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  • Question 1 - A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty in breathing. You observe that the patient was diagnosed with mitral regurgitation a year ago. Which arrhythmia is commonly seen in individuals with chronic mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      People with chronic mitral regurgitation often experience atrial fibrillation.

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35 year old individual is brought into the emergency room by paramedics...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old individual is brought into the emergency room by paramedics after being rescued from a lake. The individual has a core temperature of 29.5ºC. CPR is currently being performed. In a patient with severe hypothermia, how many defibrillation attempts should be conducted?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      When performing CPR on patients with severe hypothermia, it is recommended to limit defibrillation attempts to three. Hypothermia is characterized by a core temperature below 35ºC, with mild hypothermia ranging from 32-35ºC, moderate hypothermia from 30-32ºC, and severe hypothermia below 30ºC. This condition often occurs after drowning. If the individual’s core body temperature is below 30°C, it is advised to administer a maximum of three shocks using the highest output of the defibrillator.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old boy is brought to the emergency department by his father complaining of stomach pain. The boy has had a sore throat for 2-3 days before the stomach pain began. The patient has normal vital signs and is able to provide a clear history. During the examination, you observe a rash on his legs that consists of small raised red-purple spots that do not fade when pressure is applied. His abdomen is soft with no signs of guarding or palpable organ enlargement.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Renal disease is not commonly seen as a presenting sign or symptom, but approximately a certain percentage of individuals may develop it. In the case of meningococcal septicaemia, patients usually experience acute illness along with abnormal observations and confusion. Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is known to cause easy bruising and nosebleeds, but it does not have the same distribution pattern as HSP and does not come with abdominal pain or joint pain. On the other hand, viral urticaria and roseola typically result in a rash that blanches.

      Further Reading:

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is commonly seen in children following an infection, with 90% of cases occurring in children under 10 years of age. The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal upset, and polyarthritis. Renal involvement occurs in approximately 50% of cases, with renal impairment typically occurring within 1 day to 1 month after the onset of other symptoms. However, renal impairment is usually mild and self-limiting, although 10% of cases may have serious renal impairment at presentation and 1% may progress to end-stage kidney failure long term. Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, and treatment for nephropathy is generally supportive. The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, with the condition typically resolving fully within 4 weeks, especially in children without renal involvement. However, around 1/3rd of patients may experience relapses, which can occur for several months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      872.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department following a fall which occurred while the patient was getting out of bed. The patient complains of feeling dizzy as he got out of bed before experiencing tunnel vision and briefly losing consciousness. The patient is certain he only blacked out for a few seconds as the time on the bedside clock had not changed. The patient informs you that he has had several similar episodes over the past few months when getting out of bed, but most of the time he only feels dizzy and doesn't faint. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control or biting his tongue. An ECG is performed which shows normal sinus rhythm. You note the patient takes the following medication:
      Lisinopril 10 mg OD
      Fluoxetine 20 mg OD

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic hypotension

      Explanation:

      Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where patients feel lightheaded and may experience tunnel vision when they stand up from a lying down position. These symptoms are often worse in the morning. The patient’s history of recurrent episodes after being in a supine position for a long time strongly suggests orthostatic hypotension. There are no signs of epilepsy, such as deja-vu or jambs vu prodrome, tongue biting, loss of bladder or bowel control, or postictal confusion. The normal ECG and consistent timing of symptoms make postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (PAF) less likely. There are no neurological deficits to suggest a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The prodromal symptoms, such as tunnel vision and lightheadedness, align more with orthostatic hypotension rather than vasovagal syncope, which typically occurs after long periods of standing and is characterized by feeling hot and sweaty. Although carotid sinus syndrome could be considered as a differential diagnosis, as the patient’s head turning on getting out of bed may trigger symptoms, it is not one of the options.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.

      When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.

      During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.

