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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old trans woman visits her primary care physician after experiencing a sexual...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old trans woman visits her primary care physician after experiencing a sexual assault by a coworker at her workplace two weeks ago. She has been suffering from persistent flashbacks, nightmares, and dissociation since the incident, which has affected her sleep and caused her to take a two-week leave from work. What would be the optimal initial treatment for her likely diagnosis, if it were readily accessible?

      Your Answer: Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      For individuals experiencing distressing symptoms following a traumatic event, such as the woman in this scenario, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) should be the first-line treatment for acute stress disorders. This type of therapy involves a highly trained therapist exploring the thoughts surrounding the traumatic event and linking them to behaviours or symptoms that may be developing as a result. The goal is to give control back to the individual over their thoughts and behaviours.

      Counselling is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it involves a counsellor listening and empathising with the individual, but taking less control over the conversation than a therapist would. Counselling may even be harmful, as it may exacerbate negative thoughts by exploring the trauma in an uncontrolled way.

      Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is the first-line treatment for post-traumatic stress disorder, which cannot be diagnosed until 4 weeks after the event. This type of therapy involves reprocessing thoughts of the trauma with the goal of eventually letting them go.

      Interpersonal therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as it is intended to address longer-term, deep-rooted thoughts related to relationships with others.

      Mindfulness-based cognitive therapy is not appropriate for acute stress disorders, as there is no evidence that mindfulness alone is enough to deal with severe reactions to trauma.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18 paracetamol tablets three hours earlier. She had a row with her husband and took the tablets as she was angry and upset. She called her husband after she took the tablets, who rang for an ambulance.
      This is the first time she has ever done anything like this, and she regrets the fact that she did it. She is currently studying at university, and only drinks recreationally. She is normally fit and well and has no history of mental health conditions.
      Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of a further suicide attempt in someone who has already made a suicide attempt?

      Your Answer: Alcohol or drug abuse, history of violence and single, divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Suicide Attempts

      Individuals who have previously attempted suicide are at an increased risk of making another attempt. Factors that contribute to this risk include a history of previous attempts, personality disorders, alcohol or drug abuse, previous psychiatric treatment, unemployment, lower social class, criminal record, history of violence, and being between the ages of 25 and 54, as well as being single, divorced, or separated. Rates of further suicide attempts in the year following an attempt are high, ranging from 15 to 25 percent. However, being married or having short stature does not appear to be a significant risk factor for repeated suicide attempts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - You are asked to see a 50-year-old woman who reports feeling down for...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 50-year-old woman who reports feeling down for several months. Upon further questioning, you discover that she has lost interest in activities she previously enjoyed, such as hiking and going to the theater. She has also been experiencing fatigue, causing her to miss work, and has had occasional thoughts of not wanting to be alive, although she denies any intention of harming herself. In the past month, her symptoms have worsened, with episodes of anxiety occurring at least once a week. These episodes last around five minutes and are characterized by hyperventilation, nausea, and a fear of having a heart attack. No physical abnormalities have been found. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression with secondary panic attacks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Anxiety and Related Disorders

      Anxiety and related disorders can manifest in various ways, making it important to understand the different types and their symptoms. Depression with secondary panic attacks is a common occurrence, where panic attacks and other anxiety symptoms are a secondary feature of depression. Agoraphobia is an excessive fear of being in situations where escape or help may not be available, leading to avoidance of such situations. Generalised anxiety disorder is characterised by uncontrollable and irrational worry or anxiety about a wide range of issues and situations. Panic disorder is diagnosed when a person has recurrent, severe panic attacks without an obvious precipitant. Chronic fatigue syndrome is characterised by persistent, unexplained fatigue over several months. Understanding these disorders and their symptoms can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - Sophie, a 22-year-old student, presents to her GP with a history of low...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 22-year-old student, presents to her GP with a history of low mood lasting several months. She is struggling with her university studies due to poor concentration and constant fatigue. Despite waking up early every morning, she finds it difficult to fall back asleep. Sophie no longer enjoys spending time with her loved ones and feels hopeless about her future. She has sought medical attention as her symptoms are significantly impacting her academic performance.

      Sophie denies having any suicidal thoughts, and there is no evidence of psychotic features during the examination. She is in good health and denies any alcohol or drug use. Sophie is eager to begin treatment for her symptoms. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Referral for individual guided self-help

      Correct Answer: A trial of fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Lucy is exhibiting symptoms typical of moderate/severe depression, including low mood, fatigue, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, poor sleep, and feelings of hopelessness. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended first-line treatment for this level of depression is a combination of antidepressants and high-intensity psychological therapy, such as cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy. As such, starting fluoxetine (an SSRI) would be the most appropriate course of action. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are not recommended due to their potential side effects and overdose risk. Low-intensity psychological interventions like individual guided self-help are also not suitable for moderate/severe depression. While Lucy is not currently a risk to herself or others and is willing to try treatment in the community, urgent mental health review is not necessary. Given the severity of her symptoms and her desire for active treatment, watchful waiting is not recommended.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old man is brought to his GP by his father as he...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man is brought to his GP by his father as he is worried that his son has become socially withdrawn since puberty. Despite being regularly invited, he doesn't participate in after-work events. His father recently became concerned when his son stated that he doesn't need or want any friends. The patient has no significant medical history, denies alcohol dependence, and has recently been promoted at work. During the consultation, he remains with his arms folded and does not engage. There is no evidence of affection towards his father when he expresses his concern. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Schizoid personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic with her husband, who is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits the clinic with her husband, who is worried about her recent change in behavior. For the past two weeks, she has been acting out of character, spending large amounts of money on credit cards and wearing bold makeup and clothes that she wouldn't normally choose. She has also been experiencing insomnia, often staying up late at night to work on important projects that she can't disclose to her husband. The patient has a history of depression, and her mother was hospitalized for mental illness. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bipolar Disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Mental Disorders: Understanding the Symptoms

