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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases?
Your Answer: Myeloma
Correct Answer: Breast
Explanation:Bone Metastases: Common Tumours, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Bone metastases are a common occurrence in patients with malignant disease, affecting approximately 30% of cases. The most frequent tumours that cause bone metastases are breast, prostate, bronchus, kidney, and thyroid, with breast and prostate cancers accounting for the majority. Symptoms of bone metastases typically include bone pain, the presence of a lump, pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, or cord compression. Pathological fractures occur in about 10% of patients with bone metastases. Radiological changes usually occur late, and bone scintigraphy is the most sensitive diagnostic tool available to detect metastatic spread. Most metastases are osteolytic, but some tumours, such as prostate carcinoma, cause osteosclerotic lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits the outpatient urology clinic with a lump in his left testicle. He reports no other symptoms. During his examination, a 5 mm firm and painless lump is detected. Following an ultrasound of the testicle and tumour markers, testicular cancer is suspected. What combination of tumour markers were likely requested for this patient?
Your Answer: AFP and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Explanation:Tumour Markers Associated with Testicular Cancer: AFP and hCG
Testicular cancer is often characterized by the presence of a lump, and the most common tumour markers associated with this type of cancer are alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Germ cell tumours are the most common type of testicular cancer, with seminomas and non-seminomas being the most prevalent subtypes. Mixed germ cell tumours may also occur. Stromal tumours and metastasis from other organs are less common.
The age range and tumour markers associated with each type of germ cell tumour are as follows: seminomas are associated with an increase in hCG, embryonal carcinoma with an increase in both hCG and AFP, yolk sac carcinoma with an increase in AFP, choriocarcinoma with an increase in hCG, and teratoma without specific markers.
While it would be appropriate to request hCG and AFP, carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) are not typically elevated in testicular cancer. CEA is more commonly associated with adenocarcinomas, particularly colorectal, while PSA is associated with prostate cancer. Similarly, PSA and CA-125 are not typically elevated in testicular cancer, but rather in prostate cancer and ovarian cancers, respectively.
In summary, AFP and hCG are the most common tumour markers associated with testicular cancer, and their levels can help diagnose and monitor the disease. Other tumour markers, such as CEA and PSA, are not typically elevated in testicular cancer and may be more indicative of other types of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic after discovering a painless pea-sized lump in her left breast. Her grandmother passed away at age 46 due to breast cancer, and the patient is worried that she may have the same condition. What is the most accurate statement regarding breast cancer?
Your Answer: Women with a history of ovarian cancer are at increased risk of breast cancer
Explanation:Breast Cancer Myths and Facts
Breast cancer is a complex disease that affects millions of women worldwide. Unfortunately, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding breast cancer that can lead to confusion and anxiety. Here are some common breast cancer myths and facts to help you better understand this disease.
Myth: Women with a history of ovarian cancer are not at risk for breast cancer.
Fact: Women with a history of ovarian cancer are at increased risk of breast cancer because they share similar risk factors.Myth: All patients with the BRCA1 gene will develop breast cancer.
Fact: Patients with the BRCA1 gene have an 80% lifetime risk for developing breast cancer, and 50% for ovarian cancer. It is a mutation on chromosome 17.Myth: Breast cancer is more common in women from low socioeconomic groups.
Fact: Higher socio-economic groups are associated with increased risk of breast cancer.Myth: Malignant lumps are usually painful.
Fact: Most breast cancers present with a painless lump and may be associated with nipple change or discharge, or skin contour changes. Mastalgia (breast pain) alone is a very uncommon presentation; <1% of all breast cancers present with mastalgia as the only symptom. Myth: Most breast cancers are lobular carcinomas.
Fact: Breast cancer is most commonly ductal (arising from the epithelial lining of ducts) (90%). The second most common type is lobular (arising from the epithelium of the terminal ducts of lobules). They can be either intrusive or in situ. Paget’s disease of the breast is an infiltrating carcinoma of the nipple epithelium (1% of all breast cancers). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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The pathologist observed a lymph node biopsy under a microscope and found that the lymph node morphology was completely effaced by scattered malignant cells. These cells were identified as Reed-Sternberg cells and were large and binucleated. Given these findings, what is the most probable pathological diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma
Explanation:Overview of Different Types of Lymphoma
Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system, which is responsible for fighting infections and diseases. There are several types of lymphoma, each with its own unique characteristics and treatment options.
Hodgkin Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is diagnosed by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large malignant B cells found in lymphoid tissue. It is staged using the Ann Arbor staging system and can be treated with cyclical chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy.
Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: This type of lymphoma is caused by the malignant transformation of B1 cells, a subset of B cells. It is a slow-growing cancer that may not require immediate treatment.
