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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 58 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower backache refractory to medicine. He is a known case of metastatic prostate carcinoma, with spinal involvement. However, up until recently, he has had no problems with pain control. He takes 1g qds paracetamol daily. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer for radiotherapy
Correct Answer: Add non steroidal anti inflammatory drug
Explanation:Acetaminophen, NSAIDs, and opiates are recommended in the basic approach to cancer pain associated with bone metastases. They should provide patients with adequate analgesia when used appropriately. NSAIDs including COX2 inhibitors are especially useful for patients with bone pain. Acetaminophen is an effective analgesic but is a weak anti-inflammatory agent. Ketorolac tromethamine is a potent NSAID capable of relieving moderate to severe acute bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 2
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?
Your Answer: Scurvy
Explanation:Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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When a patient that is less than 21 years of age develops a bone tumour. What is the most common benign bone tumour that would be considered in individuals below 21 years?
Your Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst
Correct Answer: Osteochondroma
Explanation:Osteochondroma is a benign new bone growth that protrudes from the outer contour of bones and is capped by growing cartilage. Nearly 80% of these lesions are noted before the age of 21 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The gluteus medius muscle:
Your Answer: Extends the thigh at the hip joint
Correct Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve
Explanation:The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?
Your Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion
Explanation:The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following enzymes?
Your Answer: Pepsin
Explanation:Pepsin is a protease that is released from the gastric chief cells and acts to degrade proteins into peptides. Released as pepsinogen, it is activated by hydrochloric acid and into pepsin itself. Gastrin and the vagus nerve trigger the release of pepsinogen and HCl when a meal is ingested. Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic environment, especially at a pH of 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:
Your Answer: Gracile nucleus
Explanation:The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.
The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A patient who underwent emergency appendicectomy complains of having numbness (paraesthesia) of the skin at the pubic region. Which nerve was most likely injured in the operation?
Your Answer: Spinal nerve T12
Correct Answer: Iliohypogastric
Explanation:The iliohypogastric nerve comes from L1 and emerges from the upper part of the lateral border of the psoas major. It then crosses obliquely in front of the quadratus lumborum to the iliac crest where it perforates the posterior part of transversus abdominis and divides between that muscle and the internal oblique into a lateral and an anterior cutaneous branch. This provides sensory innervation to the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh.
The genitofemoral nerve also comes from the lumbar plexus that innervates the skin of the anterior scrotum or labia majora and upper medial thigh.
The subcostal nerve is the ventral primary ramus of T12 providing sensory innervation to the anterolateral abdominal wall in an area superior to the pubic region.
A spinal nerve owing to their deep location would not have been injured in the procedure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Correct
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All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:
Your Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur ?
Your Answer: Posterior cruciate
Explanation:The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the posterior intercondyloid fossa of the tibia and the lateral and front part of the medial condyle of the femur. It resists sliding of the tibia posteriorly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where?
Your Answer: Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex
Explanation:The adrenal gland comprises an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which represent two developmentally and functionally independent endocrine glands.
The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (70%) and noradrenaline (30%)
The adrenal cortex consists of three layers (remembered by the mnemonic GFR):
G = zona glomerulosa – secretes aldosterone
F = zona fasciculata – secretes cortisol and sex steroids
R = zona reticularis – secretes cortisol and sex steroids.
Aldosterone facilitates the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Conn’s syndrome is characterized by increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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Calculate the stroke volume in a patient admitted for coronary bypass surgery, with the following parameters pre-operatively: Oxygen consumption = 300 ml/min, Arterial oxygen content = 20 ml/100 ml blood, Pulmonary arterial oxygen content = 15 ml/100 ml blood and Heart rate = 100 beats/min.
