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Question 1
Incorrect
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You review a 59-year-old woman, who is worried about her risk of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) due to her family history. She has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and a 20 pack-year smoking history. Her blood pressure in clinic is 136/88 mmHg. She is given a leaflet about AAA screening.
What is accurate regarding AAA screening in this case?Your Answer: Due to his risk factors he will be offered screening at age 60
Correct Answer: He will be invited for one-off abdominal ultrasound at aged 65
Explanation:At the age of 65, all males are invited for a screening to detect abdominal aortic aneurysm through a single abdominal ultrasound, irrespective of their risk factors. In case an aneurysm is identified, additional follow-up will be scheduled.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension experiences sudden onset of severe chest pain, radiating to the back and left shoulder. On examination, he is hemiplegic, with pallor and sweating. His heart rate is 120 bpm and his blood pressure is 174/89 mmHg, but 153/72 mmHg when measured on the opposite arm.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Dissection of the thoracic aorta
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hemiplegia in a patient with chest pain
Aortic dissection, myocardial infarction, intracranial haemorrhage, ruptured thoracic aneurysm, and ruptured ventricular aneurysm are among the possible causes of chest pain and hemiplegia in a patient with a history of hypertension. Aortic dissection is the most likely diagnosis, given the abrupt onset and maximal severity of chest pain at onset, as well as the potential for carotid involvement and limb blood pressure differences. Myocardial infarction may also cause chest pain but is less likely to present with hemiplegia. Intracranial haemorrhage may cause hemiplegia but is more likely to present with a headache. Ruptured thoracic aneurysm may cause acute chest, back, or neck pain, but is unlikely to cause hemiplegia. Ruptured ventricular aneurysm is a complication of myocardial infarction but typically doesn’t rupture. A careful differential diagnosis is essential for appropriate management and prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits her GP after experiencing a 10-minute episode where she couldn't move her left arm. Her arm function has since returned to normal and her neurological examination is unremarkable.
What is the most accurate diagnosis for Sophie based on the given information?Your Answer: Neurological dysfunction caused by a transient episode of brain ischaemia
Explanation:The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on the affected tissue rather than the duration of symptoms. It is now defined as a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from restricted blood flow to the brain, spinal cord, or retina, without causing acute tissue damage. An ischaemic stroke, on the other hand, is characterized by neurological dysfunction caused by cerebral infarction, while multiple sclerosis is defined by neurological dysfunction caused by demyelination. Finally, a functional neurological disorder is characterized by transient symptoms of psychological origin.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?Your Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker
Explanation:To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has recently been discharged from hospital after an episode of non-ST-elevation acute coronary syndrome. She has no other significant medical conditions.
Which of the following is the most appropriate antiplatelet therapy?Your Answer: Aspirin 75 mg once daily (od)
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel 75 mg od in combination with aspirin 75 mg od for 12 months, then aspirin 75 mg od alone
Explanation:Antiplatelet Therapy for Non-ST-Elevation Acute Coronary Syndrome
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends dual therapy with aspirin and other antiplatelet for 12 months, followed by aspirin alone, for antiplatelet therapy after a non-ST-elevation acute coronary syndrome. However, the use of clopidogrel with aspirin increases the risk of bleeding, and there is no evidence of benefit beyond 12 months of the last event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 47-year-old man has recently been prescribed apixaban by his haematologist after experiencing a pulmonary embolism. He is currently taking other medications for his co-existing conditions. Can you identify which of his medications may potentially interact with apixaban?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:If anticoagulation is being used for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, the British National Formulary recommends avoiding the simultaneous use of apixaban and carbamazepine. This is because carbamazepine may lower the plasma concentration of apixaban. No interactions have been identified between apixaban and the other options listed.
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A GP receives notification from the Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm Screening program that one of his elderly patients has been found to have an aneurysm measuring 6.5cm in diameter. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to Vascular Outpatients
Explanation:If the aortic diameter is within normal range, the patient is discharged from the screening programme. However, if small or medium AAAs are detected, the patient will be scheduled for regular follow-up appointments with a Nurse Specialist from the screening programme and surveillance scans. In the event of a large AAA (measuring over 5.5 cm in diameter), the patient must be referred to Vascular Outpatients and seen within 2 weeks. While the screening programme will initiate the referral process, the GP will also be urgently contacted to provide additional information such as the patient’s medical history. If surgery is deemed necessary, it should be performed within 8 weeks of the referral.
Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil prescription, which he has been taking for several years. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he suffered a heart attack four months ago. What course of action should you take?
