconstriction of the small pulmonary arteries helps to redirect blood flow from poorly ventilated regions of the lung to those with better ventilation, resulting in improved gas exchange efficiency between the alveoli and blood.
The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries
When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 37
Correct
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A 44-year-old woman is scheduled for a thyroidectomy due to symptomatic tracheal compression. She has a history of hyperthyroidism that was controlled with carbimazole. However, she was deemed a suitable candidate for thyroidectomy after presenting to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor.
As a surgical resident assisting the ENT surgeon, you need to ligate the superior thyroid artery before removing the thyroid glands to prevent excessive bleeding. However, the superior laryngeal artery, a branch of the superior thyroid artery, is closely related to a structure that, if injured, can lead to loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.
What is the correct identification of this structure?Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve and the superior laryngeal artery are closely associated with each other. The superior laryngeal artery travels alongside the internal laryngeal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, beneath the thyrohyoid muscle. It originates from the superior thyroid artery near its separation from the external carotid artery.
If the internal laryngeal nerve is damaged, it can result in a loss of sensation to the laryngeal mucosa. The nerve is situated beneath the mucous membrane of the piriform recess, making it vulnerable to injury from sharp objects like fish and chicken bones that may become stuck in the recess.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 38
Correct
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A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports that he has been experiencing constant dizziness for the past 2 days, which has prevented him from going to work. He also reports hearing difficulties and tinnitus in his right ear, as well as nausea and difficulty with balance. He notes that these symptoms are not related to changes in position. He has no significant medical history, except for a recent bout of flu that resolved on its own.
During the examination, the man is observed to sway to the right while attempting to walk in a straight line. He also has a positive head thrust test to the right side. A complete neurological examination is performed, and aside from mild sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear, his neurological function is normal.
Which structures are most likely involved in this man's condition?Your Answer: Vestibular nerve and labyrinth
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of labyrinthitis, which affects both the vestibular nerve and labyrinth, resulting in vertigo and hearing impairment. In contrast, pure vestibular neuritis only causes vestibular symptoms without affecting hearing. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) involves otolith displacement and is triggered by head position changes, which is not the case for this patient’s constant vertigo. Facial nerve palsy primarily causes facial drooping and does not affect hearing or vestibular function, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.
Understanding Viral Labyrinthitis
Labyrinthitis is a condition that affects the membranous labyrinth, which includes the vestibular and cochlear end organs. It can be caused by a viral or bacterial infection, or it may be associated with systemic diseases. Viral labyrinthitis is the most common form of the condition.
It’s important to distinguish labyrinthitis from vestibular neuritis, which only affects the vestibular nerve and doesn’t cause hearing impairment. Labyrinthitis, on the other hand, affects both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth, resulting in both vertigo and hearing loss.
The condition typically affects people between the ages of 40 and 70 and is characterized by an acute onset of symptoms, including vertigo, nausea and vomiting, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Patients may also experience gait disturbance and fall towards the affected side.
Diagnosis is based on a patient’s history and examination, which may reveal spontaneous unidirectional horizontal nystagmus towards the unaffected side, sensorineural hearing loss, and an abnormal head impulse test.
While episodes of labyrinthitis are usually self-limiting, medications like prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness. Understanding the symptoms and management of viral labyrinthitis can help patients seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 39
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP with complaints of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain that worsens upon leaning forward. Sinusitis is suspected. Which sinus is typically affected in this condition?
Your Answer: Maxillary
Explanation:The maxillary sinus is susceptible to infections due to its drainage from the top. This sinus is the most frequently affected in cases of sinusitis. While frontal sinusitis can lead to intracranial complications, it is still less common than maxillary sinusitis.
The petrosal sinus is not a bone cavity, but rather a venous structure situated beneath the brain.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 40
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear pain that started last night. He has been unable to sleep due to the pain and has not been eating well. His mother reports that he seems different than his usual self. The affected side has muffled sounds, and he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid-level. What is the structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?
Your Answer: Eustachian tube
Explanation:The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is responsible for connecting the middle ear and the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization in the middle ear. It opens on the anterior wall of the middle ear and extends anteriorly, medially, and inferiorly to open into the nasopharynx. The palatovaginal canal connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasopharynx, while the pterygoid canal runs from the anterior boundary of the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa. The semicircular canals are responsible for sensing balance, while the greater palatine canal transmits the greater and lesser palatine nerves, as well as the descending palatine artery and vein. In the case of ear pain, otitis media is a likely cause, which can be confirmed through otoscopy. The pharyngotympanic tube is particularly important in otitis media as it is the only outlet for pus or fluid in the middle ear, provided the tympanic membrane is intact.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 41
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and undergoes a bronchoscopy. The carina is noted to be widened. Where does the trachea bifurcate?
Your Answer: T5
Explanation:The trachea divides into two branches at the fifth thoracic vertebrae, or sometimes the sixth in individuals who are tall.