Your Answer: 60 ml
Explanation:By Fick’s principle, cardiac output can be calculated as follows: VO2 = CO × (CAO2– CVO2) where VO2= oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CAO2 = arterial oxygen content and CvO2 = mixed venous oxygen content. Thus, in the given problem, 300 ml/min = CO × (20 – 15) ml/100 ml CO = 300 × 100/5 ml/min CO = 6000 ml/min. Also, cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate. Thus, 6000 ml/min = stroke volume × 100 beats/min. Hence, stroke volume = 6000/100 ml/min which is 60 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following a road traffic accident. He has sustained a flail chest injury and is hypotensive on arrival at the hospital. Examination shows an elevated jugular venous pressure and auscultation of the heart reveals muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:This patient has presented with a classical picture of cardiac tamponade, suggested by Beck’s triad: hypotension, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and muffled heart sounds.
Cardiac tamponade is a clinical syndrome caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, resulting in reduced ventricular filling and subsequent haemodynamic compromise. This condition is a medical emergency, the complications of which include pulmonary oedema, shock, and death.
Patients with cardiac tamponade have a collection of three medical signs known as Beck’s triad. These are low arterial blood pressure, distended neck veins, and distant, muffled heart sounds. The diagnosis may be further supported by specific ECG changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the heart. If fluid increases slowly, the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 L; however, if the increase is rapid, as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade.
Management options may include pericardiocentesis, surgery to create a pericardial window, or a pericardiectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 14
Correct
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A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is found to be 1cm, rubbery, mobile with no palpable axillary nodes. Mammography reveals no microcalcifications and the opposite breast appears normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibroadenoma
Explanation:A benign breast tumour, fibroadenoma is common below the age of 30 years and occurs due to oestrogenic excess. It is characterised by proliferation of both glandular and stromal elements. Fibroadenomas are usually solitary and are mobile, not fixed to surrounding structures. The tumour is elastic, nodular and encapsulated with a grey-white cut surface. The two main histological types include intracanalicular and pericanalicular types, with both types often present in the same tumour. In the intracanalicular type, the stromal proliferation component predominates causing compression of ducts making them appear slit-like. In pericanalicular type, the fibrous stroma dominates around the ductal spaces so that they remain oval on cross section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 57 year old male is diagnosed with carcinoma of the caecum. A CT scan is performed and it shows a tumour invading the muscularis propria with some regional lymphadenopathy. What is the best initial treatment?
Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Right hemicolectomy
Explanation:Open right hemicolectomy (open right colectomy) is a procedure that involves removing the caecum, the ascending colon, the hepatic flexure (where the ascending colon joins the transverse colon), the first third of the transverse colon, and part of the terminal ileum, along with fat and lymph nodes. It is the standard surgical treatment for malignant neoplasms of the right colon; the effectiveness of other techniques are measured by the effectiveness of this technique.
The caecum is a short, pouch-like region of the large intestine between the ascending colon and vermiform appendix. It is located in the lower right quadrant of the abdominal cavity, inferior and lateral to the ileum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration?
Your Answer: Diaphragm, internal and external intercostals
Correct Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostals
Explanation:The diaphragm and external intercostals are muscles of inspiration as they increase the volume of thoracic cavity and reduce the intrathoracic pressure. Muscles of expiration include abdominal muscles and internal intercostals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow area and damaging the nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. What is the most likely result from that injury?
Your Answer: Extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints of digits 4 and 5
Correct Answer: Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5
Explanation:The nerve injured in this situation is the ulnar nerve. It passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus before going between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. This nerve supplies the muscles and skin of forearm and hand. At the level of medial epicondyle, the injury will led to paralysis in flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus as well as the palmar interossei and hypothenar muscles in the hand. The correct answer will be that the boy will suffer from inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Correct
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A 55-year-old male undergoes a laparotomy for perforated bowel after a colonoscopy. 2 days after surgery the nursing staff report there is pink, serous fluid discharging from the wound. What is the next most appropriate management step?
Your Answer: Examine the wound for separation of the rectus fascia
Explanation:Surgical wound dehiscence (SWD) is the separation of the margins of a closed surgical incision that
has been made in the skin, with or without exposure or protrusion of underlying tissue, organs or implants. Separation may occur at single or multiple regions, or involve the full length of the incision, and may affect some or all tissue layers. A dehisced incision may, or may not, display clinical signs and symptoms of infection.
