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Question 1
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after attempting suicide with an overdose of medication. Upon questioning, she says that she has recently broken up with her boyfriend and that he does not let her use cocaine and marijuana. This is the second time that they have broken up, and she tells you that she fights constantly with him. Hospital records show that she has been admitted to hospital many times and that she has had many previous suicide attempts. She admits to drinking heavily at weekends and to having had unprotected sex with multiple partners over the last year.
Which one of the following personality disorders best describes this patient?Your Answer: Borderline
Explanation:Personality Disorders: Types and Characteristics
Personality disorders are a group of mental health conditions that affect the way individuals think, feel, and behave. There are several types of personality disorders, each with its own set of characteristics.
Borderline Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, intense mood swings, and unpredictable behavior. Individuals with this disorder may struggle with maintaining stable relationships and may have difficulty regulating their emotions.
Avoidant Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially inhibited and may avoid social situations due to a fear of rejection. They may also struggle with feelings of inadequacy and low self-esteem.
Dependent Personality Disorder: Individuals with this disorder may have an excessive need for nurture and may struggle with making decisions on their own. They may also have low self-confidence and be overly submissive in relationships.
Schizoid Personality Disorder: People with this disorder tend to be socially isolated and may have limited emotional expression. They may prefer to be alone and may struggle with forming close relationships.
Schizotypal Personality Disorder: This disorder is characterized by odd thought patterns and interpersonal awkwardness. Individuals with this disorder may also have an unusual appearance or behavior.
Overall, personality disorders can significantly impact an individual’s daily life and relationships. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know may be struggling with a personality disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his lithium dosage and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (4 hours ago). In how many hours should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?
Your Answer: 12 hours
Correct Answer: 8 hours
Explanation:Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his GP in a state of distress. He recently returned from a vacation and forgot to renew his prescriptions, resulting in him not taking his medications for the past week. The patient is currently experiencing general discomfort, nausea, and excessive diarrhea. Upon conducting a thorough examination and reviewing his medical history, the GP suspects that his symptoms are due to the discontinuation of one of his medications. The patient has a medical history of depression, gout, hypothyroidism, and type two diabetes mellitus. He also occasionally uses zopiclone to treat his insomnia. Which medication withdrawal is likely causing the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Zopiclone
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause gastrointestinal side-effects such as diarrhoea, with paroxetine having a particularly high risk of such symptoms. Withdrawal of SSRIs should be done gradually over several weeks to reduce the incidence of discontinuation symptoms. Colchicine, a gout medication, is associated with gastrointestinal side effects but does not cause significant symptoms upon withdrawal. Levothyroxine withdrawal does not cause any particular symptoms, but stopping long-term use can lead to hypothyroidism symptoms such as constipation. Metformin withdrawal does not cause acute symptoms, but stopping long-term use can worsen diabetic control, and diarrhoea is a side effect of metformin treatment.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 38-year-old teacher has called for the pest controller for the third time in the past month. She is worried that her house is infested with rats and she frequently checks under the beds and around the property for any signs of the infestation. She mentions that she saw a therapist in her early twenties for obsessive hand washing and underwent a brief period of cognitive behavioural therapy.
Upon physical examination, there are no abnormalities found. However, upon further questioning, she admits to feeling compelled to check for rats and is constantly anxious about cleanliness.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
Explanation:Differentiating OCD from other mental health conditions
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by repetitive cycles of ritualistic behavior. It is important to differentiate OCD from other mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression. Cognitive behavioral therapy and exposure response prevention are the mainstays of therapy for OCD, along with medication. Features consistent with schizophrenia, anxiety, bipolar disease, and depression are absent in OCD. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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An older woman was discovered collapsed in a stairwell of a parking lot. A card from an outpatient psychiatry department was discovered in her coat pocket, along with a bottle of procyclidine tablets. She was running a fever (38.2°C), conscious but not responding to instructions. Her blood pressure was 160/105 mmHg, and she had significant muscle rigidity. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome and Procyclidine Overdose
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious condition that can occur as a side effect of taking neuroleptic medications. Its symptoms include fever, muscular rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. These symptoms are typical of NMS and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly.