Waldenström Macroglobulinemia: This neoplasm is characterized by a single clone of B cells and a mixture of lymphocytes, plasma cells, and lymphoplasmacytoid cells. Treatment options include chemotherapy, immunotherapy, and stem cell transplantation.
Follicular Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is a transformation of the B cells found in lymph node follicles. It is a slow-growing cancer that may not require immediate treatment.
Burkitt Lymphoma: This type of lymphoma is not associated with Reed-Sternberg cells and can present as either a leukemia or lymphoma. Treatment options include chemotherapy and immunotherapy.
Overall, the treatment and prognosis for lymphoma depend on the type and stage of the cancer, as well as the individual patient’s health and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 72-year-old man with advanced prostate cancer is referred by his GP to hospital as today’s blood test shows an elevated calcium level.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate action?Your Answer: IV 0.9% normal saline
Explanation:Management of Electrolyte Imbalances: Fluids and Medications
Electrolyte imbalances, such as hypercalcaemia and hyperkalaemia, can have serious consequences if left untreated. The following are some common treatments for these conditions:
IV 0.9% normal saline: Rehydration is crucial in managing hypercalcaemia. Up to 3 liters of normal saline can be given daily to correct elevated calcium levels. Bisphosphonates may also be used after fluids are administered.
Insulin dextrose: This is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Alendronic acid: While this medication can be given after fluids in patients with hypercalcaemia, fluid administration is the preferred management strategy.
Calcium Resonium: This medication is used after the acute treatment of hyperkalaemia.
Calcium gluconate: This medication is used to treat hyperkalaemia.
Overall, a combination of fluids and medications may be necessary to effectively manage electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman, who is receiving doxorubicin chemotherapy for breast cancer, presents with severe nausea and vomiting as a side effect of the treatment. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile with a blood pressure of 102/76 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 90 bpm. The patient has a capillary refill time of 2 seconds and dry mucous membranes. Abdominal examination reveals a soft abdomen without palpable masses or tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Aggressive oral rehydration and oral ondansetron
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) rehydration and IV ondansetron
Explanation:Management of Chemotherapy-Induced Nausea and Vomiting: Treatment Options
Chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting can be a distressing side-effect for patients undergoing cancer treatment. The use of antiemetics is an important aspect of patient care in managing these symptoms. In cases where the patient is actively vomiting, intravenous (IV) administration of antiemetics and fluids is preferred.
Ondansetron, a 5-hydroxytryptamine 3 (5HT3) receptor antagonist, is a potent antiemetic that is generally effective and well-tolerated by patients. However, a single dose of IV ondansetron should not exceed 16 mg to avoid the risk of QT prolongation. Ideally, antiemetic therapy should be started before chemotherapy and continued at regular intervals for up to five days.
Aggressive oral rehydration and oral antiemetics are not appropriate for patients who are actively vomiting. IV rehydration and IV ondansetron are the preferred treatment options in such cases.
In rare cases where ondansetron cannot be used, metoclopramide, an antidopaminergic antiemetic, may be considered. However, it is not the first choice of antiemetic.
IV omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not indicated in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Overall, the goal of treatment is to manage symptoms and provide relief to the patient. With appropriate treatment, symptoms will settle, and the patient can be discharged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 51-year-old woman presents with a 5-month history of abdominal discomfort and bloating. She reports feeling fatigued and has lost around 5 kg in weight during this time. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a solid mass with multiple compartments and high vascularity originating from the left ovary. Which tumour marker is expected to be elevated in this patient?
Your Answer: Ca-125
Explanation:Tumour Markers for Ovarian Cancer: Understanding Ca-125 and Other Tests
Ovarian cancer is a serious condition that can be difficult to diagnose. However, there are several tumour markers that can help healthcare professionals identify the presence of ovarian cancer and monitor its progression. One of the most well-established tumour markers for epithelial ovarian cancer is Ca-125. This marker is likely to be elevated in patients with ovarian malignancies, particularly those over the age of 50 who present with symptoms such as abdominal distension, pain, early satiety, loss of appetite, urinary frequency and urgency, unexplained weight loss, fatigue, or change in bowel habit.
While Ca-125 is not specific to ovarian cancer, a raised level of 35 iu/ml or greater should prompt an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis. If the scan is suggestive of ovarian cancer, the patient must be referred to Gynaecology on an urgent basis. Other tumour markers, such as SCC antigen, Ca 19-9, calcitonin, and CEA, may also be used to aid in the management of advanced cervical cancers, gastrointestinal malignancies, thyroid malignancies, and other types of cancer, respectively. However, these markers are not commonly associated with ovarian tumours.
