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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. She had a right mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging brain (MRI) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are normal.
      What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s ataxia?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, cerebellum metastasis, malignant meningitis, and multiple sclerosis are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare complication of a carcinoma, mediated by antibodies that attack similar proteins on Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, usually associated with chronic alcoholism, and has the classic triad of symptoms of mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellum metastasis and malignant meningitis are more likely if there are positive radiological and cytological findings, respectively. Multiple sclerosis is also in the differential diagnosis, but typically shows MRI lesions and CSF abnormalities. A comprehensive evaluation, including a detailed history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      61.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two...

    Correct

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal tympanic membrane

      Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular...

    Correct

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks third in terms of prevalence worldwide. The most common cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the leading cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.

      HCC often presents late and may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, it may manifest as decompensation in patients with chronic liver disease. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) are also common. High-risk groups such as patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol should undergo screening with ultrasound (+/- AFP).

      Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. Proper management and early detection are crucial in improving the prognosis of HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 8-month-old girl presents to her General Practitioner with her mother with a...

    Correct

    • A 8-month-old girl presents to her General Practitioner with her mother with a runny nose, mild fever and a barking cough. Symptoms have been present for 24 hours. An inspiratory stridor can be heard when the child is crying, but not when she is calm. On examination, there is mild intercostal recession, but air entry is normal.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Medications for Croup: Understanding Their Uses and Limitations

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children, characterized by a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. While it is usually caused by a viral infection, treatment with medications can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used medications for croup and their uses:

      Dexamethasone: This steroid medication is recommended for all children with mild to moderate croup. It helps reduce inflammation in the airways and can improve symptoms within hours.

      Amoxicillin: While croup is usually caused by a virus, bacterial infections can sometimes complicate the illness. Amoxicillin is an antibiotic that can be used to treat bacterial infections in children with croup.

      Cetirizine: This antihistamine medication is not recommended for children with croup, as it is used to relieve allergy symptoms and has no effect on the underlying cause of croup.

      Salbutamol: This medication is used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions, but is not typically used for croup.

      Simple linctus: This cough syrup contains citric acid and is sometimes used as a demulcent to soothe the throat. However, its effectiveness in reducing cough frequency is limited.

      It is important to note that medications should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional, and that treatment for croup may vary depending on the severity of the illness and the individual needs of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report?

      Your Answer: Should be examined within six hours

      Correct Answer: 15% abnormal forms is within normal limits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Semen Analysis Results

      Semen analysis is a crucial test that helps determine male fertility. According to the World Health Organisation guidelines, a sperm sample showing 15% or more sperm of normal morphology is considered normal. It is recommended to abstain from masturbation and/or intercourse for at least two days before the test.

      Low volume is a common issue, often caused by missing the container. Motility below 40% is a cause for concern, and the pH should be between 7 and 8.5. The specimen should be examined within an hour, and a count below 20 million would be of some concern, while below 10 million would be clinically significant.

      When conducting semen analysis, the results should be compared with the WHO reference values. The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, pH should be 7.2 or more, sperm concentration should be 15 million spermatozoa per ml or more, and the total sperm number should be 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more. The total motility should be 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility, vitality should be 58% or more, and live spermatozoa sperm morphology should be 4% or more.

      In conclusion, understanding semen analysis results is crucial in determining male fertility. It is important to follow the WHO guidelines and compare the results with the reference values to identify any potential issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is undergoing a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme. He presents to a routine follow-up with his General Practitioner and states that he feels he needs a slower withdrawal regimen as he had to have a drink the night before. He is on day six of the programme and is also asking for a larger supply of medication as he lives five miles from the pharmacy and cannot drive.
      Which of the following is most in line with the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommendations on how such a programme should be carried out?