Procyclidine is a medication used to treat the parkinsonian side-effects of neuroleptics. If found in a patient’s pocket, it implies that they were taking neuroleptics. Signs of procyclidine overdose include agitation, confusion, sleeplessness lasting up to 24 hours or more, and dilated and unreactive pupils. Visual and auditory hallucinations and tachycardia have also been reported.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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As a healthcare professional, you are asked to evaluate a patient in their early 30s who is experiencing chest pain and is awaiting assessment by the psychiatry team. Upon examination and investigations, no abnormalities are found. However, you observe that the patient is exhibiting unusual behavior, avoiding eye contact and being hesitant to answer questions. After building a rapport with the patient, they reveal that they have never been in a romantic relationship and prefer to be alone to avoid embarrassment. They have no friends and do not communicate with their family due to constant criticism. What type of personality disorder is the patient likely experiencing?
Your Answer: Avoidant
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder exhibit a strong fear of criticism, rejection, ridicule, and being disliked. This fear often leads to social isolation and avoidance of activities that may result in embarrassment or negative judgment from others. It is important to note that this disorder is distinct from other personality disorders such as antisocial, borderline, and histrionic, which have their own unique symptoms and characteristics.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of paracetamol due to a recent breakup with her partner. She expresses remorse for her actions, denies any suicidal thoughts, and requests to be discharged. Her parents and a friend arrive at the hospital soon after. Paracetamol levels at 4 hours are below the treatment limit.
What should be the next course of action in managing her case?Your Answer: Arrange review by mental health liaison team prior to discharge
Explanation:Importance of Mental Health Liaison Team Review Prior to Discharge for Paracetamol Overdose Patients
Paracetamol overdose is a common presentation of self-harm in emergency departments. While medical management is crucial, patients may also require mental health support. A hospital-based mental health liaison team can provide advice on discharge and arrange follow-up if necessary. Discharging a patient without follow-up increases the risk of further self-harm. However, temporary compulsory detention under the Mental Health Act is not appropriate for low-risk patients. Prescribing N-acetyl-L-cysteine is unnecessary if the paracetamol levels are below treatment threshold. Emergency admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit is only necessary for high-risk patients. Therefore, mental health liaison team review prior to discharge is crucial for appropriate management of paracetamol overdose patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with her father. He suspects that his daughter may have autism as she spends most of her time in her room playing video games. He mentions that she is emotionally distant and unresponsive when he tries to talk to her about his concerns. She has no close friends and has never been in a romantic relationship. However, she has recently been promoted at work. When asked for her thoughts on the matter, she seems disinterested and just wants to leave. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:The patient in question appears to have schizoid personality disorder, as he displays a lack of interest in social interaction, emotional detachment, and indifference to both positive and negative feedback. This diagnosis is more likely than others such as antisocial personality disorder, autism spectrum disorder, or avoidant personality disorder, as the patient does not exhibit the specific characteristics associated with these disorders.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician with a complaint of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed towards the right. Her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Torticollis
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of acute dystonia, which is characterized by sustained muscle contractions such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are likely a result of starting a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is present with unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation. While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, the patient’s lack of altered mental state and normal observations make it unlikely. An oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis, is another example of acute dystonia, but the patient does not exhibit any facial signs or symptoms. Tardive dyskinesia, on the other hand, is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterized by uncontrolled facial movements such as lip-smacking.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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A 70-year-old homeless man is admitted to the hospital for osteomyelitis resulting from a diabetic foot ulcer. During his stay, it becomes evident that he is experiencing significant memory impairment. Despite being asked about the events of the day, he tells a believable story that is entirely different from what actually occurred. There is no indication that he is intentionally deceiving the medical staff. He is also unaware of his memory impairment and denies having any issues with his memory. According to his family, this memory impairment has been present for the past 5-6 months. He has a history of excessive alcohol consumption spanning 45 years. What is the most probable cause of his memory deficits?
Your Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome
Explanation:Diagnosis of Korsakoff’s Syndrome
The patient’s symptoms of anterograde amnesia, confabulation, lack of insight, and chronic alcoholism strongly suggest a diagnosis of Korsakoff’s syndrome. Delirium is unlikely as the symptoms have persisted for a prolonged period. Additionally, there are no indications of parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, or fluctuations in conscious state, which are characteristic of dementia with Lewy bodies. The absence of a depressed mood or anhedonia also rules out the possibility of depression. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, is also not a likely diagnosis.