      There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      172.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old office worker presents with a few weeks history of lower back...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old office worker presents with a few weeks history of lower back pain. He is experiencing significant pain and has difficulty moving. You discuss the available treatment options.
      According to the current NICE guidelines, which of the following pharmacological treatments is recommended? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen alone

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assess a patient who has been admitted to the resuscitation unit in...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who has been admitted to the resuscitation unit in an obtunded state. The patient is wearing a MedicAlert bracelet, indicating a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
      Which ONE biochemical characteristic would you NOT anticipate observing in this particular condition?

      Your Answer: Low serum renin level

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is characterized by several classical biochemical features. One of these features is an increase in ACTH levels, which is a hormone that stimulates the production of cortisol. Additionally, individuals with Addison’s disease often have elevated serum renin levels, which is an enzyme involved in regulating blood pressure. Another common biochemical feature is hyponatremia, which refers to low levels of sodium in the blood. Hyperkalemia, or high levels of potassium, is also frequently observed in individuals with Addison’s disease. Furthermore, hypercalcemia, an excess of calcium in the blood, may be present. Hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar levels, is another characteristic feature. Lastly, metabolic acidosis, a condition where the body produces too much acid or cannot eliminate it properly, is often seen in individuals with Addison’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the eye clinic with a sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the eye clinic with a sudden onset of acute follicular conjunctivitis in his right eye. He complains of severe eye pain and has blurred vision with a lot of watery discharge. During the examination, pseudomembrane formation is observed in his eye, and he has preauricular lymphadenopathy on the right side. The doctor informs him that he has been diagnosed with 'epidemic keratoconjunctivitis'.
      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism in this case?

      Your Answer: Adenovirus

      Explanation:

      Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis is a type of viral conjunctivitis that is primarily caused by adenoviruses. This highly contagious condition tends to occur in outbreaks. It is a common cause of acute conjunctivitis and has distinct clinical features. These include the sudden onset of acute follicular conjunctivitis, severe pain in the affected eye, a significant amount of watery discharge, the presence of subconjunctival hemorrhages, potential visual changes, hyperemia and chemosis, and the possibility of membranes and pseudomembranes forming. Additionally, ipsilateral preauricular lymphadenopathy may be observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For...

    Correct

    • A 14-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For the past three days, she has been experiencing severe diarrhea. She has not had any wet diapers today and is lethargic and not behaving as usual. She was recently weighed by her pediatrician's nurse and was 9 kg. During examination, she has dry mucous membranes and decreased skin elasticity, but her capillary refill time (CRT) is normal and her vital signs are within normal range.
      What is her approximate fluid loss?

      Your Answer: 400 ml

      Explanation:

      Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. When we say 5% dehydration, it means that the body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 ml of fluid per kilogram. Similarly, 10% dehydration implies a fluid loss of 100 ml per kilogram of body weight.

      In the case of this child, who is 5% dehydrated, we can estimate that she has lost 50 ml of fluid per kilogram. Considering her weight of 8 kilograms, her estimated fluid loss would be 400 ml.

      The clinical features of dehydration and shock are summarized below:

      Dehydration (5%):
      – The child appears unwell
      – Normal heart rate or tachycardia
      – Normal respiratory rate or tachypnea
      – Normal peripheral pulses
      – Normal or mildly prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
      – Normal blood pressure
      – Warm extremities
      – Decreased urine output
      – Reduced skin turgor
      – Sunken eyes
      – Depressed fontanelle
      – Dry mucous membranes

      Clinical shock (10%):
      – Pale, lethargic, mottled appearance
      – Tachycardia
      – Tachypnea
      – Weak peripheral pulses
      – Prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
      – Hypotension
      – Cold extremities
      – Decreased urine output
      – Decreased level of consciousness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 4 week old female is brought into the emergency department by worried...

    Correct

    • A 4 week old female is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. They inform you that the patient had vomited a few times after feeds over the past week, but in the last day or two, the patient has been vomiting 30-45 minutes after every feed. The vomiting is non-bilious and projectile. You observe that the child is solely bottle fed.