      Your Answer: A symptom-triggered variable dosage regimen is preferred

      Correct Answer: No more than two days’ worth of medication to be dispensed at any one time

      Explanation:

      Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community: Recommendations and Guidelines

      To minimize the risk of overdose or supplying the drug to someone other than the intended patient, it is recommended that no more than two days’ worth of medication be dispensed at any one time. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence provides the following recommendations for assisted alcohol withdrawal in the community:

      – Use a benzodiazepine (chlordiazepoxide or diazepam) as the drug of choice.
      – Use fixed-dose medication regimens.
      – Monitor the patient every other day.
      – If possible, have a family member or carer oversee the use of medication.
      – Adjust the dose if there are signs of severe withdrawal or oversedation.
      – Gradually reduce the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days to zero.
      – Do not offer clomethiazole due to a risk of overdose or it being misused.

      A symptom-triggered variable dosage regimen is preferred over a fixed-dose regimen, where doses are titrated in response to a points-based system. Detoxification should continue during incomplete abstinence, but if a patient relapses and starts drinking again during detoxification, the medication should be stopped. The standard regimen involves reducing the dose of benzodiazepine over 7-10 days, to reach zero at the end of the course. Patients on a community withdrawal program should be monitored every other day, with slow dose reduction until a low maintenance level is reached.

      Guidelines for Safe and Effective Assisted Alcohol Withdrawal in the Community

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      79.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the ophthalmology clinic. Both intra-ocular pressures are within...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the ophthalmology clinic. Both intra-ocular pressures are within normal limits. There are open anterior chamber angles, normal visual fields, and healthy optic discs in both eyes. What is the most suitable term/diagnosis to summarize these results?

      Your Answer: Normal findings

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glaucoma and Ocular Hypertension

      The intra-ocular pressures are normal and the additional findings are all in keeping with a normal examination. Normal pressure glaucoma (NTG) is a form of open-angle glaucoma characterized by glaucomatous optic neuropathy in patients with consistently lower IOP measurements. On the other hand, ocular hypertension is defined as consistently or recurrently elevated IOP greater than 21 mmHg with open anterior chamber angles, normal visual fields, and healthy optic discs.

      If there is a visual field defect, open-angle glaucoma should be suspected. Ophthalmoscopy may reveal cupping of the optic discs. It is important to diagnose and treat these conditions early to prevent vision loss. The American Academy of Ophthalmology and NICE CKS provide guidelines for the diagnosis and treatment of normal-tension glaucoma and glaucoma and ocular hypertension. Regular eye exams and monitoring of IOP are crucial in maintaining good eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia is seeking advice before her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia is seeking advice before her upcoming trip from London to New York. Her most recent haemoglobin level was 9.8 g/dl. What is the minimum haemoglobin level recommended by the Civil Aviation Authority for her to be able to fly?

      Your Answer: 9 g/dl

      Correct Answer: 8 g/dl

      Explanation:

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old nanny, Sarah, cares for 5 different children during the week. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old nanny, Sarah, cares for 5 different children during the week. What is a concerning sign to look out for in one of her charges?

      Your Answer: Aman aged 4 months is not reaching for objects yet

      Correct Answer: Sarah aged 10 months preferentially uses her right hand to pick up toys

      Explanation:

      Red flags in child development serve as warning signs that can indicate a possible developmental delay. The following table outlines some common red flags to look out for:

      Age Red Flags
      Birth-3 months Consistent clenching of fists before 3 months of age, rolling over before 3 months
      4-6 months Lack of smiling by 10 weeks, failure to reach for objects by 5 months
      6-12 months Persistence of primitive reflexes after 6 months
      12-24 months Demonstrating hand dominance before 12 months may be a red flag for hemiparesis, inability to walk independently by 18 months, and difficulty using a spoon, which typically develops between 12-15 months.

      Common Developmental Problems and Their Causes

      Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, and speech and language problems. Referral points may include a lack of smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and inability to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may be indicated by abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could be a sign of cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, but other causes may include environmental deprivation and general developmental delay. It is important to identify and address these developmental problems early on to ensure the best possible outcomes for the child’s future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
      What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 78-year-old woman presents with lumbar back pain that is causing sleep disturbance...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman presents with lumbar back pain that is causing sleep disturbance despite pain relief. On examination, there is perianal numbness and a relaxed anal sphincter. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediate hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Cauda Equina Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency

      Cauda equina syndrome is a medical emergency that requires urgent admission and surgical intervention. It is characterized by non-mechanical back pain and symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression. The most common cause is herniation of a lumbar disc, but it can also be caused by tumours, trauma, or spinal abscess.