In summary, the combination of symptoms exhibited by the patient is consistent with Korsakoff’s syndrome, a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency often associated with chronic alcoholism. This diagnosis highlights the importance of addressing alcoholism and ensuring proper nutrition to prevent the development of this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of feeling extremely anxious, avoiding going out, and experiencing disturbed sleep. Her symptoms have resulted in the breakdown of her relationship. She reports that her symptoms began to worsen after she was sexually assaulted 2 years ago. She experiences flashbacks of the assault when she is in a confined space with someone, even if there is no physical contact. The GP decides to refer her for cognitive behavioural therapy and the patient also expresses interest in trying medication. Which of the following medications would be recommended for the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Medications for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Symptoms of PTSD include flashbacks, nightmares, avoidance, and hyperarousal. If drug treatment is necessary, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or venlafaxine are recommended. Tricyclic antidepressants and benzodiazepines are not recommended due to their potential risks and lack of efficacy in treating PTSD. Antipsychotics may be considered in patients who do not respond to other treatments. It is important to regularly review and adjust medication treatment for PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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In clozapine-treated patients, what is the treatment for hypersalivation?
Your Answer: Hyoscine
Explanation:Treatment for Clozapine-Induced Hypersalivation: Hyoscine and Other Options
Hypersalivation, or excessive saliva production, is a common side effect of clozapine treatment. While it usually subsides over time, it can be distressing for patients and may even pose a risk of aspiration pneumonia. Limited trial data exists on treatments for clozapine-induced hypersalivation, but hyoscine, a type of anticholinergic medication, is commonly used. Other options include pirenzepine and benzhexol. It’s important to note that procyclidine is typically used for acute dystonia, not hypersalivation, and medications like propranolol, risperidone, and lorazepam are not indicated for this side effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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A young man arrives at the emergency department after taking a paracetamol overdose following a recent break-up. He has since entered into a new relationship, but is struggling with frequent outbursts of anger. The patient has a history of childhood abuse and struggles with maintaining healthy relationships. He reports experiencing frequent mood swings between low and elevated states. The overdose was not premeditated and the patient has a history of similar incidents. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young woman who overdosed on paracetamol after breaking up with her boyfriend is now in a new relationship, but it is troubled by her frequent outbursts of anger. These symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from borderline personality disorder, which is characterized by intense and rapidly changing emotions, difficulties with relationships, feelings of emptiness, fear of abandonment, impulsive behavior, and self-harm. Bipolar affective disorder, dependent personality disorder, and histrionic personality disorder are not likely diagnoses based on the information provided.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department in a distressed state. He says he hears voices telling him that he is worthless and that the people talking to him know what he is doing as they are listening to his thoughts via the television and radio. His friends who attend with him tell you that he has become withdrawn over the past few months and has been missing lectures. There is a history of cannabis use but nil else of note. When he talks to you, he appears to have constructed a number of new words to describe the machines used to listen to him.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 294 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Bilirubin 16 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Psychosis
Acute psychosis can have various underlying causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is essential for appropriate management. Here is a brief overview of some of the possibilities for a patient who presents with auditory hallucinations, neologisms, and odd behavior.
Schizophrenia: This is a primary psychotic disorder characterized by Schneider’s first-rank symptoms, which include auditory hallucinations, thought insertion/withdrawal/interruption, thought broadcasting, and delusions of control. Treatment typically involves antipsychotic medications.
Delirium tremens: This is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can cause confusion, agitation, tremors, seizures, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs in people with a history of heavy alcohol use and requires urgent medical attention.
Manic-depressive psychosis (bipolar disorder): This is a mood disorder that can involve episodes of elevated or irritable mood (mania or hypomania) and episodes of depressed mood. Psychotic symptoms may occur during manic or mixed episodes, but not necessarily during depressive episodes.
Amphetamine abuse: Stimulant drugs like amphetamines can induce psychosis, which may resemble schizophrenia or other psychotic disorders. A history of drug use and toxicology screening can help identify this possibility.
Subdural hematoma: This is a type of brain injury that can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, drowsiness, and focal neurological deficits. It is less likely in the absence of a history of head trauma or abnormal findings on neurological examination, but imaging studies may be needed to rule it out.