Anatomy of the Trachea
The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.
In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.
In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 42
Correct
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A 29-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of a persistent cough. He reports coughing up large amounts of yellow sputum and occasionally blood on a daily basis for the past few years. Lately, he has noticed that his clothes seem loose on him and he frequently feels fatigued.
What is the most probable underlying condition responsible for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Kartagener's syndrome
Explanation:Kartagener’s syndrome is a condition that can lead to bronchiectasis due to a defect in the cilia, which impairs the lungs’ ability to clear mucus. Bronchiectasis is diagnosed when a person produces large amounts of sputum daily, experiences haemoptysis, and loses weight. While other conditions may cause tiredness, weight loss, or haemoptysis, they are not typically associated with bronchiectasis.
Understanding Kartagener’s Syndrome
Kartagener’s syndrome, also known as primary ciliary dyskinesia, is a rare genetic disorder that was first described in 1933. It is often associated with dextrocardia, which can be detected through quiet heart sounds and small volume complexes in lateral leads during examinations. The pathogenesis of Kartagener’s syndrome is caused by a dynein arm defect, which results in immotile cilia.
The features of Kartagener’s syndrome include dextrocardia or complete situs inversus, bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis, and subfertility. The latter is due to diminished sperm motility and defective ciliary action in the fallopian tubes. It is important to note that Kartagener’s syndrome is a rare disorder, and diagnosis can be challenging. However, early detection and management can help improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of vertigo, which worsens when he rolls over in bed. The doctor diagnoses him with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.
What treatment options are available to alleviate the symptoms of this condition?Your Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Correct Answer: Epley manoeuvre
Explanation:The Epley manoeuvre is a treatment for BPPV, while the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is used for diagnosis. The Epley manoeuvre aims to move fluid in the inner ear to dislodge otoliths, while the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre involves observing the patient for nystagmus when swiftly lowered from a sitting to supine position. Tinel’s sign is positive in those with carpal tunnel syndrome, where tapping the median nerve over the flexor retinaculum causes paraesthesia. The Trendelenburg test is used to assess venous valve competency in patients with varicose veins.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 44
Correct
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A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of tachypnea and tachycardia. His blood glucose level is 18mmol/l. While breathing 40% oxygen, an arterial blood sample is taken. The results show a PaO2 of 22kPa, pH of 7.35, PaCO2 of 3.5kPa, and HCO3- of 18.6 mmol/l. How should these blood gas results be interpreted?
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis with full respiratory compensation
Explanation:The patient’s blood gas analysis shows a lower oxygen pressure by about 10kPa than the percentage of oxygen. The PaCo2 level is 3.5, indicating respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. The HCO3- level is 18.6, which suggests metabolic acidosis or metabolic compensation for respiratory alkalosis. These results indicate that the patient has metabolic acidosis with complete respiratory compensation. Additionally, the patient’s high blood glucose level suggests that the metabolic acidosis is due to diabetic ketoacidosis.
Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach
Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).
The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.
To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of difficulty hearing her partner at home. She has been experiencing a high-pitched ringing in her left ear for the past 6 months. She attributes this to attending loud concerts frequently and has not sought medical attention until now. She reports that she can hear better when she is outside but struggles in quiet environments. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities seen during otoscopy. One of the possible diagnoses for this patient is otosclerosis, a condition that primarily affects the stapes bone. Which structure does the stapes bone come into contact with in the cochlea?
Your Answer: Helicotrema
Correct Answer: Oval window
Explanation:The oval window is where the stapes connects with the cochlea, and it is the most inner of the ossicles. The stapes has a stirrup-like shape, with a head that articulates with the incus and two limbs that connect it to the base. The base of the stapes is in contact with the oval window, which is one of the only two openings between the middle and inner ear. The organ of Corti, which is responsible for hearing, is located on the basilar membrane within the cochlear duct. The round window is the other opening between the middle and inner ear, and it allows the fluid within the cochlea to move, transmitting sound to the hair cells. The helicotrema is the point where the scala tympani and scala vestibuli meet at the apex of the cochlear labyrinth. The tectorial membrane is a membrane that extends along the entire length of the cochlea. A female in her third decade of life with unilateral conductive hearing loss and a family history of hearing loss is likely to have otosclerosis, a condition that affects the stapes and can cause severe or total hearing loss due to abnormal bone growth and fusion with the cochlea.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a gradual onset of dyspnea on exertion over the past 6 months. She has a medical history of severe COPD and is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy. During the examination, you observe pitting edema up to the mid-thighs, an elevated JVP with a prominent V wave, a precordial heave, and a loud P2. What is the most probable mechanism involved in this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary veins vasoconstriction due to hypoxia
Correct Answer: Pulmonary arteries vasoconstriction due to hypoxia
Explanation:Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction of pulmonary arteries, leading to a diagnosis of right heart failure secondary to hypoxic lung disease, also known as cor pulmonale.