      The symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include saddle paraesthesia or anaesthesia, perineal or perianal sensory loss, recent onset of faecal incontinence, recent onset of bladder dysfunction, unexpected laxity of the anal sphincter, and severe or progressive neurological deficit in the lower limbs.

      Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent permanent neurological damage. Urgent surgical spinal decompression is usually indicated to relieve the pressure on the spinal cord and nerves. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of cauda equina syndrome, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The standard immunisation schedule in infancy would prevent which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The standard immunisation schedule in infancy would prevent which of the following?

      Your Answer: Chickenpox

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Immunisation Policies for Common Diseases

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues, potentially leading to upper respiratory tract obstruction. The most common cause is Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib), but immunisation against Hib has significantly reduced its incidence in countries where it is included in routine vaccination schedules.

      Cervical carcinoma, caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), can be prevented through immunisation, which is offered to 12-year-old girls.

      A vaccine for Chickenpox is available and recommended for healthcare workers who may come into contact with the disease if they are not immune.

      Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for travellers, patients with chronic liver disease, haemophilia patients who receive plasma-derived clotting factors, intravenous drug users, men who have sex with men, contacts of hepatitis A cases, and those with occupational risk.

      Tuberculosis (TB) immunisation policies are based on risk. BCG is not part of the standard schedule, but it is offered to infants living in areas with a significant annual incidence of TB or born into families with a history of TB. It is also offered to infants and children with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a significant annual incidence of TB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread muscle and joint aches and retro-orbital headache.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      influenza: Causes, Symptoms, and Impact

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a viral infection that affects up to 15% of the population each year. The virus undergoes minor mutations, known as antigenic drift, which causes seasonal epidemics. In some cases, major changes in antigens can produce a new virus subtype, known as antigenic shift, which can result in a major epidemic due to little population immunity.

      Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. While most cases are mild, the virus can be highly infectious with a ratio of infections to clinical cases between 3:1 and 9:1. In an average year, there are 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week.

      influenza can have a significant impact on mortality rates, with more than 20,000 deaths worldwide each year. During epidemics, this number can be much higher. Typically, seasonal influenza has a greater effect on mortality rates in the elderly, while swine flu tends to affect children and young adults.

      While influenza is the most likely cause of flu-like symptoms, other conditions should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or if there are underlying health conditions that may increase the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals space. It radiates into the left arm and shoulder.
      Select from the list the single associated symptom that this woman is most likely to have.

      Your Answer: Angina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, leading to restricted blood flow from the heart. One of the most common symptoms of aortic stenosis is a murmur heard in the aortic area. This is often due to calcification of the valve. However, symptoms usually only appear when the stenosis becomes severe.

      Patients with aortic stenosis may experience dyspnea on exertion, which is difficulty breathing during physical activity. More concerning symptoms include angina, syncope, or symptoms of heart failure. Angina is caused by left ventricular hypertrophy, while syncope is thought to be due to a failure to increase cardiac output during times of peripheral vasodilation and subsequent hypotension. It’s important to note that drugs that cause peripheral vasodilation, such as nitrates or ACE inhibitors, can increase the risk of syncope.

      Dysphagia is a rare complication of left atrial hypertrophy due to mitral valve disease. Palpitations and transient ischemic attacks are not symptoms that are typically associated with aortic stenosis. The most common source of emboli with transient ischemic attacks is the carotids. Vertigo is not caused by aortic stenosis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms of aortic stenosis is crucial for early detection and treatment. If you experience any concerning symptoms, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      83.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old teacher is seeking medication for his recurrent headaches. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher is seeking medication for his recurrent headaches. He has been experiencing severe unilateral headaches for the past two years, with attacks occurring daily for a couple of weeks before subsiding for a month or two and then returning again. During one attack, his wife noticed unequal eyes, but they returned to normal the next day. He also experiences a runny nose during attacks and describes the pain as unbearable.

