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  • Question 1 - What is the lowest daily amount of sertraline that is effective for treating...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lowest daily amount of sertraline that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer: 25 mg

      Correct Answer: 50 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy? ...

    Correct

    • Which individual is linked to the structural approach in family therapy?

      Your Answer: Minuchin

      Explanation:

      Family therapy has been shaped by various influential figures, each with their own unique approach. Salvador Minuchin is known for his structural model, which emphasizes the importance of family hierarchy, rules, and boundaries. Gregory Bateson, on the other hand, is associated with paradoxical therapy. Murray Bowen is linked to the family systems approach, while Jay Haley is known for his strategic systemic therapy. Finally, the Milan systemic approach is associated with Mara Selvini Palazzoli. Each of these figures has contributed to the development of family therapy, and their approaches continue to be used and adapted by therapists today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the most common cause of SIADH? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of SIADH?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to recognize that SIADH can have various physical origins that could be the primary cause in a patient who has been given psychotropic medication and develops the condition. The hypothalamus can be affected by brain-related conditions such as stroke, leading to the development of SIADH. Additionally, it is important to remain vigilant for any underlying cancer.

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Based on the ÆSOP study, what is the most influential factor in determining...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the ÆSOP study, what is the most influential factor in determining a prolonged period of untreated psychosis (DUP)?

      Your Answer: Family involvement in help seeking

      Correct Answer: Insidious onset

      Explanation:

      The variable with the strongest effect on DUP was not unemployment, but rather family involvement in help seeking. Additionally, an acute onset was associated with a shorter DUP compared to an insidious onset, and affective psychosis was associated with a shorter DUP than non-affective psychosis. However, unemployment was still found to be associated with a longer DUP. These findings were from the ÆSOP study, which included all patients with a first episode of psychosis who made contact with psychiatric services over a two year period and were living in defined catchment areas in London and Nottingham, UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      77.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - How do mental health services contribute to social inclusion? ...

    Correct

    • How do mental health services contribute to social inclusion?

      Your Answer: Consult service users and carers about how to provide services

      Explanation:

      1. Social inclusion is a key goal of mental health policy in the UK and Europe.
      2. Achieving social inclusion requires significant social change.
      3. Mental health services can promote social inclusion in certain circumstances.
      4. Consulting with service users and carers is one strategy to promote social inclusion in psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the characteristic of drugs that are hydrophilic? ...

    Correct

    • What is the characteristic of drugs that are hydrophilic?

      Your Answer: They pass poorly through cell membranes

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What parenting style is most likely to result in children who are both...

    Correct

    • What parenting style is most likely to result in children who are both happy and successful?

      Your Answer: Authoritative

      Explanation:

      Parenting Styles

      In the 1960s, psychologist Diana Baumrind conducted a study on over 100 preschool-age children and identified four important dimensions of parenting: disciplinary strategies, warmth and nurturance, communication styles, and expectations of maturity and control. Based on these dimensions, she suggested that most parents fall into one of three parenting styles, with a fourth category added later by Maccoby and Martin.

      Authoritarian parenting is characterized by strict rules and punishment for noncompliance, with little explanation given for the rules. These parents prioritize status and obedience over nurturing their children. This style tends to result in obedient and proficient children, but they may rank lower in happiness, social competence, and self-esteem.

      Authoritative parents are similar to authoritarian parents, but they tend to be more responsive to their children. They set strict rules but provide explanations for them and nurture their children when they fail to meet expectations. The focus is on setting standards while also being supportive. This style tends to result in happy, capable, and successful children.

      Permissive parents rarely discipline their children and avoid confrontation, allowing their children to self-regulate. They prefer to take on the role of a friend rather than a disciplinarian. This style often results in children who rank low in happiness and self-regulation, experience problems with authority, and perform poorly in school.

      Uninvolved parenting is characterized by little involvement and few demands. This style ranks lowest across all life domains, with children lacking self-control, having low self-esteem, and being less competent than their peers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is an example of a genetic condition that is inherited in an...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?

      Your Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns and Examples

      Autosomal Dominant:
      Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.

      Autosomal Recessive:
      Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Dominant:
      Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Recessive:
      Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.

      Mitochondrial:
      Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In which sensory modality does formication occur? ...

    Correct

    • In which sensory modality does formication occur?

