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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl complains of pain in her right iliac fossa and is diagnosed with acute appendicitis. You bring her to the operating room for a laparoscopic appendectomy. While performing the procedure, you are distracted by the scrub nurse and accidentally tear the appendicular artery, causing significant bleeding. Which vessel is likely to be the primary source of the hemorrhage?
Your Answer: Internal iliac artery
Correct Answer: Ileo-colic artery
Explanation:The ileocolic artery gives rise to the appendicular artery.
Appendix Anatomy and Location
The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.
McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions
McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to the colorectal clinic with complaints of pruritus ani. During the examination, a polypoidal mass is discovered below the dentate line. A biopsy confirms the presence of squamous cell carcinoma. Which lymph node groups are at risk of metastasis from this lesion?
Your Answer: Mesorectal
Correct Answer: Inguinal
Explanation:If there are any injuries or abnormalities located beyond the dentate line, they will be drained towards the inguinal nodes. In some cases, this may require a block dissection of the groin.
Anatomy of the Rectum
The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.
In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.
The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are participating in a ward round in the elective general surgical ward and come across a patient who recently underwent a Whipple's procedure for a known adenocarcinoma. The consultant discusses the case with you and mentions that the patient, who is in their 50s, presented with painless jaundice, weight loss, and steatorrhea.
Based on these symptoms, which genetic mutation is most likely to be present?Your Answer: BRCA1
Correct Answer: KRAS
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male is diagnosed with carcinoid syndrome. What hormone is secreted by carcinoids?
Your Answer: Nor adrenaline
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:The rule of thirds for carcinoids is that one-third of cases involve multiple tumors, one-third affect the small bowel, and one-third result in metastasis or the development of a second tumor. It is important to note that carcinoids secrete serotonin, and carcinoid syndrome only occurs when there are liver metastases present, as the liver typically metabolizes the hormone released from primary lesions.
Carcinoid tumours are a type of cancer that can cause a condition called carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome typically occurs when the cancer has spread to the liver and releases serotonin into the bloodstream. In some cases, it can also occur with lung carcinoid tumours, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver. The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, but it can also cause diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis (or left heart involvement in bronchial carcinoid). Additionally, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, leading to conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a rare condition caused by a deficiency in niacin, can also develop as the tumour diverts dietary tryptophan to serotonin.
To investigate carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or a plasma chromogranin A test. Treatment for the condition typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide, which can help manage symptoms like diarrhoea. Cyproheptadine may also be used to alleviate diarrhoea. Overall, early detection and treatment of carcinoid tumours can help prevent the development of carcinoid syndrome and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman is scheduled for a left hemicolectomy to treat splenic flexure carcinoma. The surgical team plans to perform a high ligation of the inferior mesenteric vein. Typically, what does this structure drain into?
Your Answer: Portal vein
Correct Answer: Splenic vein
Explanation:Colonic surgery carries the risk of ureteric injury, which should be taken into consideration.
Ileus can be caused during surgery when the inferior mesenteric vein joins the splenic vein near the duodenum, which is a known complication.
Anatomy of the Left Colon
The left colon is a part of the large intestine that passes inferiorly and becomes extraperitoneal in its posterior aspect. It is closely related to the ureter and gonadal vessels, which may be affected by disease processes. At a certain level, the left colon becomes the sigmoid colon, which is wholly intraperitoneal once again. The sigmoid colon is highly mobile and may even be found on the right side of the abdomen. As it passes towards the midline, the taenia blend marks the transition between the sigmoid colon and upper rectum.
The blood supply of the left colon comes from the inferior mesenteric artery. However, the marginal artery, which comes from the right colon, also contributes significantly. This contribution becomes clinically significant when the inferior mesenteric artery is divided surgically, such as during an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Understanding the anatomy of the left colon is important for diagnosing and treating diseases that affect this part of the large intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the hepatology clinic after his general practitioner detected abnormal liver function on routine blood tests. He has been experiencing intermittent pain in the right upper quadrant for the past 3 months. He denies any history of intravenous drug use or recent travel. He has a medical history of depression and takes citalopram daily.