      Upon examination, his blood pressure is normal, and there is no tenderness in his face or temples. His pupils are equal and responsive to light and accommodation, and his fundi and visual fields are normal. Neurological examination of his upper limbs is also normal. He has previously been given paracetamol and codeine 500/30 mg tablets and tramadol tablets by other colleagues, but they have not helped with the intense pain and have made him feel sick.

      Given the most likely diagnosis, which medication would you prescribe to manage this condition?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine tablets

      Correct Answer: Verapamil tablets

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that can cause severe pain and discomfort. Patients often describe a typical pattern of symptoms, including ipsilateral lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, and a partial Horner’s syndrome. While there may be no clinical signs during a routine visit to the GP, evidence of autonomic symptoms and signs may be present during an acute attack.

      Treatment options for cluster headaches include analgesics and anti-epileptics, but these are often of little or no value. Subcutaneous sumatriptan is the preferred treatment for an acute attack, with the nasal spray being a second, less effective option for patients who cannot tolerate the subcutaneous route. Oral triptans are ineffective.

      Verapamil is the treatment of choice for both episodic and chronic cluster headache, although it is unlicensed. Prednisolone may be an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate verapamil. It is important to note that most patients with cluster headache are referred to a specialist for confirmation of diagnosis and exclusion of other causes. While a normal CT scan is reassuring, it doesn’t completely exclude all anatomical lesions, and a specialist may opt to do further imaging.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      94.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain has been persistent for the last four weeks and is most severe approximately 4-5cm distal to the lateral aspect of the elbow joint. The pain is exacerbated by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about changes in his behaviour.

      Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Auditory hallucinations, First person with clouding of consciousness

      Correct Answer: Feelings of panic in buses and shops

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Schizophrenia, Anxiety Disorder, and Mania

      Incongruity of affect is a symptom of schizophrenia where the emotion expressed is inappropriate to the circumstances. Although it is not considered a primary symptom, it is consistent with the diagnosis. Auditory hallucinations, particularly third person, are typical of schizophrenia, but clouding of consciousness is not. On the other hand, panic in crowds is indicative of an anxiety disorder, while grandiose ideations suggest mania. It is important to note that these symptoms may overlap and coexist in some cases, making it crucial to seek professional help for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man presents with complaints of symmetrical polyarthritis, which first appeared in his toes. He reports stiffness in his back, particularly in the morning. He states that these symptoms have been intermittent for several months and that he was previously treated with naproxen for the toe pain. He is not taking any regular medications except for moisturizers for his psoriasis. On examination, he has nail pitting but no rash.
      What is the most probable diagnosis from the following options?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis: Symptoms and Presentation

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that is often preceded by a rash and/or nail changes. However, in some cases, the arthritis can present without any obvious rash. The arthritis typically affects the wrists, hands, feet, and ankles in a symmetrical pattern. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis involves the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints rather than the metacarpophalangeal joints. Enthesopathy, or inflammation at tendon or ligament insertions into bone, is also common in psoriatic arthritis, particularly at the attachment of the Achilles tendon and the plantar fascia to the calcaneus.

      Patients who are HLA-B27 positive may also experience conjunctivitis, uveitis, and sacroiliitis. The presentation of psoriatic arthritis may be asymmetrical and oligoarticular, and dactylitis, or inflammation of a digit causing sausage digits, occurs in up to 35% of patients. Diagnosis is suggested by asymmetrical joint involvement, dactylitis, the absence of rheumatoid factor, and DIP involvement in the absence of osteoarthritis.

      Psoriatic arthritis can also occur in juvenile patients and may be confused with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Severe derangement of the joints, particularly the DIP joints, can occur in some cases, which is known as arthritis mutilans. It is important to distinguish psoriatic arthritis from other types of arthritis in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with worsening dyspnea. His ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. Which of the following medications is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Congestive Heart Failure