      Bipolar Disorder:
      A patient showing signs of mania, such as inflated self-esteem, pressured speech, reduced need for sleep, and engaging in high-risk behaviors, may be diagnosed with bipolar disorder. A manic episode requires a disturbed mood plus three of the above symptoms. A history of depression and a family history of psychiatric conditions, such as bipolar disorder, further support this diagnosis.

      Personality Disorder:
      Personality disorders are maladaptive mental disorders that typically develop at an early age. A patient in their mid-forties who has recently started experiencing mood-related symptoms, such as depression and mania, is unlikely to have a personality disorder. Types of personality disorders include paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic, and obsessive-compulsive.

      Anxiety Disorder:
      Symptoms of anxiety include social withdrawal, excessive worry, and avoidance of risk. A patient exhibiting symptoms of mania, such as high energy and engaging in risky behaviors, is not displaying signs of anxiety disorder. However, anxiety disorder may coexist with bipolar disorder.

      Depression:
      Depression is characterized by low mood, lack of enjoyment in activities, difficulty concentrating, and suicidal thoughts. A patient who has a history of depression but is currently experiencing symptoms of mania is not exhibiting signs of depression.

      Schizophrenia:
      Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires several criteria for diagnosis. Symptoms include hallucinations, disordered speech and thought, paranoia, and social withdrawal. A patient who does not exhibit these symptoms is not eligible for a differential diagnosis of schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 3 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated the urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Zopiclone

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention may be a side effect of tricyclic antidepressants, particularly with the use of Amitriptyline due to its anticholinergic properties. This can lead to symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, and mydriasis. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are less likely to cause urinary retention and dry mouth. Benzodiazepines like diazepam do not have anticholinergic effects.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance, after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance, after being found confused by members of the public for the fifth time in the past month. Upon review, he tells you that he came here by bicycle after spending the afternoon with his friends doing shopping, and then later tells you he spent today in the pub with his new dog. He smells strongly of alcohol and you notice a near-empty bottle of unlabelled spirit with him.
      On examination, he has an ataxic gait, dysdiadochokinesia and horizontal nystagmus.
      When you go back later to see him, he has forgotten your previous interaction.
      Which of the following explains his signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The individual who arrived at the emergency department is exhibiting symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a result of Wernicke’s encephalopathy. These symptoms include cerebellar signs, eye signs, anterograde and retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Additionally, the individual is carrying a bottle of alcohol and is inconsistent in their recollection of recent events.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which leads to damage and bleeding in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often develops after untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 9 - As a core trainee on call in England, you are faced with a...

    Correct

    • As a core trainee on call in England, you are faced with a situation where a 35-year-old patient who is informally admitted and may be suffering from psychosis threatens to leave the hospital while being suicidal. What section of the Mental Health Act can be used to detain this patient?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Emergency Detention under Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act

      Section 5(2) of the Mental Health Act provides a legal provision for emergency detention of patients suspected of having a psychiatric cause for their illness. This section can be invoked by registered medical practitioners who are F2 and above. Once invoked, the patient can be detained for up to 72 hours while awaiting a Mental Health Act assessment. This provision is crucial in situations where a patient’s mental health poses a risk to themselves or others, and urgent intervention is required. The 72-hour period allows for a thorough assessment of the patient’s mental health status and the development of an appropriate care plan. It is important to note that the use of this section should be in line with the principles of the Mental Health Act, which prioritizes the least restrictive option for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatry ward from the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is admitted to a psychiatry ward from the emergency department. He was brought by a concerned family member who was worried by his recent behaviour. He had been engaging in large amounts of shopping, spending nearly every night at the mall and hardly sleeping. When asked if he understands the risks of overspending, he is convinced that nothing can go wrong. He struggles to focus on the topic and begins rambling about buying various different items that are sure to make him happy. A diagnosis of a manic episode is made and he is stabilised on treatment with quetiapine. Subsequently it is decided to initiate lithium to maintain his mood.
      When should his serum lithium levels next be monitored?

      Your Answer: 1 week - 6 hours after last dose

      Correct Answer: 1 week - 12 hours after last dose

      Explanation:

      To prevent future manic episodes, this patient with an acute manic episode can be prescribed lithium as a prophylactic mood stabilizer. When starting or changing the dose of lithium, weekly monitoring of lithium levels is necessary, with samples taken 12 hours after the last dose. After treatment is established, monitoring frequency can be reduced to every 3 months, with samples still taken 12 hours after the last dose. Additionally, U&E and TFTs should be monitored every 6 months after starting treatment.

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (6/10) 60%
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