      What investigation would be the most helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The diagnostic criteria for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) on ultrasound are as follows: the thickness of the pyloric muscle should be greater than 3 mm, the longitudinal length of the pylorus should be greater than 15-17 mm, the volume of the pylorus should be greater than 1.5 cm3, and the transverse diameter of the pylorus should be greater than 13 mm.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a severe...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a severe headache. There is currently a heatwave in the area, and he has been working outdoors in heavy protective gear. His skin feels dry and hot, he is breathing rapidly, and his core temperature is currently 41.7°C. He is extremely restless and experiencing severe shivering.
      What is the most suitable initial course of treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a core temperature higher than 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. There are two forms of heat stroke: classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs during high environmental temperatures and typically affects elderly patients during heat waves, and exertional heat stroke, which occurs during strenuous physical exercise in hot conditions, such as endurance athletes competing in hot weather.

      The typical clinical features of heat stroke include a core temperature greater than 40.6°C, extreme fatigue, headache, syncope, facial flushing, vomiting, and diarrhea. The skin is usually hot and dry, although sweating can occur in around 50% of cases of exertional heat stroke. The loss of the ability to sweat is a late and concerning sign. Hyperventilation is almost always present. Cardiovascular dysfunction, including arrhythmias, hypotension, and shock, as well as respiratory dysfunction, including acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), can occur. Central nervous system dysfunction, such as seizures and coma, may also be observed. If the temperature rises above 41.5°C, multi-organ failure, coagulopathy, and rhabdomyolysis can occur.

      In the management of heat stroke, benzodiazepines like diazepam can be helpful in patients with agitation and/or shivering. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases, patients may require paralysis. Antipyretics like paracetamol, aspirin, and NSAIDs have no role in the treatment of heat stroke. They do not work because the hypothalamus, which regulates body temperature, is healthy but overloaded in heat stroke. Moreover, antipyretics may actually be harmful in patients who develop complications like liver, blood, and kidney problems as they can worsen bleeding tendencies.

      Dantrolene is commonly used in the treatment of heat stroke, although there is currently no high-level evidence to support its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects, including lowering the seizure threshold, interfering with thermoregulation, causing anticholinergic side effects, hypotension, and hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department due to a worsening of their symptoms. Your consultant administers an initial dose of IV aminophylline, and the patient's symptoms start to improve. Your consultant requests that you monitor the patient's theophylline levels after a suitable period of time.
      What is the recommended therapeutic range for theophylline in plasma?

      Your Answer: 1-2 mg/litre

      Correct Answer: 10-20 mg/litre

      Explanation:

      In order to achieve satisfactory bronchodilation, most individuals require a plasma theophylline concentration of 10-20 mg/litre (55-110 micromol/litre). However, it is possible for a lower concentration to still be effective. Adverse effects can occur within the range of 10-20 mg/litre, and their frequency and severity increase when concentrations exceed 20 mg/litre.

      To measure plasma theophylline concentration, a blood sample should be taken five days after starting oral treatment and at least three days after any dose adjustment. For modified-release preparations, the blood sample should typically be taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose (specific sampling times may vary, so it is advisable to consult local guidelines). If aminophylline is administered intravenously, a blood sample should be taken 4-6 hours after initiating treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an excessive amount of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further inquiry, you uncover that he has overdosed on quetiapine. You consult with your supervisor about the case, and she clarifies that the symptoms of this type of poisoning are caused by the blocking of central and peripheral acetylcholine receptors.
      What is one of the clinical effects that arises from the blockade of central acetylcholine receptors?

      Your Answer: Urinary retention

      Correct Answer: Tremor

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.

      The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with complaints of migraines and feeling nauseous. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with complaints of migraines and feeling nauseous. After undergoing an MRI, it is revealed that she has a tumor on the left side of her cerebellum that shows minimal contrast enhancement.
      Which of the following is NOT expected to be impacted the most?