      Congestive heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper treatment to improve survival rates and alleviate symptoms. One of the recommended treatments is the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Enalapril, which have been shown to reduce left ventricular afterload and prolong survival rates. This is particularly important for patients with diabetes mellitus. Antiplatelets like aspirin are only indicated for those with concurrent atherosclerotic arterial disease. Standard drugs like digoxin have not been proven to improve survival rates compared to ACE inhibitors. Diuretics like furosemide provide relief from symptoms of fluid overload but do not improve survival rates. Antiarrhythmic agents like lidocaine are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of congestive heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and widespread body aches. He reports experiencing stiffness and difficulty reaching items above eye level, particularly in the morning. His ESR is elevated at 72.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Elevated ESR and its association with inflammatory diseases and malignancy

      ESR, or erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a blood test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in inflammatory disease processes such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and polymyalgia rheumatica, which are associated with other raised inflammatory markers like fibrinogen. It is also seen in malignancy, particularly myeloma.

      Apart from these conditions, ESR tends to increase with age, with the normal ESR being roughly half of the age. Females also tend to have higher ESR levels.

      When a patient presents with vague bony aches, a markedly elevated ESR may suggest myeloma or polymyalgia rheumatica. Polymyalgia rheumatica predominantly affects the shoulder girdle, while systemic lupus erythematosus has a higher incidence in women. Rheumatoid arthritis, on the other hand, usually presents with swollen joints in the hands and feet and morning stiffness.

      In summary, elevated ESR levels can be indicative of various inflammatory diseases and malignancy, and should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 420 ms. He takes oral quetiapine regularly. He was started on a course of clarithromycin for a recently suspected tonsillitis and has now recovered. He reported no new symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Discuss with the on-call psychiatry team for advice

      Explanation:

      Normal QTc Interval in Patient Taking Quetiapine and Clarithromycin

      The normal values for QTc are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking medications such as quetiapine and clarithromycin, which are known to increase the QTc interval. In this scenario, an ECG was performed and the QTc interval was found to be normal. Therefore, no intervention is necessary at this time. It is important to continue monitoring the patient's QTc interval throughout their treatment with these medications. Proper monitoring can help prevent potentially life-threatening arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has tried several emollients, including one with menthol. He is jaundiced and has declined a biliary stent. What is the next most suitable medication to try for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pregabalin

      Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine

      Explanation:

      Management of Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients with Advanced Pancreatic Cancer

      When treating a patient with advanced pancreatic cancer who has declined stenting for relief of cholestasis, the focus should be on palliative symptom management. The underlying cause of widespread pruritus should be treated if possible, but in this case, emollients have been tried and a sedating antihistamine such as hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine is the next appropriate medication. While pregabalin and gabapentin may be considered, they should only be used after discussion with a specialist/dermatologist. Topical calamine lotion is not recommended by NICE for pruritus treatment. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of 54 ml/min. What is the most probable factor that accounts for this lower-than-expected outcome?

      Your Answer: Large muscle mass secondary to body building

      Explanation:

      Individuals with extreme muscle mass, such as body builders, may frequently receive an inaccurate eGFR result, which may indicate a lower than expected value.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A father brings his twelve-year-old daughter to see you in your GP practice...

    Correct

    • A father brings his twelve-year-old daughter to see you in your GP practice as she has been struggling with sports at school. She has been complaining of steadily worsening pain, which is vaguely located above her right knee, for the past two weeks. Her father says that this has been particularly upsetting for her as she has been trying to lose weight. She is systemically well otherwise. Examination of the right knee joint is normal as is neurological examination of the lower limbs.

      What is the most crucial diagnosis to rule out?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis can be difficult to diagnose as it can present insidiously and sometimes only with referred knee pain. Therefore, a high level of suspicion is necessary to avoid potential legal issues. It is crucial to rule out this condition with a hip x-ray. On the other hand, Osgood-Schlatter disease usually causes lower knee pain and tenderness over the tibial apophysis, while chondromalacia patellae typically results in anterior knee pain and can be treated conservatively with physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that is typically seen in children between the ages of 10 and 15 years. It is more common in obese children and boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or more commonly with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The features of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain, as well as loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In 20% of cases, a bilateral slip may occur. To diagnose this condition, AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are used.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis involves internal fixation, typically with a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that can cause significant pain and discomfort in children. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and ensure a good outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65 year-old man visits your clinic following a blood test that revealed...