Your Answer: Do not prescribe as contraindicated
Explanation:Sildenafil use is not recommended for patients who have had a recent myocardial infarction or unstable angina, as stated in both the BNF and NICE guidelines. As the patient in this question had a myocardial infarction just 4 months ago, prescribing sildenafil is contraindicated. Therefore, the answer to this question is do not prescribe.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision
Explanation:Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.
Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.
If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
Which of the following is the single risk factor that places him most at risk of stroke?Your Answer: Previous myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Previous transient ischaemic attack
Explanation:Understanding CHA2DS2-VASc Scoring for Stroke Risk in Atrial Fibrillation Patients
The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is a useful tool for predicting the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. A score of 0 indicates a low risk, while a score of 1 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 2 or higher indicates a high risk. One of the risk factors that carries a score of 2 is a previous transient ischaemic attack, while age 75 years or older is another. Other risk factors, such as age 65-74 and female sex at any age, carry a score of 1 each. If a patient has no risk factors, their score would be zero, and not anticoagulating them would be an option. However, it is important to consider bleeding risk, calculated using the ORBIT criteria, before starting anticoagulation in all cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which treatment for hypercholesterolaemia in primary prevention trials has been shown to reduce all cause mortality?
Your Answer: Fish oils
Correct Answer: Statins
Explanation:Lipid Management in Primary Care
Lipid management is a common scenario in primary care, and NICE has produced guidance on Lipid modification (CG181) in the primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The use of statins in primary prevention is supported by clinical trial data, with WOSCOPS (The West of Scotland Coronary Prevention Study) being a landmark trial. This study looked at statin versus placebo in men aged 45-65 with no coronary disease and a cholesterol >4 mmol/L, showing a reduction in all-cause mortality by 22% in the statin arm for a 20% total cholesterol reduction.
Other study data also supports the use of statins as primary prevention of coronary artery disease. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on lipid modification – CVD prevention recommends Atorvastatin at 20 mg for primary prevention and 80 mg for secondary prevention. Risk is assessed using the QRISK2 calculator. Overall, lipid management is an important aspect of primary care, and healthcare professionals should be familiar with the latest guidance and clinical trial data to provide optimal care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?
Your Answer: Diltiazem
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from the hospital. He was admitted due to chest pain and was given thrombolytic therapy for a heart attack. Today, he experienced significant swelling of his tongue and face. Which medication is the most probable cause of this reaction?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Drug-induced angioedema is most frequently caused by ACE inhibitors.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk for heart disease as his father had a heart attack at the age of 50. He reports a non-smoking history, a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and a body mass index of 25 kg/m.
His recent blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium: 142 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 78 mol/L
- Total cholesterol: 6.8 mmol/L
- HDL cholesterol: 1.3 mmol/L
- LDL cholesterol: 4.5 mmol/L
- Triglycerides: 1.2 mmol/L
- Fasting glucose: 5.1 mmol/L
Based on these results, his QRISK2 score is calculated to be 3.5%. What is the most appropriate plan of action for this patient?Your Answer: Reassure him that his risk of cardiovascular disease is low
Correct Answer: Refer him to a specialist lipids clinic
Explanation:The 2014 NICE lipid modification guidelines provide recommendations for familial hyperlipidaemia. Individuals with a total cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre and a family history of premature coronary heart disease should be investigated for familial hypercholesterolaemia as described in NICE clinical guideline 71. Those with a total cholesterol concentration exceeding 9.0 mmol/litre or a nonHDL cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre should receive specialist assessment, even if they do not have a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In what scenario would it be suitable to conduct 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring?
Your Answer: In patients with palpitations
Correct Answer: In patients with resistant hypertension despite medication
Explanation:When to Consider 24-Hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure Recording
Patients with persistently raised blood pressure readings or borderline hypertension, resistant hypertension, suspected white-coat hypertension, variable blood pressure, suspected pregnancy-associated hypertension, or suspected hypotension should be considered for 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure recording. However, this method should not be used in suspected pre-eclampsia or palpitations. Suspected orthostatic hypotension should be investigated with tilt-table tests, while palpitations should be investigated with a 24-hour ECG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing erectile dysfunction. The decision is made to try sildenafil therapy. Is there any existing medication that can be continued without requiring adjustments?
Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Correct Answer: Nateglinide
Explanation:The BNF advises against using alpha-blockers within 4 hours of taking sildenafil.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features. He has noticed increased dyspnea on exertion in the past few weeks. He denies any chest pain and has no known history of cardiac issues. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which reveals complete heart block.