It is important to note that tumour markers should not be used in isolation to diagnose or monitor ovarian cancer. They should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests, such as imaging studies and biopsies, to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. With proper use and interpretation, tumour markers can be a valuable tool in the fight against ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A pre-med student is preparing for her oncology rotation and is studying the use of tumour markers in the diagnosis and monitoring of cancer.
Which of the following tumour markers is accurately matched with the cancer it is linked to?Your Answer: Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Specific Cancers
Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. These markers can be used to screen for and monitor certain types of cancer. Here are some examples of tumor markers and their association with specific cancers:
– Alphafetoprotein (AFP) and hepatocellular carcinoma: AFP is raised in 80% of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma. High-risk patients should be offered 6-monthly screening with a combination of hepatic ultrasound and AFP level.
– CA 15-3 and breast cancer: CA 15-3 is associated with breast cancer.
– CA 19-9 and pancreatic and biliary tract cancers: CA 19-9 is associated with pancreatic and biliary tract cancers.
– CA 125 and ovarian cancer: CA 125 is associated with ovarian cancer.
– Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and prostatic cancer: PSA is associated with prostatic cancer and benign prostatic hypertrophy.
– Testicular cancer: Testicular cancer can be associated with AFP, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), depending on the tumor type.It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and can also be elevated in non-cancerous conditions. Therefore, tumor markers should always be interpreted in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman has been diagnosed with non-small-cell bronchial carcinoma during a bronchoscopy. Despite her diagnosis, she is in good health. CT imaging for staging did not show any signs of metastatic disease. Her surgeon has suggested a pneumonectomy but wants to conduct a PET scan. How will this test aid in managing the patient?
Your Answer: Demonstrates any metastatic disease not found at CT
Explanation:PET Imaging in Cancer Diagnosis and Treatment
PET imaging is a diagnostic tool that uses radiolabelled molecules to identify areas of high metabolic activity, such as cancerous tumors. When combined with CT, PET can be more sensitive in detecting metastatic disease. However, PET has limitations in identifying blood supply and primary tumor masses, which may require other imaging techniques such as angiography or MRI. PET also cannot label tumors for easier identification during surgery, but newer techniques using fluorescent labeling are emerging. Finally, PET does not have any therapeutic effect on the tumor itself, but can be used to guide neoadjuvant therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department after ingesting an unknown quantity of paracetamol tablets. What is the ideal time to evaluate his paracetamol level to determine if treatment with n-acetylcysteine is necessary?
Your Answer: Immediately
Correct Answer: Four hours after overdose
Explanation:Treatment of Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment. The nomograms used for the treatment of paracetamol overdose are based on assessing paracetamol levels four hours or later after an overdose has occurred. This is because measuring levels earlier may be unpredictable and lead to inappropriate omission of N-acetylcysteine. If a significant overdose is suspected or the patient presents more than four hours after overdose, treatment should be started expectantly.
The treatment of paracetamol overdose begins with a loading dose of N-acetylcysteine over one hour, followed by four-hour and 16-hour infusions. Less than 5% of patients suffer an allergic reaction to N-acetylcysteine, and in those patients, slowing the infusion rate, giving IV corticosteroids and/or antihistamines are all potential options. Patients who do not tolerate N-acetylcysteine even after these measures should be given oral methionine.
In summary, the treatment of paracetamol overdose is time-sensitive and requires careful monitoring of paracetamol levels. N-acetylcysteine is the primary treatment option, but alternative options are available for patients who cannot tolerate it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A patient with rectal cancer in their 60s is seen by the colorectal nurse specialist and is told about a special blood test to monitor their disease.
Which of the following is this most likely to relate to?Your Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers: Types and Uses
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to diagnose cancer, monitor treatment response, and detect recurrence. Here are some common tumour markers and their uses:
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): This glycoprotein is found in normal mucosal cells but increases in adenocarcinoma, particularly colorectal cancer. It is used to monitor disease, rather than as a diagnostic tool.
CA-19-9: This intracellular adhesion molecule is highly specific for pancreatic and biliary tract cancers but may also be elevated in other cancers. It has a role in predicting metastatic disease.
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): This tumour marker is used for hepatocellular carcinoma and non-seminomatous germ cell tumours. It can be used to screen for hepatocellular carcinomas, especially in high-risk patients.
C-reactive protein (CRP): This marker indicates acute inflammation and is not specific to cancer.
CA-125: This glycoprotein is a marker for ovarian cancer but can also be elevated in other intra-abdominal cancers and non-malignant conditions. It is mainly used for monitoring after treatment and if ovarian cancer is suspected.
