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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman is seeking advice at the family planning clinic as she plans to start a family soon. She has been researching medications that may harm her baby's growth during pregnancy, especially those that can cause cleft palate and heart defects. Her concerns stem from her friend's experience with her baby being born with these conditions. Can you identify the drug that is linked to cleft palate and congenital heart disease?
Your Answer: Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is linked to the development of cleft palate and congenital heart disease, making it a known teratogenic substance.
Insulin and acetaminophen are considered safe for use during pregnancy and are not known to have any harmful effects on the developing fetus.
Warfarin, on the other hand, is known to be teratogenic and may cause defects in the hands, nose, and eyes, as well as growth retardation. However, it is not associated with cleft palate or congenital heart disease.
Tetracyclines can cause discoloration of the teeth and bone defects due to their deposition in these tissues.
Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.
Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.
Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.
It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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At which stage does the aorta divide into the left and right common iliac arteries?
Your Answer: L2
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The point of bifurcation of the aorta is typically at the level of L4, which is a consistent location and is frequently assessed in examinations.
Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body
The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.
In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents to the general practitioner with complaints of deteriorating balance and vision. His mother accompanies him to the appointment. Upon examination, the boy has a high arched palate and absent ankle tendon reflexes. The general practitioner refers the boy to a specialist who conducts genomic studies. The results reveal a trinucleotide repeat of GAA on chromosome 9.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Spinal muscular atrophy
Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia
Explanation:Friedreich’s ataxia is caused by a GAA trinucleotide repeat resulting from a mutation in the FXN gene located on chromosome 9.
Understanding Friedreich’s Ataxia
Friedreich’s ataxia is a common hereditary ataxia that usually affects individuals at an early age. It is caused by a trinucleotide repeat disorder that affects the X25 gene on chromosome 9. Unlike other trinucleotide repeat disorders, Friedreich’s ataxia does not show the phenomenon of anticipation. The condition is characterised by gait ataxia and kyphoscoliosis, which are the most common presenting features. Other neurological features include absent ankle jerks/extensor plantars, optic atrophy, and spinocerebellar tract degeneration. In addition, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of death in individuals with Friedreich’s ataxia, while diabetes mellitus affects 10-20% of patients. A high-arched palate is also a common feature.
Overall, understanding Friedreich’s ataxia is important for early diagnosis and management of the condition. With proper care and support, individuals with Friedreich’s ataxia can lead fulfilling lives despite the challenges posed by the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to his doctor with a complaint of speech difficulty that has been ongoing for two months. He reports difficulty in producing speech and frequently experiences word-finding difficulties, but has no trouble comprehending written or spoken language.
To investigate the cause of his symptoms, a CT scan of the head is ordered.
Based on his symptoms, where would you anticipate a lesion to be located?Your Answer: Left inferior frontal gyrus
Explanation:Broca’s aphasia results from a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, specifically in Broca’s area. This area is connected to Wernicke’s area by the arcuate fasciculus and is responsible for expressive language functions. Lesions to other areas, such as the angular gyrus or fusiform gyrus, would not cause expressive aphasia. Wernicke’s area, located in the superior temporal lobe, is responsible for receptive language functions and a lesion here would result in a receptive aphasia. The sylvian fissure separates the frontal and temporal lobes and a lesion here may cause seizures but not aphasia.
Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.
Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.
Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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John is a 35-year-old man who was discharged 3 days ago from hospital, after sustaining an injury to his head. Observations and imaging were all normal and there was no neurological deficit on examination. Since then he has noticed difficulty in going upstairs. He says that he can't see where he is going and becomes very unsteady. His wife also told him that he has started to tilt his head to the right, which he was unaware of.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/6 but he has difficulty looking up and out with his right eye, no other abnormality is revealed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Extraocular muscle impingement
Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve palsy
Explanation:Consider 4th nerve palsy if your vision deteriorates while descending stairs.
Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a depressed skull fracture that requires surgical intervention. After a few days, he reports experiencing double vision while walking down stairs and reading. Upon conducting an ocular convergence test, it is observed that the left eye faces downwards and medially, while the right eye does not. Which cranial nerve is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trochlear
Explanation:The fourth cranial nerve is susceptible to injury in cases of head trauma due to its lengthy intracranial path. Acute fourth nerve palsy is most commonly caused by head trauma, resulting in vertical diplopia. The double vision is most severe when the affected eye looks inward, which typically occurs during the accommodation reflex while descending stairs.