      Your Answer: Motor learning

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous facial expression

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum, also known as the ‘little brain’ in Latin, is a structure within the central nervous system. It is situated at the posterior part of the brain, beneath the occipital and temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex. Despite its relatively small size, the cerebellum houses more than half of the total number of neurons in the brain, accounting for about 10% of its volume.

      The cerebellum serves several crucial functions. It is responsible for maintaining balance and posture, ensuring that we stay upright and steady. Additionally, it plays a vital role in coordinating voluntary movements, allowing us to perform tasks that require precise and synchronized actions. The cerebellum is also involved in motor learning, enabling us to acquire new skills and improve our motor abilities over time. Furthermore, it contributes to cognitive function, supporting various mental processes.

      It is important to note that spontaneous facial expression is controlled by the frontal lobes and is unlikely to be impacted by a tumor located in the cerebellum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 20 minutes. He has already received one dose of rectal diazepam from the ambulance crew while on the way. Intravenous access has been established, his bowel movement is 4.5, and he weighs 25 kg.

      Based on the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next course of action in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: IV lorazepam 2.5 mg

      Explanation:

      The current algorithm for treating a convulsing child, known as APLS, is as follows:

      Step 1 (5 minutes after the start of convulsion):
      If a child has been convulsing for 5 minutes or more, they should be given an initial dose of benzodiazepine. This can be administered intravenously (IV) or intraosseously (IO) if vascular access is available. Alternatively, buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam can be given if vascular access is not available.

      Step 2 (10 minutes after the start of step 1):
      If the convulsion continues for another 10 minutes, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. It is also important to seek senior help at this point.

      Step 3 (10 minutes after the start of step 2):
      At this stage, it is necessary to involve senior medical personnel to reassess the child and provide guidance on further management. The recommended approach is as follows:
      – If the child is not already receiving phenytoin, a phenytoin infusion should be initiated. This involves administering 20 mg/kg of phenytoin intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
      – If the child is already taking phenytoin, phenobarbitone can be used instead. The recommended dosage is 20 mg/kg administered intravenously over 20 minutes.
      – In the meantime, rectal paraldehyde can be considered at a dose of 0.8 ml/kg of the 50:50 mixture while preparing the infusion.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after the start of step 3):
      If the child is still experiencing convulsions at this stage, it is crucial to have an anaesthetist present. A rapid sequence induction with thiopental is recommended for further management.

      In the case of this specific child who weighs 25 kg and has already received a dose of lorazepam, they should receive a second dose of 0.1 mg/kg, which amounts to 2.5 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28 year old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault by her spouse. The patient reports being punched in the face and experiencing severe pain while attempting to open her mouth. Upon examination of the oral cavity, a hematoma is observed on the buccal mucosa when lifting the patient's tongue, along with a 1 cm laceration on the adjacent gum mucosa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sublingual duct haematoma

      Correct Answer: Fracture of the mandible

      Explanation:

      A common indication of a mandibular fracture is the presence of a haematoma in the sublingual space after trauma. If there are lacerations in the gum mucosa, it is highly likely that the mandible is fractured and it is an open fracture.

      Further Reading:

      Mandibular fractures are a common type of facial fracture that often present to the emergency department. The mandible, or lower jaw, is formed by the fusion of two hemimandibles and articulates with the temporomandibular joints. Fractures of the mandible are typically caused by direct lateral force and often involve multiple fracture sites, including the body, condylar head and neck, and ramus.

      When assessing for mandibular fractures, clinicians should use a look, feel, move method similar to musculoskeletal examination. However, it is important to note that TMJ effusion, muscle spasm, and pain can make moving the mandible difficult. Key signs of mandibular fracture include malocclusion, trismus (limited mouth opening), pain with the mouth closed, broken teeth, step deformity, hematoma in the sublingual space, lacerations to the gum mucosa, and bleeding from the ear.