In conclusion, tumour markers have various uses in cancer diagnosis and management. However, they should always be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and imaging findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 56-year-old male presents with a history of a sore area on his tongue, which has failed to heal for over three months and is becoming increasingly bothersome. The patient is otherwise well, with a history of mild osteoarthritis of the knees, but nil else of note. He is a builder, and smokes 30 cigarettes a day for the past 30 years. He drinks around 30 units of alcohol a week.
Following examination, the patient is referred urgently as a case of suspected cancer of the tongue.
Which one of the following statements is correct about tongue cancer?Your Answer: It may be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation:Myth-busting: Tongue Cancer Risk Factors
Tongue cancer is a rare form of oral carcinoma, accounting for only 2% of overall cancers. While it can be associated with human papillomavirus (HPV), there are several misconceptions about its risk factors. Contrary to popular belief, smoking and alcohol are known risk factors, while coconut ingestion is not. Betel nut ingestion, on the other hand, is associated with an increased risk of tongue cancer. It is important to note that tongue cancer usually metastasises to the upper cervical and submandibular nodes, not the lower cervical nodes. However, early detection and treatment with a combination of surgery and chemoradiotherapy can often lead to a cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 42-year-old teacher is referred to the Breast Clinic for further investigation after finding a lump on her right breast one week earlier. She has well-controlled hypertension, but no other medical history of note. The patient does not smoke and is a keen runner.
The patient is especially concerned that she may have breast cancer, as her grandmother and maternal aunt both died from the condition. She is very upset that she did not find the lump sooner, as she thinks that it is at least 1 cm in size.
With regard to tumour kinetics, which one of the following is correct?Your Answer: Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics
Explanation:Misconceptions about Tumour Growth
Tumour growth is a complex process that is often misunderstood. Here are some common misconceptions about tumour growth:
Common Misconceptions about Tumour Growth
1. Tumour growth obeys Gompertzian kinetics
While the rate of tumour growth does slow down from the initial exponential pattern, the assumption that it follows a sigmoidal shape is not always accurate.2. The clinical phase of tumour growth is long compared with the pre-clinical phase
In reality, the clinical phase of a tumour is short in comparison to the pre-clinical phase. By the time a tumour is detected, it has already completed a significant portion of its life cycle.3. The smallest clinically detectable tumour is 1000 cells
This is far too few cells to be clinically detectable. The usual number required to be clinically detectable would be 109 cells.4. In most tumours, the growth fraction is >90%
The growth fraction is usually 4–80%, with an average of <20%. Even in some rapidly growing tumours, the growth fraction is only about 20%. 5. Tumour growth is characterised by contact inhibition
Contact inhibition is a mechanism that is lost in cancer cells. Tumour growth is actually characterised by uncontrolled cell growth and division.It is important to have a clear understanding of tumour growth in order to develop effective treatments and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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A young medical student is investigating the involvement of oncogenes in the formation of different types of cancers following an interview with a patient who has breast cancer linked to an oncogene. Which oncogene promotes the growth of breast cancer?
Your Answer: Human epidermal growth receptor 2 (HER2)
Explanation:Genes and Proteins Associated with Cancer: HER2, p53, BRCA1, IgE, and CEA
Cancer is a complex disease that can be caused by various genetic mutations and alterations. Some genes and proteins are associated with an increased risk of developing cancer, while others are used as markers to detect the presence of cancer. Here are some examples:
HER2: A mutated HER2 gene is an oncogene that promotes the growth of breast cancer cells. HER2-positive breast cancers tend to be more aggressive and require targeted treatments such as trastuzumab.
p53: The p53 gene produces a tumor suppressor protein that helps prevent the development of cancer. Loss of function or abnormal p53 is associated with an increased susceptibility to various malignancies.
BRCA1: BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene that produces proteins that help repair damaged DNA. Mutations in BRCA1 increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer in women.
IgE: Immunoglobulin E is an antibody produced by plasma cells and is not associated with cancer development.
CEA: Carcinoembryonic antigen is a tumor marker that may be elevated in various malignancies, including colorectal, lung, and breast cancer.
Understanding the role of genes and proteins in cancer development and detection can help with early diagnosis and targeted treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 56-year-old retired man with a history of chronic hepatitis B infection presents with jaundice and significant abdominal distention. The patient does not drink, and smokes ten cigarettes a day.
On examination, the patient is found to have ascites and hepatomegaly. The patient is admitted for further investigations; the results of one tumour marker test is suggestive of a possible hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
Which of the following tumour markers is usually raised in primary HCC?Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
Explanation:Understanding Tumour Markers: Types and Associated Cancers
Tumour markers are compounds whose blood levels increase due to the presence of a particular malignant tumour. They are useful for diagnosis and detecting recurrence. However, they are not always specific, and different tumours may secrete the same marker. Here are some common tumour markers and the cancers they are associated with:
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP): Associated with liver and testicular cancers.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): Associated with prostate cancer.