SWD can occur without warning. Incisions at risk of dehiscence may show signs of inflammation beyond the time and extent expected for normal healing, e.g. more exaggerated incisional redness, swelling, warmth and pain that extend beyond postoperative day 5. Palpation of the incision and surrounding area may reveal the warmth and a collection of fluid under some or all of the incision (a seroma, haematoma or abscess). A sudden increase in pain or discharge of serosanguineous fluid from the incision may herald SWD.Prior to assessment of SWD, the events, if any, leading to the dehiscence, e.g. coughing, vomiting, trauma, suture/clip removal, purulent drainage, should be ascertained. The duration of the dehiscence should also be determined: SWD occurring very soon after surgery and of very recent occurrence may be suitable for re-suturing.
The entire length of an incision with SWD should be fully assessed: the factors that led to the SWD may also be affecting other regions of the incision that remain closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 19
Correct
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The thoracic duct :
Your Answer: varies in length from 38 to 45 cm
Explanation:The thoracic duct is the main drainage of lymph in the body. It varies in length from 38 to 45 cm and extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the root of the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis had been using warfarin for 10 days. When she presented to the doctor she had haemorrhagic bullae and necrotic lesions in her lower limbs and buttocks. Deficiency of which of the following proteins may have caused the necrotic skin lesions?
Your Answer: Protein S
Correct Answer: Protein C
Explanation:Warfarin-induced skin necrosis is a rare complication of anticoagulant therapy that requires immediate drug cessation. The most common cutaneous findings include petechiae that progress to ecchymoses and haemorrhagic bullae. Warfarin inactivates vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and vitamin K-dependent proteins C and S. The concentration of protein C falls more rapidly than other vitamin K-dependent factors because they have a shorter half-lives. Skin necrosis is seen mainly in patients with prior protein C deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a significant laceration to the lateral aspect of the nose, associated with tissue loss. What should be the best management option?
Your Answer: Rotational skin flap
Explanation:Nasal injuries can be challenging to manage and where there is tissue loss, it can be difficult to primarily close them and obtain a satisfactory aesthetic result. Debridement together with a rotational skin flap would produce the best results.
A rotation flap is a semi-circular skin flap that is rotated into the defect on a fulcrum point. It provides the ability to mobilize large areas of tissue with a wide vascular base for reconstruction. Rotation flaps may be pedicled or free. Pedicled flaps are more reliable but are limited in the range of movement. Free flaps have increased range but carry greater risk of breakdown as they require vascular anastomosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?
Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Paracentesis of ascetic fluid in a 45-year old woman revealed the following : clear, yellow fluid with protein 2.0 g/dl and a few mesothelial and mononuclear cells seen. No malignant cells seen. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Correct Answer: Micronodular cirrhosis
Explanation:Cirrhosis is disease of the liver that is characterized by fibrosis leading to disorganization of the hepatic architecture. It shows the development of regenerative nodules surrounded by dense fibrotic tissue. Cirrhosis shows non-specific symptoms initially, which include fatigue, anorexia and weight loss. It can later progress to portal hypertension, ascites and liver failure.
Micronodular cirrhosis is named so, due to the uniformly small nodules (<3 mm in diameter) and thick regular bands of connective tissue. These nodules lack lobular organization with distortion of central hepatic venules and portal triads. Over a period of time, macronodular cirrhosis develops, with bigger nodules (3 mm to 5 cm in diameter) surrounded by broad fibrous bands, and some amount of lobular organization. Mixed cirrhosis combines features of both micronodular and macronodular cirrhosis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 51 year old male who had a kidney transplant a little over a year ago is concerned about deteriorating renal function over the past few weeks. Which of the following would be the most useful investigation?
Your Answer: MAG 3 renogram
Explanation:A renogram, which may also be known as a MAG3 scan, allows a nuclear medicine physician or a radiologist to visualize the kidneys and learn more about how they are functioning.