      The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule uses the absence of five exam findings (malocclusion, trismus, broken teeth, pain with closed mouth, and step deformity) to exclude mandibular fracture. This rule has been found to be 100% sensitive and 39% specific in detecting mandibular fractures. Imaging is an important tool in diagnosing mandibular fractures, with an OPG X-ray considered the best initial imaging for TMJ dislocation and mandibular fracture. CT may be used if the OPG is technically difficult or if a CT is being performed for other reasons, such as a head injury.

      It is important to note that head injury often accompanies mandibular fractures, so a thorough head injury assessment should be performed. Additionally, about a quarter of patients with mandibular fractures will also have a fracture of at least one other facial bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      468.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman from Southeast Asia comes in with left-sided nasal blockage and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman from Southeast Asia comes in with left-sided nasal blockage and hearing difficulties in her left ear that have persisted for six weeks. She also reports experiencing postnasal drip. During the examination, a prominent palpable lymph node is found in the upper jugular chain on the left side.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a blockage in one nostril, hearing loss in one ear, and a newly developed hearing impairment. Additionally, there is a noticeable swollen lymph node in the upper jugular chain on the affected side. These symptoms strongly suggest the possibility of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is not very common in the U.K., but it has a higher occurrence in individuals from Southeast Asia. In this region, the disease is often linked to the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It typically affects individuals between the ages of 40 and 70.
      The most common signs of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include a lump in the neck (present in approximately 80% of cases), one-sided nasal blockage (present in approximately 60% of cases), one-sided deafness (present in approximately 50% of cases), and post-nasal discharge (present in approximately 50% of cases). Lymph nodes in the upper jugular chain are often detectable.
      It is crucial to refer this patient urgently using a suspected cancer referral pathway to ensure an appointment within two weeks.
      For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency room after an...

    Correct

    • A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency room after an accident at a construction site resulting in a severe blunt abdominal injury. The patient is experiencing hypotension. The surgical team is preparing for immediate transfer to the operating room. The consultant requests you to prepare intravenous ketamine for rapid sequence induction. What would be the appropriate initial dose of IV ketamine for this patient?

      Your Answer: 1.5 mg/kg IV

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of ketamine for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is typically 1.5 mg/kg administered intravenously. This dosage is commonly used in UK medical centers. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), intravenous induction doses of ketamine range from 0.5 to 2 mg/kg for longer procedures and 1 to 4.5 mg/kg for shorter procedures. Ketamine is known to cause an increase in blood pressure, making it a suitable option for individuals with hemodynamic compromise.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe vomiting for the past 10 hours....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe vomiting for the past 10 hours. She informs you that she consumed Chinese takeout the night before. She is unable to tolerate any liquids by mouth, so you initiate an intravenous saline infusion.
      What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with severe vomiting?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      During CPR of a hypothermic patient, it is important to follow specific guidelines. If the patient’s core temperature is below 30ºC, resuscitation drugs, such as adrenaline, should be withheld. Once the core temperature rises above 30ºC, cardiac arrest drugs can be administered. However, if the patient’s temperature is between 30-35ºC, the interval for administering cardiac arrest drugs should be doubled. For example, adrenaline should be given every 6-10 minutes instead of the usual 3-5 minutes for a normothermic patient.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.

      ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.

      Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.

      Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are part of the team working on a child with severe burns....

    Correct

    • You are part of the team working on a child with severe burns. The child has a suspected inhalation injury and needs to be intubated before being transferred to the local burns unit. During direct laryngoscopy, which classification system is used to evaluate the glottic opening?

      Your Answer: Cormack and Lehane classification

      Explanation:

      The tracheal opening can be classified using the Cormack-Lehane grading system. This system categorizes the views obtained through direct laryngoscopy based on the structures that are visible. More information about this classification system can be found in the notes provided below.

      Further Reading:

      A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.

      Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.

      If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.

      Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a...

    Correct

    • A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a history of substance abuse. In the waiting area, they become aggressive and start demanding to be seen immediately. When this does not happen right away, they begin to shout and threaten some of the other patients in the waiting area.
      What steps should you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the reception staff to call security

      Explanation:

      In a clinical setting, the prioritization of patient safety and the safety of staff members is crucial. Violence against other patients and health professionals is not tolerated. However, it is important to consider that the patient in question may be intoxicated or experiencing delirium tremens, which could impair their insight into their own behavior.