Disorders of the Oculomotor System: Nerve Path and Palsy Features
The oculomotor system is responsible for controlling eye movements and pupil size. Disorders of this system can result in various nerve path and palsy features. The oculomotor nerve has a large nucleus at the midbrain and its fibers pass through the red nucleus and the pyramidal tract, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience ptosis, eye down and out, and an inability to move the eye superiorly, inferiorly, or medially. The pupil may also become fixed and dilated.
The trochlear nerve has the longest intracranial course and is the only nerve to exit the dorsal aspect of the brainstem. Its nucleus is located at the midbrain and it passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience vertical diplopia (diplopia on descending the stairs) and an inability to look down and in.
The abducens nerve has its nucleus in the mid pons and is responsible for the convergence of eyes in primary position. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience lateral diplopia towards the side of the lesion and the eye may deviate medially. Understanding the nerve path and palsy features of the oculomotor system can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders affecting this important system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is rushed to the operating room for suspected ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm without prior fasting. To perform rapid sequence intubation, the anaesthetists administer thiopental sodium, a barbiturate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase duration of chloride channel opening
Explanation:Barbiturates increase the duration of chloride channel opening, while sodium valproate and phenytoin work by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. SNRIs like duloxetine function by inhibiting serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake, and memantine is a glutamate receptor antagonist used for treating moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Botulinum toxin, on the other hand, blocks acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction and is used to treat muscle disorders like spasticity and excessive sweating.
Barbiturates are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety and seizures, as well as for inducing anesthesia. They work by enhancing the action of GABAA, a neurotransmitter that helps to calm the brain. Specifically, barbiturates increase the duration of chloride channel opening, which allows more chloride ions to enter the neuron and further inhibit its activity. This is in contrast to benzodiazepines, which increase the frequency of chloride channel opening. A helpful mnemonic to remember this difference is Frequently Bend – During Barbeque or Barbiturates increase duration & Benzodiazepines increase frequency. Overall, barbiturates are an important class of drugs that can help to manage a variety of conditions by modulating the activity of GABAA in the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman is experiencing muscle spasticity due to relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Baclofen is prescribed to alleviate the pain associated with spasticity.
What is the mechanism of action of Baclofen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor agonist
Explanation:Baclofen is a medication that acts as an agonist at GABA receptors in the central nervous system. It is primarily used as a muscle relaxant to treat spasticity conditions such as multiple sclerosis and cerebral palsy. It should be noted that baclofen is not a GABA antagonist like flumazenil, nor does it act as an NMDA agonist like the toxin responsible for Amanita muscaria poisoning. Additionally, baclofen does not exert its effects at muscarinic receptors like buscopan, which is commonly used to treat pain associated with bowel wall spasm and respiratory secretions during end-of-life care. Instead, baclofen specifically targets GABA receptors.
Baclofen is a medication that is commonly prescribed to alleviate muscle spasticity in individuals with conditions like multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, and spinal cord injuries. It works by acting as an agonist of GABA receptors in the central nervous system, which includes both the brain and spinal cord. Essentially, this means that baclofen helps to enhance the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which can help to reduce the activity of certain neurons and ultimately lead to a reduction in muscle spasticity. Overall, baclofen is an important medication for individuals with these conditions, as it can help to improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of muscle spasticity on their daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A motorcyclist in his 30s is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a severe closed head injury. He was not wearing a helmet at the time of the accident. As a result, he develops raised intracranial pressure. Which cranial nerve is most likely to be affected first by this process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abducens
Explanation:The abducens nerve, also known as CN VI, is vulnerable to increased pressure within the skull due to its lengthy path within the cranial cavity. Additionally, it travels over the petrous temporal bone, making it susceptible to sixth nerve palsies that can occur in cases of mastoiditis.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department accompanied by his wife. According to her, he has experienced sudden hearing loss and is currently unable to perceive any sounds. A stroke is suspected, and he is sent for an MRI scan which reveals a thalamic lesion.
Which specific nucleus of the thalamus is most likely affected by the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial geniculate nucleus
Explanation:Hearing impairment can result from damage to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, which is responsible for relaying auditory signals to the cerebral cortex. Similarly, damage to other regions of the thalamus can affect different types of sensory and motor functioning, such as visual loss from damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus, facial sensation from damage to the medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus, and motor functioning from damage to the ventral anterior nucleus.
The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals
The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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