During the examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in the right upper quadrant. There is no visible jaundice, but he has dark rings around his iris.
What investigation finding is associated with the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Reduced A1AT concentration
Correct Answer: Raised free serum copper
Explanation:Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the liver, which can present as acute hepatitis with symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and jaundice. Unlike other conditions such as Wilson’s disease, neuropsychiatric and eye signs are not typically observed in autoimmune hepatitis.
Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive disorder that results in the accumulation and deposition of iron. A raised transferrin saturation is a sign of this condition, which can cause hepatitis, liver cirrhosis, fatigue, arthralgia, and bronze-colored skin pigmentation. If psychiatric symptoms are present, Wilson’s disease may be more likely.
α1-antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that occurs when the liver does not produce enough of the protease enzyme A1AT. This condition is primarily associated with emphysema, although liver cirrhosis may also occur. However, if there are no respiratory symptoms, α1-antitrypsin deficiency is unlikely to be the cause.
Understanding Wilson’s Disease
Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes excessive copper accumulation in the tissues due to metabolic abnormalities. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13. Symptoms usually appear between the ages of 10 to 25 years, with children presenting with liver disease and young adults with neurological disease.
The disease is characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues, particularly in the brain, liver, and cornea. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioural problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails.
To diagnose Wilson’s disease, doctors may perform a slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings, measure serum ceruloplasmin and total serum copper (which is often reduced), and check for increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion. Genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene can confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for Wilson’s disease typically involves chelating agents such as penicillamine or trientine hydrochloride, which help to remove excess copper from the body. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation. With proper management, individuals with Wilson’s disease can lead normal lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 57-year-old man is having a pancreatectomy for cancer. While removing the gland, which structure will the surgeon not come across behind the pancreas?
Your Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:At the superior part of the pancreas, the gastroduodenal artery splits into the pancreaticoduodenal and gastro-epiploic arteries.
Anatomy of the Pancreas
The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.
The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is assessed by his GP at his assisted living facility. The nursing staff reports that he has been experiencing frequent loose stools for the past few days and appears to be holding his stomach in pain. There are no signs of dehydration.
The patient has a medical history of advanced vascular dementia and has had multiple bacterial chest infections recently. He is allergic to penicillin.
The GP requests a stool sample, conducts blood tests, and prescribes oral vancomycin for the patient.
What are the expected findings on stool microscopy?Your Answer: Gram-positive rods
Correct Answer: Gram-positive bacilli
Explanation:The causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis following recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use is Clostridium difficile, a gram-positive bacillus. This woman’s clinical presentation is consistent with C. diff infection, as she has experienced multiple episodes of loose stool with abdominal pain and has risk factors such as residing in a care home and recent antibiotic use for chest infections. While gram-negative comma-shaped bacteria like Vibrio cholerae can cause cholera, it is not found in the UK and is therefore unlikely to be the cause here. Gram-negative rods like Escherichia coli or Campylobacter jejuni can cause diarrhoeal illnesses, but are more associated with bloody diarrhoea and food poisoning, which do not match this woman’s symptoms. Gram-positive rods like Bacillus cereus can cause vomiting or diarrhoeal illness from contaminated food, but antibiotics are not beneficial and vancomycin would not be needed. Given the woman’s risk factors and symptoms, C. diff is the most likely cause.
Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a daycase, but the surgery proves to be more challenging than expected. As a result, the surgeon inserts a drain to the liver bed. During recovery, 1.5 litres of blood is observed to enter the drain. What is the initial substance to be released in this scenario?
Your Answer: Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Renin
Explanation:Renin secretion is triggered by the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney sensing a decrease in blood pressure.
Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What is the probable origin of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Explanation:Portal Hypertension and its Manifestations
Portal hypertension is a condition that often leads to splenomegaly and upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The primary cause of bleeding is oesophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the oesophagus. In addition to these symptoms, portal hypertension can also cause ascites, a buildup of fluid in the abdomen, and acute or chronic hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain. Another common manifestation of portal hypertension is splenomegaly with hypersplenism, which occurs when the spleen becomes enlarged and overactive, leading to a decrease in the number of blood cells in circulation. the various symptoms of portal hypertension is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Correct
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The action of which one of the following brush border enzymes leads to the production of glucose and galactose?