In summary, the differential diagnosis for acute psychosis includes various psychiatric and medical conditions that require different approaches to treatment and management. A comprehensive evaluation should consider the patient’s history, symptoms, physical and neurological examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She reveals that she was involved in a car accident a few months ago, which left her with minor injuries. However, she has been experiencing flashbacks of the incident and feels anxious when crossing roads, often avoiding them altogether. She also mentions being easily startled by car noises and horns. The woman feels fatigued and irritable, and her sleep is affected. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:To receive a diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must be evident for a minimum of four weeks. This indicates a history of experiencing classic signs and symptoms following a traumatic event. PTSD symptoms can be categorized into hyperarousal, re-experiencing phenomenon, avoidance of reminders, and emotional numbing. These symptoms occur after a traumatic life event, such as a near-death experience. If symptoms persist for less than four weeks, it would be considered an acute stress reaction. However, if symptoms continue beyond four weeks, the patient may be diagnosed with PTSD. It is important to note that the time frame refers to the duration of symptoms, not the time since the traumatic event.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female comes to your clinic with concerns that her husband is cheating on her. They have been married for 10 years and have always been faithful to each other. She is a stay-at-home mom and her husband works long hours. You wonder about the likelihood of her claims being true.
What is the medical term for this type of delusional jealousy?Your Answer: Factitious disorder
Correct Answer: Othello syndrome
Explanation:Othello syndrome is a condition characterized by delusional jealousy, where individuals believe that their partner is being unfaithful. This belief can stem from a variety of underlying conditions, including affective states, schizophrenia, or personality disorders. Patients with Othello syndrome may become fixated on finding evidence of their partner’s infidelity, even when none exists. In extreme cases, this can lead to violent behavior.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?Your Answer: Clanging
Explanation:Language Disturbances in Mental Illness
Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.
These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has been experiencing a racing heart for the past year. She also feels sweaty and sometimes has difficulty breathing. Despite seeing a cardiologist, no abnormalities were found in her heart. The patient admits to worrying about various things, which has affected her relationships with her loved ones. She also suffers from insomnia 3-4 nights a week. The patient has no significant medical history, but her cousin has a history of depression. On examination, the patient's heart rate is 89 bpm, and her palms are sweaty. Blood tests show no abnormalities, including normal thyroid function and calcium levels. Which neuroendocrine axis is involved in the patient's condition?
Your Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA)
Explanation:The Role of Hypothalamic-Pituitary Axes in Health and Disease
The hypothalamic-pituitary axes play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body. Among these axes, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is particularly important in the pathophysiology of anxiety disorders. Overactivation of the HPA axis leads to the release of catecholamines, resulting in the fight or flight response. Environmental factors and genetics may contribute to the development of anxiety disorders, but the final common pathway is the dysregulation of the HPA axis.
The hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis is involved in thyroid disorders, such as hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. However, normal thyroid function rules out this axis as a cause of the patient’s symptoms.
The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is responsible for the release of sex hormones, such as oestrogen and testosterone. Disorders affecting the HPG axis can impact puberty and sexual development.
The hypothalamic-pituitary-prolactin (HPP) axis regulates the release of prolactin, which acts on the mammary glands. Medications can cause dysregulation of the HPP axis, resulting in hyperprolactinaemia or hypoprolactinaemia.
Finally, the hypothalamic-pituitary-somatotropic (HPS) axis is involved in the release of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1. Dysregulation of the HPS axis can lead to growth hormone deficiency and Laron syndrome.
Understanding the role of these hypothalamic-pituitary axes is crucial in diagnosing and treating various health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with symptoms of low mood. He discloses that he has been struggling with motivation, insomnia, and loss of interest in social activities since losing his job two years ago. He denies any suicidal ideation or intent. On the PHQ 9, he scores 9, indicating mild-moderate depression. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) or low-intensity psychological therapy
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment Options for Patients with Low Mood: A Guide for General Practitioners
When a patient presents with low mood, it is important for general practitioners (GPs) to consider the most appropriate treatment options. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, self-help and talking to people should be tried before offering low-intensity psychological therapy or cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT). However, if symptoms have been present for two years, intervention is required and psychological therapies should be trialled first before considering antidepressant medication. Diazepam should be avoided due to the high risk of dependency. While self-help advice and a follow-up appointment in two weeks’ time are offered, it is important to note that psychological therapies are the best option for patients with long-standing symptoms. Urgent referral to the Crisis Team is not necessary if the patient denies suicidal or self-harm thoughts, but they should be provided with the team’s contact information in case of emergency. By following these guidelines, GPs can provide appropriate treatment options for patients with low mood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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