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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl comes in with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother mentions that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice has been hoarse. Here are her observations: temperature 38.1°C, HR 135, RR 30, SaO2 97% on air. Her chest examination appears normal, but you notice the presence of stridor at rest.
Which of the following medications is most likely to alleviate her symptoms?Your Answer: Nebulised salbutamol
Correct Answer: Nebulised budesonide
Explanation:Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.
A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.
Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a bout of hemoptysis. She feels generally unwell and has experienced recent weight loss. Additionally, she has developed a rash. Her medical history includes a diagnosis of asthma last year and allergic rhinitis. On examination, she has a normal body temperature, her blood pressure is 180/95, and she has a purpuric rash primarily on her legs. During chest examination, a few scattered wheezes are heard.
Recently, she had a blood test, and the results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
- White blood cell count (WCC): 23.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
- Neutrophils: 8.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
- Lymphocytes: 2.1 x 109/l (normal range: 1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
- Eosinophils: 15.7 x 109/l (normal range: 0.04-0.44 x 109/l)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 107 mg/l (normal range: <5 mg/l)
- Sodium (Na): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K): 4.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Creat): 255 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
- Urea: 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wegener’s granulomatosis
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:This individual has presented with haemoptysis and a purpuric rash, alongside a history of asthma and allergic rhinitis. Blood tests have revealed elevated inflammatory markers, pronounced eosinophilia, and acute renal failure. The most likely diagnosis in this case is Churg-Strauss syndrome.
Churg-Strauss syndrome is a rare autoimmune vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. The American College of Rheumatology has established six criteria for diagnosing Churg-Strauss syndrome. The presence of at least four of these criteria is highly indicative of the condition:
1. Asthma (wheezing, expiratory rhonchi)
2. Eosinophilia of more than 10% in peripheral blood
3. Paranasal sinusitis
4. Pulmonary infiltrates (which may be transient)
5. Histological confirmation of vasculitis with extravascular eosinophils
6. Mononeuritis multiplex or polyneuropathyChurg-Strauss syndrome can affect various organ systems, with the most common clinical features including:
– Constitutional symptoms: fever, fatigue, weight loss, and arthralgia
– Respiratory symptoms: asthma, haemoptysis, allergic rhinitis, and sinusitis
– Cardiovascular symptoms: heart failure, myocarditis, and myocardial infarction
– Gastrointestinal symptoms: gastrointestinal bleeding, bowel ischaemia, and appendicitis
– Dermatological symptoms: purpura, livedo reticularis, and skin nodules
– Renal symptoms: glomerulonephritis, renal failure, and hypertension
– Neurological symptoms: mononeuritis multiplexInvestigations often reveal eosinophilia, anaemia, elevated CRP and ESR, elevated creatinine, and elevated serum IgE levels. Approximately 70% of patients test positive for p-ANCA.
The mainstay of treatment for Churg-Strauss syndrome is high-dose steroids. In cases with life-threatening complications, cyclophosphamide and azathioprine are often administered.
Polyarteritis nodosa is another vasculitic disorder that affects small and medium-sized blood vessels. It can impact the gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, skin, and joints, but it is not typically associated with rhinitis or asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you observe whispering pectoriloquy over her left lower lobe.
What is the PRIMARY probable cause of this chest sign?Your Answer: Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: Lung consolidation
Explanation:Whispering pectoriloquy is a phenomenon that occurs when there is lung consolidation. It is characterized by an amplified and clearer sound of whispering that can be heard when using a stethoscope to listen to the affected areas of the lungs. To conduct the test, patients are usually instructed to whisper the phrase ninety-nine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with a dry cough that has been going on for a week. He also complains of muscle aches, fatigue, and a sore throat. In the past day, he has developed diarrhea and a mild throbbing headache. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 37.8°C, and faint crackles are heard at the base of his lungs.
What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection from Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features commonly associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection include a flu-like illness that occurs before respiratory symptoms, fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs typically develop later in the course of the illness. It is worth noting that Mycoplasma pneumoniae is frequently linked to the development of erythema multiforme and can also be a cause of Steven-Johnson syndrome. The rash associated with erythema multiforme is characterized by multiple red lesions on the limbs that develop into target lesions a few days after the rash first appears.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath. The patient has had a tracheostomy for several years after being on a ventilator for an extended period of time due to a severe head injury. You provide high flow oxygen and remove the inner tube of the tracheostomy. However, there is no improvement in the patient's condition. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pass suction catheter
Explanation:If a patient with breathing difficulty does not show improvement after removing the inner tracheostomy tube, it is recommended to use a suction catheter to remove any secretions. This can help clear any blockage caused by secretions or debris in or near the tube. If this does not improve the situation, the next step would be to deflate the cuff. If deflating the cuff stabilizes or improves the patient’s condition, it suggests that air can flow around the tube within the airway, indicating that the tracheostomy tube may be obstructed or displaced.
Further Reading:
Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.
When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.
Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents with a history of a persistent cough that has been present for the past four weeks. The cough occurs in quick bursts with a deep breath in followed by a series of forceful coughs. She occasionally vomits after coughing. Her mother reports that the cough is more severe at night.
During the examination, her chest sounds clear, but you observe two small subconjunctival hemorrhages and some tiny red spots on her face.
What is the MOST suitable test to perform in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels
Explanation:This presentation strongly suggests a diagnosis of whooping cough, which is an infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. The disease is highly contagious and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The incubation period is typically 7-21 days, and it is estimated that about 90% of close household contacts will become infected.
The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage, known as the catarrhal stage, is similar to a mild respiratory infection with symptoms such as low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually not as severe as in the second stage. This phase typically lasts about a week.
The second stage, called the paroxysmal stage, is characterized by the development of a distinctive cough. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound. These spasms are followed by a series of rapid, hacking coughs. Patients may also experience vomiting and develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Between spasms, patients generally feel well and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over this period. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.
Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.
Public Health England (PHE) has specific recommendations for testing for whooping cough based on the age of the patient, the time since onset of illness, and the severity of the presentation.
For infants under 12 months of age, hospitalized patients should be tested using PCR testing. Non-hospitalized patients within two weeks of onset should be investigated with culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalized patients presenting over two weeks after onset should be tested using serology for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
For children over 12 months of age and adults, patients within two weeks of onset should be tested using culture of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Patients aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after onset should have oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she has rapidly declined in the past 24 hours. She appears extremely ill and has a temperature of 39.3°C. She has a history of stroke, is typically confined to bed, and struggles with communication. During the examination, she exhibits rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, and coarse crackles in the right middle and lower areas.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:This patient presents with clinical features that are indicative of a right middle/lower lobe pneumonia. Considering her past medical history of a stroke and the specific location of the chest signs, it is highly probable that she is suffering from aspiration pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes in with a cough, chest discomfort, and difficulty breathing. After evaluating him, you determine that he has community-acquired pneumonia. He has no significant medical history but has a known allergy to penicillin.
What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). The most common cause of CAP in an adult patient who is otherwise in good health is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
When it comes to treating community-acquired pneumonia, the first-line antibiotic of choice is amoxicillin. According to the NICE guidelines, patients who are allergic to penicillin should be prescribed a macrolide (such as clarithromycin) or a tetracycline (such as doxycycline).
For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the diagnosis and management of pneumonia in adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman returns from a recent vacation on a cruise ship with a persistent cough and a high temperature. Today she has also experienced frequent episodes of diarrhea and has developed sharp chest pain on both sides. She reports feeling short of breath, especially when she exerts herself. The cruise ship doctor had prescribed her amoxicillin a few days ago, but she has not seen any improvement.
Her blood test results today are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 14.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
White blood cell count (WCC): 13.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
Neutrophils: 10.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
Lymphocytes: 0.6 x 109/l (normal range: 1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
Eosinophils: 0.35 x 109/l (normal range: 0.04-0.44 x 109/l)
C-reactive protein (CRP): 87 mg/l (normal range: <5 mg/l)
Sodium (Na): 122 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
Potassium (K): 4.4 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Creat): 112 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella pneumophila is a type of Gram-negative bacterium that can be found in natural water supplies and soil. It is responsible for causing Legionnaires’ disease, a serious illness. Outbreaks of this disease have been associated with poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, and hot tubs. In the past, there have been instances of Legionnaires’ disease outbreaks on cruise ships due to inadequate maintenance of air conditioning and shower units.
The pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease presents with certain clinical features. Initially, there may be a mild flu-like prodrome lasting for 1-3 days. A persistent cough, which is usually non-productive and occurs in approximately 90% of cases, is also common. Other symptoms include pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and anorexia. Additionally, some individuals may experience a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), which can lead to hyponatraemia.
It is important to note that infections caused by Legionella pneumophila are resistant to amoxicillin. However, they can be effectively treated with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin or quinolones such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, including doxycycline, can also be used for treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 48-year-old teacher with a persistent dry cough that has been ongoing for several months. The patient also reports mild shortness of breath while walking around the school. They used to smoke but quit ten years ago. The patient has a normal body temperature and all other vital signs are within normal limits. During the examination, finger clubbing is noted on their hands. Chest examination reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles at the bases of both lungs, but no wheezing is detected. Spirometry results came back normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Based on the clinical features of this individual, it is highly likely that they have pulmonary fibrosis. The key to determining the correct diagnosis is to differentiate between extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), also known as cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis (CFA).
In this case, the gentleman does not have any occupational risk factors for EAA and exhibits digital clubbing. While clubbing is not commonly seen in EAA, it is a frequent occurrence in IPF. Therefore, based on these factors, IPF is the more probable diagnosis.
Spirometry results in IPF can either be normal or show a restrictive pattern, whereas an obstructive pattern would be expected in COPD. The history and clinical features presented do not align with the other diagnoses mentioned in this question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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