      To address this situation, it would be wise to call local security as a precautionary measure. This action can serve as a backup if additional assistance is required. However, involving the police at this stage may escalate the situation unnecessarily and potentially agitate the patient further.

      Administering sedation to the patient without understanding their medical history or gathering more information would not be appropriate. It is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the patient’s condition before considering any interventions.

      Similarly, asking the patient to leave the department immediately could potentially worsen the situation. It is important to approach the situation with caution and consider alternative strategies to de-escalate the situation effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the hospital where...

    Incorrect

    • There has been a car accident involving multiple individuals near the hospital where you are currently employed. You are part of the team responsible for initial assessment at the scene of the incident.
      Who among the following patients would be classified as P3 status?

      Your Answer: A person with no apparent injuries requiring no medical intervention

      Correct Answer: A ‘walking wounded’ patient with minor injuries requiring treatment

      Explanation:

      Triage is a crucial process that involves determining the priority of patients’ treatment based on the severity of their condition and their chances of recovery. Its purpose is to ensure that limited resources are used efficiently, maximizing the number of lives saved. During a major incident, primary triage takes place in the bronze area, which is located within the inner cordon.

      In the context of a major incident, priorities are assigned numbers from 1 to 3, with 1 being the highest priority. These priorities are also color-coded for easy identification:
      – P1: Immediate priority. This category includes patients who require immediate life-saving intervention to prevent death. They are color-coded red.
      – P2: Intermediate priority. Patients in this group also require significant interventions, but their treatment can be delayed for a few hours. They are color-coded yellow.
      – P3: Delayed priority. Patients in this category require medical treatment, but it can be safely delayed. This category also includes walking wounded individuals. The classification as P3 is based on the motor score of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which predicts a favorable outcome. They are color-coded green.

      The fourth classification is for deceased individuals. It is important to identify and classify them to prevent the unnecessary use of limited resources on those who cannot be helped. Dead bodies should be left in their current location, both to avoid wasting resources and because the area may be considered a crime scene. Deceased individuals are color-coded black.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      89.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high temperature and feels very nauseous. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa. You suspect she may have acute appendicitis.
      What is the most frequent location of the appendix's tip?

      Your Answer: Ascending retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The appendix is a slender and curved tube that is attached to the back and middle part of the caecum. It has a small triangular tissue called the mesoappendix that holds it in place from the tissue of the terminal ileum.

      Although it contains a significant amount of lymphoid tissue, the appendix does not serve any important function in humans. The position of the free end of the appendix can vary greatly. There are five main locations where it can be found, with the most common being the retrocaecal and subcaecal positions.

      The distribution of these positions is as follows:

      – Ascending retrocaecal (64%)
      – Subcaecal (32%)
      – Transverse retrocaecal (2%)
      – Ascending preileal (1%)
      – Ascending retroileal (0.5%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old woman comes in with bloody diarrhea that has been persisting for...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes in with bloody diarrhea that has been persisting for a few days. She has recently returned from a backpacking adventure across various Middle Eastern and African nations.
      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Correct Answer: Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s diarrhoea (TD) is a prevalent illness that affects travellers all around the world. It is estimated that up to 50% of Europeans who spend two or more weeks in developing regions experience TD. This condition is characterized by the passage of three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period. Typically, individuals with TD also experience abdominal cramps, nausea, and bloating.

      In most cases of gastroenteritis, there is no need for stool microscopy and culture. However, it is advisable to arrange these tests if the patient has recently returned from overseas travel, is severely ill, has prolonged symptoms, comes from an institution, or works as a food handler.