Your Answer: Lactase
Explanation:Enzymes play a crucial role in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal system. Amylase, which is present in both saliva and pancreatic secretions, is responsible for breaking down starch into sugar. On the other hand, brush border enzymes such as maltase, sucrase, and lactase are involved in the breakdown of specific disaccharides. Maltase cleaves maltose into glucose and glucose, sucrase cleaves sucrose into fructose and glucose, while lactase cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose. These enzymes work together to ensure that carbohydrates are broken down into their simplest form for absorption into the bloodstream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium-potassium exchange in the salivary ducts?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin
Correct Answer: Aldosterone
Explanation:The regulation of ion exchange in salivary glands is attributed to aldosterone. This hormone targets a pump that facilitates the exchange of sodium and potassium ions. Aldosterone is classified as a mineralocorticoid hormone and is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland.
The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. Upon examination, he exhibits maximum tenderness at McBurney's point. Can you identify the location of McBurney's point?
Your Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine
Explanation:To locate McBurney’s point, one should draw an imaginary line from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side and then find the point that is 2/3rds of the way along this line. The other choices do not provide the correct location for this anatomical landmark.
Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.
The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.
Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing left iliac fossa pain repeatedly over the past few months and has noticed bubbles in his urine. A CT scan reveals a large inflammatory mass in the left iliac fossa, with no other abnormalities detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ulcerative colitis
12%
Crohn's disease
11%
Mesenteric ischemia
11%
Diverticular disease
53%
Rectal cancer
13%
Explanation:
Recurrent diverticulitis can lead to the formation of local abscesses that may erode into the bladder, resulting in urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn's disease, and rectal cancer would typically be located more distally, with evidence of extra colonic disease present if the cancer were advanced.Your Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Colovesical fistula is frequently caused by diverticular disease.
Repeated episodes of diverticulitis can lead to the formation of abscesses in the affected area. These abscesses may then erode into the bladder, causing urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn’s disease, and rectal cancer typically occurs in a more distal location. Additionally, if the case were malignant, there would likely be evidence of extra colonic disease and advanced progression.
Understanding Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of the colon’s mucosa through its muscular wall. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.
To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. Acutely unwell surgical patients require a systematic investigation, including plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray to identify perforation. An abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can help identify acute inflammation and local complications.
Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses require drainage, either surgically or radiologically. Recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis requiring hospitalisation may indicate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, require a resection and usually a stoma. This group has a high risk of postoperative complications and typically requires HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed by laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank pain that comes and goes. The doctor suspects a kidney stone and refers him for a CT scan. However, before the scan, the stone ruptures through the organ wall and urine starts to leak. Which of the following organs is most likely to come into contact with the leaked urine?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The ureters are situated behind the peritoneum and any damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in the retroperitoneal space.
Kidney stones are most likely to get stuck in the ureter, specifically at the uretopelvic junction, pelvic brim, or vesicoureteric junction. Since the entire ureter is located behind the peritoneum, any rupture could cause urine to leak into the retroperitoneal space. This space is connected to other organs behind the peritoneum, such as the inferior vena cava.
All the other organs mentioned are located within the peritoneum.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is having his left kidney and ureter removed. During the surgery, the surgeons remove the ureter. What provides the blood supply to the upper part of the ureter?
Your Answer: Internal iliac artery
Correct Answer: Branches of the renal artery
Explanation:The renal artery provides branches that supply the proximal ureter, while other feeding vessels are described in the following.
Anatomy of the Ureter
The ureter is a muscular tube that measures 25-35 cm in length and is lined by transitional epithelium. It is surrounded by a thick muscular coat that becomes three muscular layers as it crosses the bony pelvis. This retroperitoneal structure overlies the transverse processes L2-L5 and lies anterior to the bifurcation of iliac vessels. The blood supply to the ureter is segmental and includes the renal artery, aortic branches, gonadal branches, common iliac, and internal iliac. It is important to note that the ureter lies beneath the uterine artery.