Which of the following physical findings is most indicative of the diagnosis?
Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Irregular cannon ‘A’ waves on jugular venous pressure
Explanation:Understanding the Clinical Signs of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is a complete failure of conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in bradycardia and potential symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, and chest pain. Here are some clinical signs to look out for when assessing a patient with complete heart block:
Irregular Cannon ‘A’ Waves on Jugular Venous Pressure: Cannon waves are large A waves that occur irregularly when the right atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve. In complete heart block, these waves occur randomly due to atrioventricular dissociation.
Low-Volume Pulse: Complete heart block doesn’t necessarily create a low-volume pulse. This is typically found in other conditions such as shock, left ventricular dysfunction, or mitral stenosis.
Irregularly Irregular Pulse: The ‘escape rhythms’ in third-degree heart block usually produce a slow, regular pulse that doesn’t vary with exercise. Unless found in combination with another condition such as atrial fibrillation, the pulse should be regular.
Collapsing Pulse: A collapsing pulse is typically associated with aortic regurgitation and would not be expected with complete heart block alone.
Loud Second Heart Sound: In complete heart block, the intensity of the first and second heart sound varies due to the loss of atrioventricular synchrony. A consistently loud second heart sound may be found in conditions such as pulmonary hypertension.
By understanding these clinical signs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage patients with complete heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. His blood pressure is within normal limits and there are no other notable findings upon examination of his cardiorespiratory system. He has a medical history of controlled asthma (treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone) and depression (managed with citalopram). He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately three days. What is the most suitable medication for controlling his heart rate?
Your Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Prescribing a beta-blocker is not recommended due to her asthma history, which is a contraindication. Instead, NICE suggests using a calcium channel blocker that limits the heart rate. Additionally, it is important to consider antithrombotic therapy.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Mr. Johnson is brought into the clinic by his son, Mark, who is concerned about his father's uncontrolled blood pressure (BP). Mr. Johnson has mild vascular dementia and Mark understands the importance of managing cardiovascular risk factors in this condition.
They have brought some home BP readings which are consistently around 155/85 mmHg. You review Mr. Johnson's medication list and see that he is prescribed ramipril 10 mg and indapamide 2.5mg. He had previously experienced ankle swelling with amlodipine, so it was discontinued. You consider the possibility of non-compliance, but Mark assures you that he reminds his father to take his medications every day.
You measure Mr. Johnson's BP in both arms and find it to be 160/90 mmHg. A standing BP is lower, at 138/80 mmHg, and Mr. Johnson reports no symptoms of dizziness or fainting. His pulse is 84 and regular. You review his recent blood tests and note that his potassium level is 3.7mmol/L.
What is the appropriate treatment for Mr. Johnson's hypertension?Your Answer: Increase dose of ramipril
Correct Answer: Do not increase antihypertensive medication
Explanation:Based on the patient’s significant postural drop in blood pressure or symptoms of postural hypotension, treatment should be determined by their standing blood pressure. Therefore, no further increase in antihypertensive medication is necessary for this patient. However, if it were indicated, a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker may be a suitable option as it is less likely to cause ankle swelling than amlodipine. Additionally, spironolactone may be considered. It is important to note that standing blood pressure should be checked in patients with resistant hypertension. Lastly, increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as the patient is already taking the maximum dose.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man has scheduled a meeting to discuss his struggles with poor concentration and feeling sleepy while working. He works as a truck driver and frequently has to operate heavy machinery. His spouse has noticed that he experiences brief pauses in breathing while sleeping at night and occasionally makes choking sounds.
The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. His Epworth sleepiness scale score is 16.
Considering his condition, what is the best course of action for the patient to take regarding operating heavy machinery?Your Answer: He is required to re-sit a driving assessment
Correct Answer: He is required to inform the DVLA and stop driving
Explanation:If a person has mild, moderate, or severe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) that causes excessive daytime sleepiness, they must inform the Driver Vehicle and Licensing Agency (DVLA). Excessive sleepiness refers to sleepiness that can negatively impact driving. The severity of OSA is determined by the number of apnoea/hypopnoea episodes per hour (apnoea-hypopnoea index [AHI]). Mild OSA is defined as an AHI of 5-14 per hour, moderate OSA is an AHI of 15-30 per hour, and severe OSA is an AHI of more than 30 per hour. If a person is diagnosed with OSA and experiences enough sleepiness to impair driving, they must inform the DVLA and stop driving. In this case, there is no need to retake a driving assessment, and the GP will not inform the DVLA initially. However, if the patient fails to inform the DVLA after multiple reminders and being informed that the GP may break confidentiality, the GP will inform the DVLA. If a person is being investigated for or has a diagnosis of OSA but doesn’t experience daytime sleepiness severe enough to impair driving, they do not need to inform the DVLA or stop driving. If a person is successfully using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or an intra-oral device and their symptoms are controlled to the point where they no longer impair driving, they should inform the DVLA but do not need to stop driving.
Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and has a 60-pack/year smoking history. His uncle and father both died in their 50s of a myocardial infarction.
He is found to have a blood pressure of 146/92 mmHg in the clinic. He has no signs of end organ damage on examination and bloods, ACR, urine dip and ECG are normal. His 10-year cardiovascular risk is >10%. He has ambulatory monitoring which shows a blood pressure average of 138/86 mmHg.
As per the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate action?Your Answer: Discuss treatment with an ACE inhibitor
Correct Answer: Discuss treatment with a calcium antagonist
Explanation:Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension for the AKT Exam
The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) published in September 2019 provide important information for general practitioners on the management of hypertension. However, it is important to remember that these guidelines have attracted criticism from some clinicians for being over complicated and insufficiently evidence-based. While it is essential to have an awareness of NICE guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.
One example of a question that may be asked in the AKT exam relates to the cut-offs for high blood pressure on ambulatory monitoring. According to the NICE guidelines, stage 1 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of 135-149/85-94 mmHg and should be treated if there is end organ damage, diabetes, or a 10-year CVD risk of 10% or more. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure equal to or greater than 150/95 mmHg and should be treated.
In the exam, you may be asked to determine the appropriate treatment for a patient with stage 1 hypertension. The NICE guidance suggests a calcium channel blocker in patients above 55 or Afro-Caribbean. However, it is important to note that lifestyle factors are also crucial in risk reduction.
While it is unlikely that you will be asked to select answers that contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to remember that the AKT exam tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance. Therefore, it is important to have a broader understanding of the subject matter and consider other guidelines and opinions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a specialist lipid clinic?
Your Answer: Triglyceride level of 7.5 mmol/L
Correct Answer: LDL cholesterol of 5 mmol/L
Explanation:The Importance of Specialist Lipid Clinics in Managing Adverse Lipid Profiles
Specialist lipid clinics are crucial in managing adverse lipid profiles, particularly those with a familial origin. Elevated levels of lipid profile components can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, necessitating more aggressive treatment to mitigate this risk. Hypertriglyceridaemia, in particular, is a risk factor for pancreatitis.
To determine when referral to a lipid clinic is necessary, certain levels of total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol must be met. These figures are outlined in the learning point and serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in identifying patients who require specialist lipid care. With the help of lipid clinics, patients can receive tailored treatment plans to manage their lipid profiles and reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review. He has no daytime symptoms and occasionally uses his ventolin inhaler at night when suffering from a viral infection. His only other medical history is of urinary incontinence, for which he has been fully investigated, and three episodes of gout in the last five years.
On examination, his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, his heart rate 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 168/82 mmHg. Subsequent home blood pressure readings confirm isolated systolic hypertension.
Which of the following is the single most suitable medication for this patient?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Management of Isolated Systolic Hypertension: Drug Options and Considerations
Isolated systolic hypertension, characterized by elevated systolic blood pressure and normal diastolic blood pressure, is managed similarly to systolic plus diastolic hypertension. Amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, is the preferred first-line drug for treating isolated systolic hypertension in patients over 55 years old.
Before starting any medication, a new diagnosis of hypertension should be confirmed through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home blood pressure monitoring. Additionally, an assessment for evidence of end-organ damage and 10-year cardiovascular risk should be conducted, along with a discussion about modifiable risk factors such as diet, exercise, sodium intake, alcohol consumption, caffeine, and smoking.
Indapamide, a thiazide diuretic, is typically used as a second or third step in the treatment protocol. However, it may exacerbate gout and worsen urinary problems.
Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, were previously recommended as second-line treatment for hypertension. However, they can cause hyperglycemia and are now at step 4 of the management plan. Beta-blockers are also contraindicated in asthma, making them unsuitable for some patients.
Doxazosin, which is at step 4 of the hypertension management plan, may cause urinary incontinence and is not appropriate for all patients.
Valsartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, is a first-line option for patients under 55 years old, along with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It may be added at step 2 if necessary for patients over 55 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Correct
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A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high blood pressure. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 142/88 mmHg and you believe that he requires a higher level of treatment. The patient's blood test results are as follows: Serum Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144), Serum Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Creatinine 75 µmol/L (60-110). Based on the most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136), what would be your next course of action?