The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries
When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 47
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the COPD clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over the past 3 months. She is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy at home.
During the examination, the patient's face appears plethoric, but there is no evidence of dyspnea at rest.
The patient's FEV1/FVC ratio remains unchanged at 0.4, and her peak flow is 50% of the predicted value. However, her transfer factor is unexpectedly elevated.
What could be the possible cause of this unexpected finding?Your Answer: Polycythaemia
Explanation:The transfer factor is typically low in most conditions that impair alveolar diffusion, except for polycythaemia, asthma, haemorrhage, and left-to-right shunts, which can cause an increased transfer of carbon monoxide. In this case, the patient’s plethoric facies suggest polycythaemia as the cause of their increased transfer factor. It’s important to note that exacerbations of COPD, pneumonia, and pulmonary fibrosis typically result in a low transfer factor, not an increased one.
Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing
The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.
KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to the root of the spine is false?
Your Answer: The lung projects into the neck beyond the first rib and is constrained by Sibson's fascia
Correct Answer: The subclavian artery arches over the first rib anterior to scalenus anterior
Explanation:The suprapleural membrane, also known as Sibson’s fascia, is located above the pleural cavity. The scalenus anterior muscle is positioned in front of the subclavian vein, while the subclavian artery is situated behind it.
Thoracic Outlet: Where the Subclavian Artery and Vein and Brachial Plexus Exit the Thorax
The thoracic outlet is the area where the subclavian artery and vein and the brachial plexus exit the thorax and enter the arm. This passage occurs over the first rib and under the clavicle. The subclavian vein is the most anterior structure and is located immediately in front of scalenus anterior and its attachment to the first rib. Scalenus anterior has two parts, and the subclavian artery leaves the thorax by passing over the first rib and between these two portions of the muscle. At the level of the first rib, the lower cervical nerve roots combine to form the three trunks of the brachial plexus. The lowest trunk is formed by the union of C8 and T1, and this trunk lies directly posterior to the artery and is in contact with the superior surface of the first rib.
Thoracic outlet obstruction can cause neurovascular compromise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man suffers a closed head injury and experiences a decline in consciousness upon arrival at the hospital. To monitor his intracranial pressure, an ICP monitor is inserted. What is the normal range for intracranial pressure?
Your Answer: 25 - 30 mm Hg
Correct Answer: 7 - 15mm Hg
Explanation:The typical range for intracranial pressure is 7 to 15 mm Hg, with the brain able to tolerate increases up to 24 mm Hg before displaying noticeable clinical symptoms.
Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS
The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.
The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.
It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 50
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman, who has had eczema and asthma since childhood, comes for her yearly asthma check-up. She has been using her salbutamol inhaler more frequently over the last 3 months and is concerned that it may be due to getting a new kitten. In allergic asthma, which cell is present in excessive amounts?
Your Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:The patient’s medical background indicates that she may have atopic asthma. It is probable that her symptoms have worsened and she has had to use more salbutamol reliever due to an allergy to her new kitten’s animal dander.
Individuals with allergic asthma have been found to have increased levels of eosinophils in their airways. The severity of asthma is linked to the number of eosinophils present, as they contribute to long-term airway inflammation by causing damage, blockages, and hyperresponsiveness.
The immediate symptoms of asthma after exposure are caused by mast cell degranulation.
Asthma is a common respiratory disorder that affects both children and adults. It is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways, resulting in reversible bronchospasm and airway obstruction. While asthma can develop at any age, it typically presents in childhood and may improve or resolve with age. However, it can also persist into adulthood and cause significant morbidity, with around 1,000 deaths per year in the UK.
Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing asthma, including a personal or family history of atopy, antenatal factors such as maternal smoking or viral infections, low birth weight, not being breastfed, exposure to allergens and air pollution, and the hygiene hypothesis. Patients with asthma may also suffer from other atopic conditions such as eczema and hay fever, and some may be sensitive to aspirin. Occupational asthma is also a concern for those exposed to allergens in the workplace.
Symptoms of asthma include coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness, with coughing often worse at night. Signs may include expiratory wheezing on auscultation and reduced peak expiratory flow rate. Diagnosis is typically made through spirometry, which measures the volume and speed of air during exhalation and inhalation.
Management of asthma typically involves the use of inhalers to deliver drug therapy directly to the airways. Short-acting beta-agonists such as salbutamol are the first-line treatment for relieving symptoms, while inhaled corticosteroids like beclometasone dipropionate and fluticasone propionate are used for daily maintenance therapy. Long-acting beta-agonists like salmeterol and leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast may also be used in combination with other medications. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a newer approach that combines ICS and a fast-acting LABA in a single inhaler for both daily maintenance and symptom relief. Recent guidelines recommend offering a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA for patients on SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled, and considering MART for those with poorly controlled asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Session Time
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Average Question Time (
Mins)