Chemical nature Name Associated tumour
Enzyme PSA
NSE
LDH Prostate
Small cell lung cancer
Non-specific, mainly haematological
Hormone HCG
Calcitonin
Parathormone Testes
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Parathyroid carcinoma
Immunoglobulin IgG, IgA, etc. Multiple myeloma
Glycoprotein AFP
CA-125
CA-19-9
CA-15-3
CEA Liver, also testes
Ovary
Pancreas
Breast
Colon, stomachHowever, not all primary liver malignancies have AFP as a tumour marker. Certain types of liver malignancy, such as fibrolamellar carcinoma, hepatoblastoma, and hepatic angiosarcoma, do not secrete this protein. The first two usually occur in young persons. Hepatomas can occur de novo but are usually present because of an underlying disease such as hepatitis B infection (chronic) or cirrhosis of the liver. Alcoholism, aflatoxin, and obesity are also risk factors for hepatoma.
CA-125 is associated with ovarian cancer, CA-19-9 with pancreatic cancer, and HCG with testicular cancer. Understanding tumour markers and their associated cancers can aid in early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their GP with complaints of worsening breathlessness and symptoms of ptosis and constriction of the pupil. The GP refers them for a chest x-ray, which reveals the presence of an apical mass. What is the term used to describe the cause of this person's condition?
Your Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Horner’s Syndrome and Pancoast Tumour
Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by ptosis and constriction of the pupil. However, in some cases, it can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung that invades the chest wall and brachial plexus. This lady is likely to have a Pancoast tumour as she presents with Horner’s syndrome. On the other hand, Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition where the pupil is larger than normal and slow to react to direct light. Peyronie’s disease is a hardening of the corpora cavernosa of the penis caused by scar tissue, while Pott’s cancer is a scrotal cancer caused by coal tar exposure. Wilms’ tumour, on the other hand, is a malignant tumour of the kidney that usually occurs in childhood.
In summary, Horner’s syndrome can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung. Other conditions that present differently from Horner’s syndrome include Holmes-Adie syndrome, Peyronie’s disease, Pott’s cancer, and Wilms’ tumour. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after her 38-year-old sister was diagnosed with breast cancer. She is worried about her own risk of developing the disease, especially since their mother passed away from breast cancer at age 41. The patient requests a referral for genetic testing to determine if she carries mutations commonly associated with inherited breast cancer.
In which genes are these mutations most frequently found?Your Answer: BRCA2
Explanation:Genetic Mutations and Their Associated Risks
Inherited genetic mutations can increase the risk of developing certain diseases, including cancer. The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes are associated with an increased incidence of breast and ovarian cancers, with a 50% chance of inheritance from a parent. Mutations in these genes significantly increase the lifetime risk of developing these malignancies, with women with the BRCA1 mutation having a 72% risk of developing breast cancer and a 44% risk of developing ovarian cancer. The APC gene is associated with familial polyposis and an increased risk of colorectal cancer, while mutations in the PKD1 gene are associated with polycystic kidney disease. The delta F508 gene mutation causes cystic fibrosis, and mutations in the RAS gene are implicated in a wide range of malignancies. Understanding these genetic mutations and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention efforts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 76-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency confused, dehydrated and constipated. He is complaining of significant pain down his left flank. He was diagnosed with multiple myeloma 6 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment. He is treated with aggressive fluid resuscitation and recovers promptly.
Elevated levels of which biochemical parameter would has caused this presentation?Your Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Electrolyte Imbalances and their Symptoms
Calcium: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy is a common cause of lytic bone lesions in multiple myeloma patients. Symptoms include dehydration, which can be prevented with aggressive fluid resuscitation. Treatment involves intravenous bisphosphonate or denosumab and calcitonin to inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption.
Vitamin D: Over-medication with vitamin D can lead to hypervitaminosis D, which presents similar symptoms to hypercalcaemia. However, hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with lytic bone lesions.
Phosphate: Hyperphosphataemia can be caused by impaired renal excretion or massive extracellular phosphate loadings. Symptoms are similar to hypercalcaemia, but hypercalcaemia of malignancy is more likely in patients with multiple myeloma.
Sodium: Hypernatraemia presents with symptoms of thirst, lethargy, weakness, and irritability.