After injection into the venous system, the compound is excreted by the kidneys and its progress through the renal system can be tracked with a gamma camera. A series of images are taken at regular intervals.If the kidney is not getting blood for example, it will not be viewed at all, even if it looks structurally normal in medical ultrasonography or magnetic resonance imaging. If the kidney is getting blood, but there is an obstruction inferior to the kidney in the bladder or ureters, the radioisotope will not pass beyond the level of the obstruction, whereas if there is a partial obstruction then there is a delayed transit time for the MAG3 to pass. More information can be gathered by calculating time activity curves; with normal kidney perfusion, peak activity should be observed after 3–5 minutes. The relative quantitative information gives the differential function between each kidney’s filtration activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his left middle and ring fingers, which he can't extend fully. What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibromatosis
Explanation:This case is suggestive of Dupuytren’s contracture due to palmar fibromatosis. Its incidence is higher in men over the age of 45 years, and it increases in patients with diabetes, alcoholism, or epilepsy. These nodules are benign, usually appearing as a tender nodule in the palm which becomes painless. The disease has an aggressive clinical behaviour and recurs frequently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 21 year old intravenous drug abuser is recovering following surgical drainage of a psoas abscess. She is found collapsed and unresponsive in the bathroom with pinpoint pupils. Which of the following is the best step in immediate management?
Your Answer: Intravenous naloxone
Explanation:Answer: Intravenous naloxone
Naloxone is a medication approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to prevent overdose by opioids such as heroin, morphine, and oxycodone. It blocks opioid receptor sites, reversing the toxic effects of the overdose. Naloxone is administered when a patient is showing signs of opioid overdose. The medication can be given by intranasal spray, intramuscular (into the muscle), subcutaneous (under the skin), or intravenous injection.
Several conditions and drugs can cause pinpoint pupils, including:
Prescription opioids or narcotics
Some medications have opioids or narcotics in them. Opioids, including morphine, are drugs commonly used for pain relief. Opioids can affect a person psychologically and are highly addictive.People often take prescription opioids in pill form to treat severe post-surgical pain, such as from dental surgery, or for long-term pain, as with some cancers.
Prescription opioids that may cause pinpoint pupils include:
oxycodone
morphine
hydrocodone
codeine
methadone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 27
Correct
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Elevated mean corpuscular volume with hypersegmented neutrophils and low reticulocyte index is seen in on the blood count of a middle-aged lady about to undergo elective surgery. On enquiry, she mentions feeling tired for a few months. Which of the following investigations should be carried out in her to reach a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate
Explanation:Elevated levels of MCV indicates megaloblastic anaemia, which are associated with hypersegmented neutrophils. Likely causes include vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. Megaloblastic anaemia results from defective synthesis of DNA. As RNA production continues, the cells enlarge with a large nucleus. The cytoplasmic maturity becomes greater than nuclear maturity. Megaloblasts are produced initially in the marrow, before blood. Dyspoiesis makes erythropoiesis ineffective, causing direct hyperbilirubinemia and hyperuricemia. As all cell lines are affected, reticulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia develop. Large, oval blood cells (macro-ovalocytes) are released in the circulation, along with presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 34 year old woman presents with severe right sided abdominal pain and pyrexia 2 weeks after undergoing chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Correct Answer: Neutropenic enterocolitis
Explanation:Neutropenic enterocolitis is a life threatening complication occurring most frequently after intensive chemotherapy in acute leukaemia and solid tumours. It is an acute life-threatening condition classically characterized by transmural inflammation of the cecum, often with involvement of the ascending colon and ileum, in patients who are severely myelosuppressed. Neutropenic enterocolitis has an incidence of 5% in patients typically undergoing chemotherapy for haematological malignancies. Mortality can be >50% in the presence of perforation and sepsis so patients must be identified quickly and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Correct Answer: Pons
Explanation:Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.
Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?
Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance
Explanation:The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