In summary, the ureter is a vital structure in the urinary system that plays a crucial role in transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder. Its unique anatomy and blood supply make it a complex structure that requires careful consideration in any surgical or medical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman comes in with a femoral hernia. What structure makes up the lateral boundary of the femoral canal?
Your Answer: Femoral nerve
Correct Answer: Femoral vein
Explanation:The purpose of the canal is to facilitate the natural expansion of the femoral vein located on its side.
Understanding the Femoral Canal
The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.
The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 65-year-old female patient presents to the gastroenterology clinic complaining of recurrent epigastric pain and acid reflux that has not responded to antacids or proton-pump inhibitors. Upon gastroscopy, an ulcer is discovered in the descending duodenum and a tumor is found in the antrum of the stomach. What type of cell is the origin of this tumor?
Your Answer: G cells
Explanation:Gastrin is synthesized by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.
Based on the symptoms presented, it is probable that the patient has a gastrinoma. This type of tumor produces an excess of gastrin, which stimulates the production of hydrochloric acid, leading to the development of peptic ulcers. Normally, gastrin is secreted by the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach.
Other cells found in the stomach include S cells, which produce secretin, I cells, which produce CCK, and D cells, which produce somatostatin. However, there is no such cell as an H cell in the stomach.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to you complaining of persistent diarrhoea for the past 10 days. He describes his diarrhoea as watery and foul-smelling, but denies any blood. He feels exhausted and asks for a prescription for an antidiarrhoeal medication. He has no notable medical history.
The stool cultures come back negative, and you contemplate starting the patient on diphenoxylate. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this drug?Your Answer: Acts on muscarinic receptors in the myenteric plexus and slows down gut motility
Correct Answer: Inhibits peristalsis by acting on μ-opioid in the GI tract
Explanation:Diphenoxylate slows down peristalsis in the GI tract by acting on μ-opioid receptors.
Increased gut motility can be achieved through the positive cholinergic effect of muscarinic receptor activation.
All other options are inaccurate.
Antidiarrhoeal Agents: Opioid Agonists
Antidiarrhoeal agents are medications used to treat diarrhoea. Opioid agonists are a type of antidiarrhoeal agent that work by slowing down the movement of the intestines, which reduces the frequency and urgency of bowel movements. Two common opioid agonists used for this purpose are loperamide and diphenoxylate.
Loperamide is available over-the-counter and is often used to treat acute diarrhoea. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the intestines, which reduces the contractions of the muscles in the intestinal wall. This slows down the movement of food and waste through the intestines, allowing more time for water to be absorbed and resulting in firmer stools.
Diphenoxylate is a prescription medication that is often used to treat chronic diarrhoea. It works in a similar way to loperamide, but is often combined with atropine to discourage abuse and overdose.
Overall, opioid agonists are effective at treating diarrhoea, but should be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. They can cause side effects such as constipation, dizziness, and nausea, and may interact with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to the greater omentum is false?
Your Answer: It contains the gastroepiploic arteries.
Correct Answer: It has no relationship to the lesser sac.
Explanation:This area is linked to the transverse colon and the lesser sac, and is often accessed during a colonic resection. It is also frequently affected by metastasis in various types of visceral cancers.
The Omentum: A Protective Structure in the Abdomen
The omentum is a structure in the abdomen that invests the stomach and is divided into two parts: the greater and lesser omentum. The greater omentum is attached to the lower lateral border of the stomach and contains the gastro-epiploic arteries. It varies in size and is less developed in children. However, it plays an important role in protecting against visceral perforation, such as in cases of appendicitis.
The lesser omentum is located between the omentum and transverse colon, providing a potential entry point into the lesser sac. Malignant processes can affect the omentum, with ovarian cancer being the most notable. Overall, the omentum is a crucial structure in the abdomen that serves as a protective barrier against potential injuries and diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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