      Bacteria are responsible for approximately 80% of TD cases, while viruses and protozoa account for the remaining cases. The most common causative organism is Escherichia coli, with Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli being the strain most likely to cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Infective causes of bloody diarrhoea include Campylobacter jejuni, Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Clostridium difficile, Yersinia spp., Schistosomiasis, and Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain and a small amount...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain and a small amount of rectal bleeding. During the examination, she has a slight fever (38.1°C) and experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. She has a long history of constipation.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.

      To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.

      Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.

      In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.

      For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      74.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman presents with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her ROSIER score...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. Her ROSIER score is 3.
      According to the current NICE guidelines, what is the maximum time frame from the start of symptoms within which thrombolysis can be administered?

      Your Answer: 4.5 hours

      Explanation:

      Alteplase (rt-pA) is a recommended treatment for acute ischaemic stroke in adults if it is initiated within 4.5 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms. It is crucial to exclude intracranial haemorrhage through appropriate imaging techniques before starting the treatment. The initial dose of alteplase is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum of 90 mg. This dose is administered intravenously over a period of 60 minutes. The first 10% of the dose is given through intravenous injection, while the remaining amount is administered through intravenous infusion. For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals aged 16 and above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are present for the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of...

    Incorrect

    • You are present for the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles in the Emergency Department. Your consultant evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
      The hands and feet appear bluish in color
      The heart rate is 110 beats per minute
      There is no response to stimulation
      There is slight bending of the limbs
      The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
      What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:

      Appearance
      Pulse rate
      Grimace
      Activity
      Respiratory effort

      The Apgar score criteria are as follows:

      Score of 0:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
      Pulse rate: Absent
      Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
      Activity: None
      Respiratory effort: Absent

      Score of 1:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
      Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
      Activity: Some flexion
      Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gasping

      Score of 2:
      Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
      Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
      Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
      Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of a painful throat, high...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of a painful throat, high temperature, diarrhea, and muscle aches. Her temperature today is 38.6°C. Approximately 8 months ago, she began misusing intravenous drugs and acknowledges sharing needles. During the examination, you confirm the existence of lymph node swelling in the neck and armpits. Additionally, she has developed a widespread rash consisting of small raised bumps on her chest and abdomen.

      Select from the options below the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Explanation:

      This man is at high risk of contracting HIV due to his history of intravenous drug abuse and sharing needles. If a patient has a flu-like illness and a history of risk factors, it is important to suspect that they may be experiencing an HIV seroconversion illness.

      Around 20-60% of individuals who contract HIV go through a seroconversion illness. This typically occurs within 1 to 6 weeks after exposure and presents with symptoms similar to the flu. Common clinical features include fever, malaise, myalgia, pharyngitis, diarrhea, headaches, maculopapular rash, lymphadenopathy, and neuralgia.

      During this stage of the disease, antibody tests will show negative results. However, a diagnosis of HIV can still be made by conducting a P24 antigen test or measuring HIV RNA levels. CD4 and CD8 counts are usually within the normal range at this stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old woman presents with right-sided hemiplegia and right-sided loss of joint position...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with right-sided hemiplegia and right-sided loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense and discriminatory touch. She also complains of blurred vision, and on further examination, you notice that she is unable to move her left eye outward and is tilting her head to the left side. A CT head scan is performed, and she is found to have experienced a left-sided stroke. She is subsequently admitted under the care of the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Medial medullary syndrome

      Correct Answer: Medial pontine syndrome

      Explanation:

      When the paramedian branches of the basilar artery are blocked, it leads to a condition known as medial pontine syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by several symptoms. Firstly, there is contralateral hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on the opposite side of the body due to damage to the pyramidal tracts. Additionally, there is contralateral loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch, which occurs as a result of damage to the medial lemniscus. Lastly, individuals with medial pontine syndrome may experience double vision caused by paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle, which is due to damage to the sixth cranial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      89.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe, widespread, bright red rash covering her...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a severe, widespread, bright red rash covering her entire torso, face, arms and upper legs. The skin is scaling and peeling in places and feels hot to touch. She is referred to the on-call dermatologist and a diagnosis of exfoliative erythroderma is made.
      What is the SINGLE most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Erythroderma is a condition characterized by widespread redness affecting more than 90% of the body surface. It is also known as exfoliative erythroderma due to the presence of skin exfoliation. Another term used to describe this condition is the red man syndrome.