      Your Answer: Tactile

      Explanation:

      The feeling of insects crawling on the skin, also known as tactile hallucination, is referred to as formication. This symptom has been extensively studied and can be caused by various factors.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The results of the 1972 US-UK diagnostic project revealed which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The results of the 1972 US-UK diagnostic project revealed which of the following discoveries?

      Your Answer: Lack of consensus around personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Diagnostic discrepancies in schizophrenia between the two regions

      Explanation:

      The US-UK diagnostic project found notable disparities in the diagnosis of schizophrenia between the US and the UK, with the US having a considerably lower threshold for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is another name for Munchausen syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is another name for Munchausen syndrome?

      Your Answer: Factitious disorder

      Explanation:

      Munchausen syndrome, also known as factitious disorder, is a condition where individuals intentionally fabricate of induce illness to assume the patient role. It was named by London physician Richard Asher in 1951, who observed patients reporting false symptoms such as abdominal pain, bleeding, and headaches. Conversion disorder, also known as dissociative disorder, is another term used to describe this condition. Ganser’s syndrome, which is not specifically mentioned in the ICD-11, was previously listed as a dissociative disorder and is often seen in forensic psychiatry. It is characterized by symptoms such as approximate answers, hallucinations, clouded consciousness, and insensitivity to pain, and is usually acute and self-limiting. Patients may not remember experiencing the syndrome.

      Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterised by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. Somatoform disorders are characterised by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterised by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. The former involves bodily symptoms that the individual finds distressing and to which excessive attention is directed, while the latter involves a disturbance in the person’s experience of the body manifested by the persistent desire to have a specific physical disability accompanied by persistent discomfort of intense feelings of inappropriateness concerning current non-disabled body configuration. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, are characterised by involuntary disruption of discontinuity in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behaviour. The ICD-11 dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. Each disorder has its own set of essential features and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following substances strongly activates CYP3A4? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances strongly activates CYP3A4?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is known for its ability to induce CYP3A4, which can lead to increased metabolism of not only itself but also other drugs. This often necessitates dosage adjustments for other medications. Alcohol, on the other hand, induces CYP2E1. Fluoxetine and paroxetine are potent inhibitors of CYP3A4, while reboxetine is an inhibitor of CYP3A4 with minimal clinical significance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated? ...

    Correct

    • With which of the following is John Bowlby most closely associated?

      Your Answer: Attachment theory

      Explanation:

      Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During which period was homosexuality no longer classified as a mental disorder in...

    Incorrect

    • During which period was homosexuality no longer classified as a mental disorder in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

      Your Answer: 1980s

      Correct Answer: 1970s

      Explanation:

      In 1973, the DSM classification no longer included homosexuality as a category. However, in the seventh printing of DSM II (1974), it was briefly replaced with ‘sexual orientation disorder’ before being completely removed from the DSM III (1987).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor? ...

    Correct

    • What drug acts as a partial agonist for the D2 receptor?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole exhibits partial agonism at D2 receptors and acts as an agonist at 5HT1A receptors while antagonizing 5HT2A receptors.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The CATIE trial data indicates what percentage of individuals with schizophrenia are likely...

    Correct

    • The CATIE trial data indicates what percentage of individuals with schizophrenia are likely to fulfill the criteria for metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Under normal circumstances, which stage of sleep is responsible for the largest portion...

    Correct

    • Under normal circumstances, which stage of sleep is responsible for the largest portion of total sleep time?

      Your Answer: Stage II

      Explanation:

      Sleep Stages

      Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.

      Sleep stage
      Approx % of time spent in stage
      EEG findings
      Comment

      I
      5%
      Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
      The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.

      II
      45%
      Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
      Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.

      III
      15%
      Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
      Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.

      IV
      15%
      Mixed, predominantly beta
      High dream activity.

      The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.

      It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.

      REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM

      Characteristics of REM sleep

      – Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
      – Loss of muscle tone
      – Dreaming
      – Rapid eye movements
      – Penile erection

      Deafness:

      (No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the lowest amount of fluoxetine that can effectively treat adults? ...

    Correct

    • What is the lowest amount of fluoxetine that can effectively treat adults?

      Your Answer: 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Adults require a minimum effective dose of 20 mg of fluoxetine.

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements about Jean Piaget is the most precise? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about Jean Piaget is the most precise?

      Your Answer: Was an id psychologist

      Correct Answer: Described the psychosocial stages of development

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson is known as the father of psychosocial development and the architect of identity due to his significant contribution of placing psychoanalytic concepts in a social and cultural context. He outlined eight stages of psychosocial development, including Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt, Industry vs. Inferiority, Identity vs. Role diffusion, Intimacy vs. Isolation, Generativity vs. Stagnation, and Ego Integrity vs. Despair. These stages differ from Freud’s stages of psychosocial development. On the other hand, Carl Gustav Jung introduced the concept of archetypes, which include Self, Shadow, Anima, and Animus. Archetypes are the original models from which all other similar persons, objects, of concepts are derived, copied, patterned, of emulated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the most probable outcome of a blockage in the anterior cerebral...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable outcome of a blockage in the anterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: Motor aphasia

      Explanation:

      The frontal part of the brain responsible for motor function is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery.

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A college student is invited by their peers to attend a party during...

    Correct

    • A college student is invited by their peers to attend a party during finals week. They decline, citing the importance of studying and following the university's academic policies. Which stage of moral development, as proposed by Kohlberg, is the student demonstrating?

      Your Answer: Authority and social order obedience driven

      Explanation:

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the definition of copropraxia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of copropraxia?

      Your Answer: Use of obscene gestures

      Explanation:

      Copropraxia is a neurological condition characterized by the involuntary expression of socially unacceptable gestures. It is similar to coprolalia, which is the involuntary expression of socially unacceptable words. Other related conditions include echolalia, which involves copying others’ words, and echopraxia, which involves copying others’ actions. Coprophagia, on the other hand, refers to the act of eating faeces, while palilialia involves repeating one’s own sounds. These conditions can be distressing for those who experience them and can have a significant impact on their daily lives. Treatment options may include medication, therapy, and support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What type of dysarthria is typically caused by widespread damage to the upper...

    Correct

    • What type of dysarthria is typically caused by widespread damage to the upper motor neurons?

      Your Answer: Spastic dysarthria

      Explanation:

      Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.

      Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.

      Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.

      Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.

      Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is an example of a personality disorder that falls under cluster B?...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a personality disorder that falls under cluster B?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

      UK Epidemiology

      The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium? ...

    Correct

    • Which diuretic can be used safely in combination with lithium?

      Your Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics and potassium sparing diuretics have been found to have no significant impact on lithium levels, unlike other diuretics. While acetazolamide can decrease lithium levels by increasing excretion, loop diuretics may initially increase excretion followed by a rebound phase of enhanced reabsorption, resulting in no significant effect on lithium levels over a 24-hour period.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - At what age does the transition from the prelinguistic phase to the holophrastic...

    Correct

    • At what age does the transition from the prelinguistic phase to the holophrastic stage of language development usually take place?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 27 - What is the target of disulfiram that results in its unpleasant effects when...

    Incorrect

    • What is the target of disulfiram that results in its unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase

      Correct Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is irreversibly bound by disulfiram.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 28 - How can one differentiate between a dissociative seizure and an epileptic seizure? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can one differentiate between a dissociative seizure and an epileptic seizure?

      Your Answer: Amnesia for the event

      Correct Answer: A gradual onset

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between dissociative seizures and other types of seizures can be aided by observing the gradual onset often seen in dissociative seizures. It is important to note that seizure activity during sleep is not the same as seizure activity at night, as the latter may be indicative of dissociative seizures.

      Dissociative seizures, also known as pseudoseizures of functional seizures, are abnormal paroxysmal manifestations that resemble epileptic seizures but are not related to abnormal epileptiform discharges. They can be caused by physical factors such as hypoglycemia of cardiac dysfunction, but more commonly result from mental of emotional processes. Dissociative seizures are more common in females and tend to have an onset in late adolescence. Distinguishing between true seizures and pseudoseizures can be challenging, but a rise in serum prolactin levels after a seizure is a helpful diagnostic tool. Treatment options for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures are limited, with cognitive-behavioral therapy being the most studied and effective intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not an example of paramnesia?

      Your Answer: Retrospective falsification

      Correct Answer: Retrograde amnesia

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 30 - What is the safest option for post-MI use? ...

    Correct

    • What is the safest option for post-MI use?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (6/10) 60%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Stigma And Culture (1/2) 50%
Psychological Development (3/4) 75%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (4/6) 67%
History Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (1/1) 100%
Neurosciences (3/3) 100%
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