Potassium: Hyperkalaemia can present with symptoms of chest pain, palpitations, and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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A child with leukaemia is given etoposide.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Topoisomerase II inhibitor
Explanation:Chemotherapy agents can be classified into different categories based on their mechanism of action. Topoisomerase II inhibitors, such as etoposide, prevent the re-ligation of DNA strands by forming a complex with the topoisomerase II enzyme, leading to cell cycle arrest and apoptosis. Microtubule inhibitors, like paclitaxel and vinblastine, block the formation of microtubules, which are essential for cell proliferation and signaling, resulting in cell death. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, interfere with DNA replication by attaching an alkyl group to the guanine base of DNA. Antimetabolites, including base analogues, nucleoside analogues, nucleotide analogues, and antifolates, disrupt cell metabolism and inhibit DNA replication and repair. Topoisomerase I inhibitors, like irinotecan and topotecan, inhibit DNA transcription and replication by binding to the topoisomerase I-DNA complex. These chemotherapy agents have various side effects, including bone marrow suppression, hair loss, nausea, vomiting, and allergic reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 70-year-old man undergoing chemo-radiotherapy treatment for prostate cancer complains of poor appetite and nausea secondary to his treatment. He is finding it difficult to cope with his illness and has become depressed.
Which of the following may be the most suitable appetite stimulant for him?Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Medications for Appetite Stimulation and Mood Improvement in a Patient with Anorexia
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant that can also stimulate appetite, making it a suitable option for a patient with anorexia who needs both mood improvement and increased food intake. Dexamethasone can also be used to boost appetite in the short term. However, metoclopramide is not effective for mood improvement and would require dual therapy with another medication. Megestrol, a progestin, is indicated for anorexia, cachexia, or significant weight loss, but it does not address mood issues. Trazodone, on the other hand, is an antidepressant but may not be the first choice for a patient with anorexia as it can cause weight loss and anorexia as side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old patient came to his doctor with a lump in his neck. After evaluation, he was referred for a biopsy. The biopsy results revealed the presence of pleomorphic giant cells with binuclear cells. What is the most probable illness?
Your Answer: Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Explanation:Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that typically affects individuals between the ages of 15 and 35 years and those above the age of 55. Common symptoms include unexplained fever, weight loss, fatigue, and lymphadenopathy in the neck, axilla, and groin. Diagnosis is made through fine needle aspiration of enlarged lymph nodes, which reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, giant cells with a multilobed or bilobed nucleus and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli. Risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma include Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection, HIV infection, and a family history of the disease. Management involves radiation and chemotherapy, and survival rates have been improving, with 5-year survival reaching 85% in some recent studies.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include tuberculosis (TB), non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). TB typically presents with respiratory problems, a productive cough, and night fevers, but can also cause lymphadenopathy. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a collective term used to describe all lymphomas apart from Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and is characterized by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells. ALL is a rapidly progressive acute leukemia associated with an increase in the number of immature lymphoid cells called lymphoblasts, and can present with general weakness, anemia, lymphadenopathy, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly.
EBV is a virus that causes infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever. It is transmitted through infected saliva and mostly affects young individuals, presenting with cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, tonsillar enlargement with white exudate, and palatal petechiae. EBV is also associated with some forms of lymphoma, predominantly Burkitt’s lymphoma, but also Hodgkin’s and diffuse large B cell lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 22
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A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with proximal muscle weakness. He has noticed difficulty in trying to get up out of a chair. There is a past history of obstructive airways disease and a 35-pack-year cigarette history. On examination, you notice that he has marked weakness of the pelvic and shoulder girdle and decreased tendon reflexes.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
sodium (Na+) 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 80 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
You suspect that he may have an underlying malignancy with a paraneoplastic syndrome. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Carcinoma of the bronchus
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes: Neurological Manifestations in Different Types of Cancer
Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neurological manifestation that affects around 6% of cancer patients, particularly those with bronchial and ovarian tumors. This syndrome is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, impotence, and peripheral neuropathy. The cause of Lambert-Eaton is unknown, but it may be due to anti-tumor antibodies that cross-react with calcium channels involved in neuromuscular function. Resection of the primary tumor or use of immunosuppressive agents may lead to an improvement in symptoms for some patients.
In contrast, neurological manifestations are rare in colorectal carcinoma, with only a few case reports of patients presenting with neurological symptoms as a paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to colorectal carcinoma. Bronchial carcinoid is more likely to cause endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes, such as Cushing’s syndrome. Renal cell carcinoma is also more likely to cause an endocrine picture rather than neurological manifestations. Similarly, pancreatic tumors are more commonly associated with endocrinological manifestations than neurological presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 23
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A 67-year-old man visits his primary care clinic after being diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer. He reports experiencing widespread pain, even though he is taking 30 mg of morphine tablets twice daily. Upon examination, his lungs are clear, and he does not display any neurological abnormalities. He denies having any headaches.
What is the most probable site of metastasis in this patient?Your Answer: Bone
Explanation:Metastasis in Prostate Cancer: Common Sites and Symptoms
Prostate cancer can spread to other parts of the body, a process known as metastasis. The most common site for metastases in prostate cancer is the bone, accounting for 84% of cases. Symptoms of bone metastases include bone pain, which can be managed with analgesics and palliative radiotherapy. Bisphosphonates may also be used. Brain metastases are rare in prostate cancer and typically present with headaches and neurological symptoms. Metastases to the pancreas are also uncommon, accounting for only 2% of cases. Lung metastases occur in about 9.1% of cases, while liver metastases are reported in 10.2% of cases and may present with jaundice, loss of appetite, and abdominal swelling. Understanding the common sites and symptoms of metastases in prostate cancer can aid in early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presented to the hospital with complaints of hoarseness and unexplained weight loss. Upon laryngoscopy, it was found that he had paralysis of the right vocal cord. A chest radiograph was ordered to further investigate the lesion. Which radiographic view would be most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Aortic arch
Correct Answer: Lung apex
Explanation:The Impact of Lesions on the Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: A Guide by An AI Language Model
The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a crucial nerve that innervates the vocal folds. Lesions along its course can cause dysfunction and lead to various symptoms. Here is a guide on how lesions in different regions of the body can impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
Lung Apex:
A lesion in the apex of the lung, known as a Pancoast tumor, can affect the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which loops under the right subclavian artery at the apex of the right lung. This can cause dysfunction of the right vocal fold and may suggest malignancy, especially if accompanied by weight loss.Aortic Arch:
The right recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery, and the left at the aortic arch. Therefore, lesions at the aortic arch can affect both the left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves.Basal Region of the Lung:
Lesions at the base of the lungs would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches from the vagus nerve at the level of the aortic arch and returns upwards.Hilar Region of the Right Lung:
Lesions in the hilar region of the right lung would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery and the left at the aortic arch.Retrocardiac:
Lesions in the retrocardiac region would be unlikely to impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve unless they are very large, as the nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder after presenting with haematuria. Are there any recognised occupational exposures that increase the risk of developing bladder cancer?
Your Answer: Aniline dye
Explanation:Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the lower abdomen that stores urine. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing bladder cancer. One of the most significant risk factors is smoking, which can cause harmful chemicals to accumulate in the bladder and increase the risk of cancer. Exposure to aniline dyes in the printing and textile industry, as well as rubber manufacture, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Additionally, the use of cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug, can increase the risk of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis, a parasitic infection that is common in certain parts of the world, is also a risk factor for bladder cancer, particularly for squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department feeling generally unwell, with fever and a cough. She had chemotherapy for her breast cancer 4 days ago. There are no known drug allergies. On examination:
Investigation Result Normal value
Blood pressure (BP) 108/70 < 120/80 mmHg
Heart rate (HR) 101 60–100 beats/min
Respiratory rate (RR) 26 12–18 breaths/min
Sats 96% on air 94–98%
Temperature 38.7ºC 36.1–37.2°C
There is some scattered crepitations at the right lung base. You check on the system and see that bloods were done 2 days ago, and showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 120 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.8 × 109/l 1.7–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.6 × 109/l 0.0–0.4 × 109/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate next-step management?Your Answer: Start IV piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin)
Explanation:Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Post-Chemotherapy Patient
When a patient presents with neutropenic sepsis post-chemotherapy, it is crucial to start a broad-spectrum antibiotic immediately, without waiting for blood results or investigations. Tazocin is the first-line antibiotic recommended by NICE, but local hospital guidelines should be consulted if there is a known penicillin allergy. The Sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated promptly, and antibiotics should be administered within an hour of presentation. Once the patient is stabilized, an urgent chest X-ray can be performed. While granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) administration may have a role in selected patients, it is not routinely used in neutropenic sepsis. Consultation with the haematology team is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 27
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A 75-year-old man comes to the Cancer Outpatient Department complaining of severe back pain. He reports that the NSAIDs and opioids he has been taking are not providing relief. The patient has been diagnosed with CRPC that is advancing rapidly. He has completed a full course of taxane chemotherapy and imaging has revealed metastases in his vertebrae and organs.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: External beam radiation therapy (EBRT)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pain Relief in Metastatic Prostate Cancer Patients
External beam radiation therapy (EBRT) is the preferred treatment for pain relief in men with castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC). It has a success rate of 60-80% in providing complete or partial pain relief in palliative care management. Bisphosphonates can also be prescribed in combination with other agents for mild to moderate pain relief in hormone-resistant prostate cancer patients. Enzalutamide, an antineoplastic, antiandrogen systemic drug, is not preferred in rapidly progressing cases of CRPC. Radium-223, an alpha-particle-emitting radiopharmaceutical agent, is contraindicated in cases with visceral metastases. Stereotactic body radiotherapy (STBRT) is the preferred modality for pain relief in metastatic prostate cancer patients with longer survival times, using targeted irradiation to minimize damage to adjacent normal tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presented with non-specific abdominal discomfort lasting for 8 months. Physical examination revealed no lymphadenopathy, abdominal masses or organomegaly, and bowel sounds were present. A stool sample tested negative for occult blood. Imaging with abdominal CT revealed a 22-cm retroperitoneal soft tissue mass that was obstructing the left psoas muscle. What is the most probable neoplasm in this case?