    Correct

    • A 65 year-old man visits your clinic following a blood test that revealed an elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) level. He inquires if this indicates the presence of cancer. Can you provide an estimate of the proportion of men with an elevated PSA who have prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: 1-Mar

      Explanation:

      The PSA blood test is used to screen for prostate cancer, but it lacks specificity as only one-third of patients with elevated levels are actually diagnosed with the disease. Therefore, it is crucial to inform patients about this before they undergo the test.

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient...

    Correct

    • You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient attends for follow-up. He has a diagnosis of COPD (FEV1/FVC= 0.68, FEV1=46% predicted) and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. He has noted progressive ankle swelling over last year but has not suffered any exacerbations in this time. He currently takes a tiotropium inhaler as well as a combination inhaler of salmeterol/fluticasone with a salbutamol inhaler when required, his inhaler technique has been assessed as good. In the clinic, his arterial blood gas results on air give a pO2 of 7.3kPa and 7.8kPa respectively from today and from clinic two months ago. He continues to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation therapy.

      The patient would like to be considered for home oxygen therapy. According to current NICE guidelines, what advice should you give him?

      Your Answer: Home oxygen is contraindicated as she is a current smoker

      Explanation:

      What are the indications for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD patients?

      In COPD patients, LTOT is typically indicated when their PaO2 is less than 7.3kPa when stable. However, this threshold is increased to less than 8kPa if they have secondary polycythemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral edema. Arterial oxygen concentration should be assessed when stable and with at least two readings taken at least three weeks apart. To achieve the greatest effect, supplementary oxygen should be used for more than 20 hours per day, but a minimum of 15 hours per day is required.

      Maintenance oral corticosteroid use is not routinely recommended and should only be considered when it is not possible to fully wean steroids between exacerbations.

      As per the 2018 NICE update to the COPD guidelines, LTOT is no longer recommended for current smokers.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      46.6
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
      Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained

      Explanation:

      Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet

      Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.

      The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.

      To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.

      Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - For which drugs is it advised to prescribe the brand name instead of...

    Incorrect

    • For which drugs is it advised to prescribe the brand name instead of the generic name, as a general exception to the rule?

      Your Answer: Priadel (lithium)

      Correct Answer: Risperdal (risperidone)

      Explanation:

      When to Prescribe Brand Name Drugs

      Prescribing drugs generically can save time for patients and allow pharmacists to find the cheapest supplier. However, there are certain cases where it is advisable to prescribe according to brand name. This is particularly important for drugs with a narrow therapeutic index, such as lithium and ciclosporin. Additionally, modified release preparations, like theophylline/aminophylline and diltiazem/nifedipine, have different bioavailability depending on the formulation, making it important to prescribe by brand name. Anticonvulsants, oral contraceptives, HRT preparations, and combination medications are also best prescribed by brand name. By doing so, healthcare providers can ensure the safety and efficacy of the medication for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using condoms.

      Which of the following topical agents would you recommend as safe to use with latex condoms?

      Your Answer: KY jelly

      Correct Answer: Dalacin cream

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Proper Condom Use

      The use of condoms is crucial in reducing the risk of venereal infections, especially in controlling the spread of HIV. However, occasional failures may occur due to defective sheaths, not wearing them in the earlier phases of coitus, or slipping from the penis after ejaculation. It is also important to note that spermicides should not be used with latex condoms as they do not offer additional contraceptive efficacy. Moreover, certain topical, vaginal, and rectal preparations can destroy the integrity of latex condoms, rendering them ineffective. For instance, baby oil can destroy 90% of a latex condom’s strength within 15 minutes. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of the potential interaction between latex condoms and certain topical preparations, such as dalacin and clotrimazole. Professor John Guillebaud’s book Contraception: Your Questions Answered provides a more exhaustive list of preparations that should be avoided and are regarded as unsafe to use with latex condoms. Proper condom use is crucial in protecting oneself and one’s partner from sexually transmitted infections and unwanted pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      17.1
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (1/3) 33%
Kidney And Urology (3/4) 75%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (4/4) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (3/3) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed