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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump in his abdomen. A CT scan reveals a sizable tumor in the sigmoid colon.
Where is the mass most likely to be felt when palpating the surface marking?Your Answer: Left iliac fossa
Explanation:The sigmoid colon is the last segment of the colon and is primarily situated in the left iliac fossa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female is brought into the emergency department with burns sustained in a house fire. You evaluate the patient for potential inhalation injury and the severity of the burns to the patient's limbs. In terms of the pathophysiology of burns, what is the central component of the burn known as according to the Jackson's Burn wound model?
Your Answer: Zone of oedema
Correct Answer: Zone of coagulation
Explanation:Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 3
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in sweating and in distress, complaining of abdominal discomfort and feeling nauseous. She has a history of excessive alcohol consumption and has just completed a weekend of heavy drinking. During the examination, there is significant tenderness in her abdomen, particularly in the upper middle area, and bruising is noticeable around her belly button and on the sides of her abdomen.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.
The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Many cases are also of unknown origin. To remember the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful:
– I: Idiopathic
– G: Gallstones
– E: Ethanol
– T: Trauma
– S: Steroids
– M: Mumps
– A: Autoimmune
– S: Scorpion stings
– H: Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia
– E: ERCP
– D: DrugsThe clinical features of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, referral of pain to specific dermatomes (or shoulder tip via the phrenic nerve), fever/sepsis, epigastric tenderness, jaundice, and signs such as Gray-Turner sign (ecchymosis of the flank) and Cullen sign (ecchymosis of the peri-umbilical area).
The stimulation of the thoracic splanchnic nerves is responsible for the referred pain to the T6-10 dermatomes that is sometimes observed in pancreatitis and other pancreatic disorders.
When investigating acute pancreatitis in the emergency department, it is important to perform blood glucose testing, a full blood count (which often shows an elevated white cell count), urea and electrolyte testing, calcium testing, liver function tests, coagulation screening, serum amylase testing (which should be more than 5 times the normal limit), an ECG, arterial blood gas analysis, and an abdominal X-ray.
Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves providing the patient with oxygen, adequate pain relief (including antiemetics), and fluid resuscitation. A nasogastric tube and urinary catheter should be inserted, and fluid balance should be carefully monitored. Most patients require management in a high dependency unit (HDU) or intensive care unit (ICU) setting.
Acute pancreatitis has a significant mortality rate, and complications are common. Early complications may include severe sepsis and circulatory shock, acute renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, hypocalcemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome and pancreatic encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presents with right upper quadrant pain and fever. She is diagnosed with acute cholecystitis. Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?
Your Answer: The gallbladder fills with pus, which is usually sterile initially
Explanation:Acute cholecystitis occurs when a stone becomes stuck in the outlet of the gallbladder, causing irritation of the wall and resulting in chemical cholecystitis. This leads to the accumulation of pus within the gallbladder, which is typically sterile at first. However, there is a possibility of secondary infection with enteric organisms like Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp.
The clinical features of acute cholecystitis include severe pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium, which can radiate to the back and lasts for more than 12 hours. Fevers and rigors are often present, along with common symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Murphy’s sign is a useful diagnostic tool, as it has a high sensitivity and positive predictive value for acute cholecystitis. However, its specificity is lower, as it can also be positive in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis.
In cases of acute cholecystitis, the white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated. AST, ALT, and ALP may also show elevation, but they can often be within the normal range. Bilirubin levels may be mildly elevated, but they can also be normal. If there is a significant increase in AST, ALT, ALP, and/or bilirubin, it may indicate the presence of other biliary tract conditions such as ascending cholangitis or choledocholithiasis.
It is important to note that there is some overlap in the presentation of biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis. To differentiate between these diagnoses, the following list can be helpful:
Biliary colic:
– Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
– Fever: Absent
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Normal
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
– Bilirubin: NormalAcute cholecystitis:
– Pain duration: More than 12 hours
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Positive
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
– Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevatedAscending cholangitis:
– Pain duration: Variable
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Elevated
– AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with a 10-week history of loose stools and occasional blood in his stool. He has experienced a weight loss of 5 kg over the past eight months. During the examination, you detect a mass in his lower right quadrant.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:In patients of this age who have experienced a change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding, and weight loss, the most probable diagnosis is colorectal carcinoma. Considering the patient’s history and examination findings, the other options in this question are significantly less likely. It is crucial to refer this patient promptly to a specialized team that focuses on the treatment of lower gastrointestinal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with colicky pain in the upper right quadrant, along with nausea and vomiting. You suspect he is having an episode of biliary colic.
Where is the most common place for gallstones to get stuck and cause cholestasis?Your Answer: Ampulla of Vater
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s pouch
Explanation:Biliary colic occurs when a gallstone temporarily blocks either the cystic duct or Hartmann’s pouch, causing the gallbladder to contract. The blockage is relieved when the stone either falls back into the gallbladder or passes through the duct.
Located at the junction of the gallbladder’s neck and the cystic duct, there is a protrusion in the gallbladder wall known as Hartmann’s pouch. This is the most common site for gallstones to become stuck and cause cholestasis.
Patients experiencing biliary colic typically present with intermittent, cramp-like pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The pain can last anywhere from 15 minutes to 24 hours and is often accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. It is not uncommon for the pain to radiate to the right scapula area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a left sided, painful groin swelling. You suspect that it is an inguinal hernia.
Which of the following examination features make it more likely to be a direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer: It can be reduced superiorly and posteriorly
Correct Answer: It can be controlled by pressure over the deep inguinal ring
Explanation:Indirect inguinal hernias have an elliptical shape, unlike direct hernias which are round. They are not easily reducible and do not reduce spontaneously when reclining. Unlike direct hernias that appear immediately, indirect hernias take longer to appear when standing. They are reduced superiorly and then superolaterally, while direct hernias reduce superiorly and posteriorly. Pressure over the deep inguinal ring helps control indirect hernias. However, they are more prone to strangulation due to the narrow neck of the deep inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with fevers and severe pain in the left hypochondrium that radiates to her back. The pain has been present for 24 hours. On examination, she is tender in the left upper quadrant, and Murphy’s sign is positive. Her temperature is 38°C.
Her blood results are as follows:
CRP: 94 mg/l (< 5 mg/l)
Hb: 12.4 g/dl (11.5-16 g/dl)
WCC: 14.4 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
Neut: 11.6 x 109/l (2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
Bilirubin 18 mmol (3-20)
ALT 34 IU/L (5-40)
ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms strongly suggest a diagnosis of acute cholecystitis. This condition occurs when a gallstone becomes stuck in the outlet of the gallbladder, causing irritation and inflammation of the gallbladder wall. As a result, the gallbladder fills with pus, which is initially sterile but can become infected with bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp.
The clinical features of acute cholecystitis include severe pain in the upper right quadrant or epigastric, which can radiate to the back and lasts for more than 12 hours. Fevers and rigors are also commonly present, along with nausea and vomiting. Murphy’s sign, a physical examination finding, is highly sensitive and has a high positive predictive value for acute cholecystitis. However, its specificity is lower, as it can also be positive in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis.
In acute cholecystitis, the white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated. Liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, and ALP, may also be elevated but can often be within the normal range. Bilirubin levels may be mildly elevated, but they can also be normal. If there is a significant elevation in AST, ALT, ALP, or bilirubin, it may indicate other biliary tract conditions, such as ascending cholangitis or choledocholithiasis.
It is important to differentiate acute cholecystitis from other conditions with similar presentations. Renal colic, for example, presents with pain in the loin area and tenderness in the renal angle, which is different from the symptoms seen in acute cholecystitis. Cholangiocarcinoma, a rare type of cancer originating from the biliary epithelium, typically presents with painless jaundice and itching.
To help distinguish between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis, the following summarizes their key differences:
Biliary colic:
– Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
– Fever: Absent
– Murphy’s sign: Negative
– WCC & CRP: Normal
– AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
– Bilirubin: NormalAcute cholecystitis:
– Pain duration: More than 12 hours
– Fever: Present
– Murphy’s sign: Positive
– WCC & -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last two bowel movements. She has had her bowels open three times in the past 24 hours. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable with a pulse of 85 bpm and a BP of 110/70. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no obvious source of anorectal bleeding on rectal examination.
Which investigation is recommended first-line for haemodynamically stable patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeds that require hospitalization?Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.
When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).
For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.
Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.
Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.
If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.
If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.
If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.
Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.
In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with sharp pain while having a bowel movement. The pain usually continues for an additional 30-60 minutes afterward. She has also observed small amounts of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping. She has been experiencing constipation for the past couple of weeks.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemorrhoids
Correct Answer: Anal fissure
Explanation:An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline, and they are often caused by the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.
Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last for up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.
The initial management approach for an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)
Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for cases where the fissure does not heal with conservative measures. It has a success rate of 90%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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