Your Answer: Liposarcoma
Explanation:Liposarcoma is a type of sarcoma that commonly affects adults in their 40s to 60s. It typically develops in the deep soft tissues of the proximal extremities and retroperitoneum and can grow into large tumors. There are different histological variants of liposarcoma, with varying degrees of malignancy. All types of liposarcoma have a high likelihood of recurring locally unless completely removed.
Adenocarcinoma is a type of cancer that originates from glandular tissue in organs such as the oesophagus, pancreas, prostate, cervix, stomach, colorectal, and lungs. It does not arise in soft tissues.
Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur in younger patients and often arises from pre-existing moles. Suspicious signs include changes in size, shape, color, itching, crusting, bleeding, inflammation, or sensory changes. Melanomas can metastasize.
Hamartoma is a benign neoplasm that consists of normal tissues in a disorganized mass. The most common type is pulmonary hamartoma, which grows at the same rate as surrounding tissue.
Lymphoma is a type of cancer that results from the malignant proliferation of lymphocytes. It typically presents with lymphadenopathy and constitutional symptoms, and may also involve organs such as the liver and spleen. Matted nodes of this size are unlikely to be caused by lymphoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 29
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A 55-year-old man with known squamous-cell lung cancer presents with facial swelling, shortness of breath and a headache. On examination, he has a raised jugular venous pressure (JVP) and inspiratory stridor when he raises his hands above his head for one minute. Chest X-ray and computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest confirm superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction.
Which of the following treatments will provide the best long-term symptom relief?Your Answer: Superior vena cava (SVC) stenting
Explanation:Treatment Options for Superior Vena Cava Obstruction in Lung Cancer Patients
Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is a common complication in patients with lung cancer. While dexamethasone infusion is the immediate treatment to reduce swelling, it only provides short-term relief. The best option for long-term symptom relief is SVC stenting, which prevents any obstruction. However, it is not always successful, and symptoms may reoccur if the tumour re-compresses the SVC. Inhaled daily steroids and inhaled beta-agonists are not effective in treating SVC obstruction. Brachytherapy is used to treat prostatic cancer and not squamous cell lung cancer. Therefore, SVC stenting remains the best option for long-term symptom relief in lung cancer patients with SVC obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 30
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of stage III endometrial cancer and mucinous pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. The pain has been ongoing for the last four weeks but has worsened in the last three days as she has run out of her analgesia. She denies nausea or vomiting and she has been opening her bowels regularly. She has not been able to get an appointment with the general practitioner so that the pain medication could be prescribed. She was admitted to a hospice last week for end-of-life care.
Examination reveals a distended abdomen. There is shifting dullness present. Bowel sounds are present. The abdomen is mildly tender to touch. Her legs are also oedematous.
Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management?Your Answer: Paracentesis
Explanation:Appropriate Procedures for a Hospice Patient
When a patient is admitted to hospice care, their medical treatment shifts towards end-of-life measures and comfort. In this context, certain procedures may not be appropriate or beneficial for the patient.
Paracentesis is a procedure that may be helpful for a hospice patient experiencing pain due to ascites. This condition is often caused by low albumin levels, which can be due to malabsorption or liver disease.
Colonoscopy and exploratory laparotomy are invasive procedures that require sedation and post-operative pain management. These procedures are unlikely to provide added benefit to a patient with a terminal diagnosis who is on comfort measures.
Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a simpler procedure that may be used to investigate for colon masses in patients with iron deficiency anemia.
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy may be considered for symptom relief, but is not typically indicated for a hospice patient.
In summary, the appropriateness of a medical procedure for a hospice patient should be carefully considered in the context of their end-of-life care plan.
Appropriate Procedures for a Hospice Patient
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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