Your Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
Managing hypertension is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s role, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the latest NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136). Step 4 of the guidelines recommends seeking expert advice or adding low-dose spironolactone if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/l, and an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker if the blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/l. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled on optimal tolerated doses of four drugs, expert advice should be sought.
It is important to note that hypertension management is a topic that may be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. Therefore, it is crucial to have a good understanding of the NICE guidelines on hypertension to perform well in the exam. By following the guidelines, general practitioners can provide optimal care to their patients with hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of cardiogenic syncope. During the syncope episodes, ECG monitoring revealed that he had a sustained ventricular arrhythmia. He has opted for an elective ICD insertion and seeks your guidance on driving. He is employed as a software programmer in a business park located approximately 10 miles outside the town center, and he typically commutes to and from work by car. What are the DVLA regulations concerning driving after an ICD implantation?
Your Answer: No driving for 6 months
Explanation:The DVLA has stringent rules in place for individuals with ICDs. They are prohibited from driving a group 1 vehicle for a period of 6 months following the insertion of an ICD or after experiencing an ICD shock. Furthermore, they are permanently disqualified from obtaining a group 2 HGV license.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is newly diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. An echocardiogram shows a valvular anomaly.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiovascular Complications in Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints. However, it can also lead to cardiovascular complications. The most common complication is aortic regurgitation, which occurs due to inflammation of the ascending aorta. On the other hand, mitral regurgitation is not typically associated with ankylosing spondylitis and is usually caused by congenital conditions or cardiomyopathies. Aortic stenosis is also not commonly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, as it is usually caused by age-related calcification or congenital bicuspid valve. Similarly, mitral stenosis is more commonly associated with rheumatic heart disease than ankylosing spondylitis. Tricuspid stenosis is a rare cardiac defect that is usually associated with rheumatic fever. Therefore, it is important for individuals with ankylosing spondylitis to be aware of the potential cardiovascular complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is nervous every time he is intimate with his new partner. He can still achieve his own erections and has morning erections. His recent NHS health screening blood tests were all normal, and he has normal blood pressure. The GP examines his medication history and advises him against using sildenafil. Which of the following medications listed below is not recommended to be used with sildenafil?
Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN)
Explanation:When considering treatment options for this patient, it is important to note that PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil are contraindicated when used in conjunction with nitrates and nicorandil. This is due to the potential for severe hypotension. Therefore, alternative treatment options should be explored and discussed with the patient.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman has a 2-year history of right-sided throbbing headache that comes and goes, accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light. She often experiences visual disturbances before the headache starts. Despite trying various over-the-counter pain relievers, she has found little relief. Her doctor has prescribed an oral medication to be taken at the onset of the headache, with the option of taking another tablet after 2 hours if needed. What is a typical adverse effect of this medication?
Your Answer: Tightness of the throat and chest
Explanation:Triptans are prescribed for migraines with aura and should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of the headache. A second dose can be taken if needed, with a minimum interval of 2 hours between doses. However, triptans may cause tightness in the throat and chest.
Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment
Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.
It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.
While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.
Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 27-year-old professional footballer collapses while playing football.
He is rushed to the Emergency department, and is found to be in ventricular tachycardia. He is defibrillated successfully and his 12 lead ECG following resuscitation demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy. Ventricular tachycardia recurs and despite prolonged resuscitation he dies.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy and its ECG Findings
The sudden onset of arrhythmia in a young and previously healthy individual is often indicative of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). It is important to screen relatives for this condition. The majority of patients with HCM have an abnormal resting ECG, which may show nonspecific changes such as left ventricular hypertrophy, ST changes, and T-wave inversion. Other possible ECG findings include right or left axis deviation, conduction abnormalities, sinus bradycardia with ectopic atrial rhythm, and atrial enlargement.
Ambulatory ECG monitoring can reveal atrial and ventricular ectopics, sinus pauses, intermittent or variable atrioventricular block, and non-sustained arrhythmias. However, the ECG findings do not necessarily correlate with prognosis. Arrhythmias associated with HCM can include premature ventricular complexes, non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Atrial fibrillation is also a common complication, occurring in approximately 20% of cases and increasing the risk of fatal cardiac failure.
It is important to note that there is no history to suggest drug abuse, and aortic stenosis is rare in the absence of congenital or rheumatic heart disease. A myocardial infarction or massive pulmonary embolism would have distinct ECG changes that are not typically seen in HCM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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