      The clinical features of exfoliative erythroderma include the rapid spread of redness to cover more than 90% of the body surface. Scaling of the skin occurs between days 2 and 6, leading to thickening of the skin. Despite the skin feeling hot, patients often experience a sensation of coldness. Keratoderma, which is the thickening of the skin on the palms and soles, may develop. Over time, erythema and scaling of the scalp can result in hair loss. The nails may become thickened, ridged, and even lost. Lymphadenopathy, or enlarged lymph nodes, is a common finding. In some cases, the patient’s overall health may be compromised.

      Exfoliative erythroderma can be caused by various factors, including eczema (with atopic dermatitis being the most common underlying cause), psoriasis, lymphoma and leukemia (with cutaneous T-cell lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma being the most common malignant causes), certain drugs (more than 60 drugs have been implicated, with sulphonamides, isoniazid, penicillin, antimalarials, phenytoin, captopril, and cimetidine being the most commonly associated), idiopathic (unknown cause), and rare conditions such as pityriasis rubra pilaris and pemphigus foliaceus. Withdrawal of corticosteroids, underlying infections, hypocalcemia, and the use of strong coal tar preparations can also precipitate exfoliative erythroderma.

      Potential complications of exfoliative erythroderma include dehydration, hypothermia, cardiac failure, overwhelming secondary infection, protein loss and edema, anemia (due to loss of iron, B12, and folate), and lymphadenopathy.

      Management of exfoliative erythroderma should involve referring the patient to the medical on-call team and dermatology for admission. It is important to keep the patient warm and start intravenous fluids, such as warmed 0.9% saline. Applying generous amounts of emollients and wet dressings can help alleviate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where she was a passenger in a car hit by a truck at high speed. She is 32 weeks pregnant. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 120, blood pressure 98/62, oxygen saturation 97% on high-flow oxygen, respiratory rate 24, temperature 36.8°C. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The airway is clear, and her chest examination is normal. She has experienced a small amount of vaginal bleeding and is experiencing abdominal pain and tenderness. Two large IV needles have been inserted in her arm, and a complete set of blood tests have been sent to the laboratory, including a request for a blood type and cross-match. She has also had a small amount of vaginal bleeding and is complaining of abdominal pain. It is noted from her initial blood tests that she is rhesus D negative.
      Which of the following adjustments should be made during the initial assessment?

      Your Answer: The mother should be log rolled to her left side at a 15-30-degree angle

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the vena cava can be compressed by the uterus, leading to a decrease in venous return to the heart. This can worsen the shock state in cases of trauma by reducing cardiac output. To alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, the ATLS guidelines recommend manually displacing the uterus to the left side during the primary survey.

      If spinal immobilization is necessary, the mother should be log rolled to her left side at a 15-30-degree angle, raising the right side by 10-15 cm. To maintain spinal motion restriction while decompressing the vena cava, a bolstering device like a Cardiff wedge should be used to support the mother.

      Pregnancy causes an increase in intravascular volume, which means that pregnant patients can lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of hypovolemia such as tachycardia and hypotension. Despite stable vital signs, the placenta may not receive adequate perfusion, putting the fetus at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to initiate fluid resuscitation, starting with crystalloid fluids and then using type-specific blood if necessary. Vasopressors should only be used as a last resort to restore maternal blood pressure, as they can further reduce uterine blood flow and lead to fetal hypoxia.

      If the mother is rhesus D negative, anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered within 72 hours. However, this is not a priority during the primary survey.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      150.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Nephrology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (0/1) 0%
Neurology (2/4) 50%
Maxillofacial & Dental (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Major Incident Management & PHEM (0/1) 0%
Surgical Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Passmed